If the baby gets fussy between feedings, I give her a bottle of water. After delivery, the nurses assessment reveals a soft, boggy uterus located above the level of the umbilicus.
What are the nursing priority actions for the newborn immediately following delivery?With every newborn contact, respiratory evaluation is necessary because this is the highest priority in newborn care.The nurse will Contact the Social Services department to help both the mother and the newborn because the nurse is concerned that a new mother is not showing interest in the newborn and does not participate in newborn careWhile some patients may not express it outright, their actions show they have little relationship with their newborn. A lady who is unsure whether she wants the baby is reluctant to make eye contact rarely touches the infant even after discharge, and just briefly inquires about newborn care.When this occurs, the social services department of the hospital may be able to help the patient plan for the future of the kid. The nurse must do more than just arrange for the mother and child to get home care. In order to determine who will care for the infant at home and whether the patient wants to place the child for adoption, the nurse should speak with Social Services. The nurse's role does not include this.To learn more about newborn refer to:
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When foods are broken down into flavor combinations, some that seem odd on the surface are often delicious. For instance, a peanut butter and marshmallow sandwich (sometimes referred to as a “fluffernutter”) is simply a combination of salty and sweet. What is an unusual food combination that you or someone you know likes? Does it make more sense when you think about how the flavors work together?
Foods' distinct flavors are created by chemical components. Because they share that chemical component, foods comprised of comparable substances complement one another well.
What foods are broken down into flavor combinations?The idea of food synergy is the idea that eating certain foods together results in better health than eating those foods separately. Creating a mixture by combining two or more food items. You can do this by hand-mixing the ingredients or by using an electric blender or food processor.
In most cases, seasonings are added toward the end of the cooking process. The most popular seasonings are acids, salt, and pepper (such as lemon juice).
Therefore, To season food is to emphasize or enhance its original flavor without changing it.
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circular rna circctnna1 promotes colorectal cancer progression by sponging mir-149-5p and regulating foxm1 expression
Circular RNAs (circRNAs) are a newly discovered family of non-coding RNAs that have been linked to numerous types of cancer and function in a variety of ways.
What is RNA ?
All living cells contain ribonucleic acid (abbreviated RNA), a nucleic acid with properties comparable to those of DNA. Instead of the deoxyribose present in DNA, the backbone of an RNA molecule is made up of alternating phosphate groups and the sugar ribose.
CRC is a prevalent genetic malignancy that frequently results in death. Numerous genes, including circular RNAs, are involved in its aetiology (circRNAs).In colon cancer tissues and cell lines, CTNNA1 expression is increased. CircRNAs With regard to colon cancer development, CTNNA1 functions as an oncogene. circ CTNNA1 could sponge mi to control FOXM1 expression. Colon cancer and R-149-5p
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F-speed dental x-ray film reduces radiation exposure to the patient by % compared with D-speed dental x-
ray film.
F-speed dental x-ray film reduces radiation exposure to the patient by 60 % compared with D-speed dental x-ray film.
What is F-speed dental x-ray film?The film used for the intraoral maxillary and mandibular exam is classified into three speed classes: D (slowest), E, and F-speed (fastest). The faster the film, like photographic film, the less exposure it requires. Film speed can be an important factor in determining how much radiation a patient receives.
When compared to E-speed and D-speed film, F-speed film, the newest and fastest film for x-ray on the market today, reduces radiation exposure to the patient by 20% to 60%.
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PLEASE HELP ASAP! WILL MARK BRAINLIEST!!
1. Which of the following identifies the internal rotation of the proximal humerus?
The proximal humerus connects to the shoulder through the glenoid fossa of the scapula.
What is the humerus?The humerus is the largest bone in the upper extremity and is responsible for defining the human brachium. It articulates with the glenoid proximally via the glenohumeral joint and with the radius and ulna distally via the elbow joint.
The humerus is a long bone in the upper arm that connects the shoulder and elbow joints. The glenohumeral joint is formed when the proximal humerus connects to the shoulder via the glenoid fossa of the scapula. The humerus is the upper arm bone located between the elbow and the shoulder. Its primary function is to support your shoulder and allow you to move your arm in a variety of ways.
Note that an overview was given as the information is incomplete.
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When the physiological effects of stress begin to stabilize, what stage of the general adaptation syndrome would a person be experiencing?.
The person is experiencing Second stage of general adaptation syndrome known as Resistant Phase.
Resistant Phase: The body starts to heal itself after the initial shock of a stressful incident and having a fight-or-flight reaction. Your heart rate and blood pressure start to return to normal as a result of the decreased cortisol release.
The body produces hormones to stabilize itself during the resistance phase of the general adaptation syndrome, but physiological reactions are still increased, thus the body is still on high alert.
When you are subjected to stress of any type, whether it is good or negative, your body experiences what is known as general adaption syndrome.
Alarm phase is the first step, followed by resistance and tiredness.
Three Phases make up the general adaptation syndrome:
Alarm phase ; Resistance phase ;Tiredness phase .The body's initial reaction to "perceived" stress is alarm, fight or flight.
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Because the elderly begin to lose their sensitivity to taste and smell, they begin to do which of the following?
a) eat less
b) eat more, because they don't remember what they ate
c) experience healthy levels of weight loss
d) lose the ability to determine when food is spoiled and suffer more food poisoning
The elderly start eating less and losing weight because they start to lose their sense of taste and smell.
What is weight ?
The trait of being heavy, the tendency of bodies to gravitate toward the centre of the earth, and the gravitational pull, particularly when stated in specific weights or measurements like pounds, grammes, etc.
With ageing comes some natural loss of taste and scent, especially after the age of 60. However, other variables, such as nose and sinus issues, such as allergies, sinusitis, or nasal polyps, may also be responsible for a loss of taste and smell. viral diseases, such as the flu and the common cold. Taste bud cells typically regenerate every week or two, but around the age of 50, these cells start to lose their sensitivity and capacity to do so. The nose's ability to produce mucus and olfactory nerve endings may deteriorate, impairing one's ability to smell. Due to this they avoid food and may experience unhealthy amount of weight loss.
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Age-related loss of taste and smell perception causes seniors to eat less and lose weight.
What is weight?a quality of being heavy, a tendency for objects to drift toward the center of the earth, and the gravitational attraction, especially when expressed in precise weights or measurements like pounds, grammes, etc.Taste and smell naturally decline as we get older, especially around the age of 60.A loss of taste and smell, however, may also be brought on by other factors, such as nose and sinus conditions, such as allergies, sinusitis, or nasal polyps. such as the flu and the common cold, are viral illnesses.Normally, taste bud cells regenerate once every two weeks, but around the age of 50, these cells begin to lose their sensitivity and ability to do so.One's ability to smell may decline due to a decline in the nose's capacity to generate mucus and olfactory nerve endings. Due to this individuals avoid food and may experience unhealthy level of weight loss.To learn more about weight loss refer to:
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How much of the 30 year increase in life expectancy since 1900 can be attributed to public health?.
The health and life expectancy of people living in the United States significantly increased over the 20th century. The average longevity of Americans has increased by more than 30 years since 1900, 25 of which may be attributed to improvements in public health.
Public health is defined as "the science and art of avoiding disease, extending life expectancy, and promoting health through the coordinated efforts and conscious decisions of society, organizations, public and private, communities, and individuals."
Public health works to advance the general welfare of the population, protect it from environmental risks, infectious disease transmission, and other threats, and guarantees that all members of the community have access to safe and effective medical treatment.
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The health transition of the twentieth century was characterized initially by the decline in infectious diseases and the concomitant increase in the numbers and proportion of people with NCDs.
Due to the persistence of parasitic, viral, and mycobacterial infections, this has since been shown false.
Their sustained or potential epidemic transmission is influenced by a number of factors. Land use and habitation patterns are related to the spread of parasitic infections. Population density in a setting that is optimal for vector habitat and breeding is a requirement for vector-borne diseases. By altering the local ecosystem to enhance vector breeding and disease transmission, deforestation, the installation of irrigation systems, mining, dams, and human relocation programs all contribute to the perpetuation of infectious disease cycles (Heggenhougen et al., 2003). Climate change, which results from human activity such as global warming, increasing humidity, and inundations, has a substantial impact on the ecosystems where infections and disease vectors thrive.To know more about infections check the below link:
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this reflex arc shows a . this reflex arc shows a . somatic reflex polysynaptic reflex visceral reflex monosynaptic reflex
A reflex with a single synapse between the sensory and motor neurons within the spinal cord is known as monosynaptic reflex.
Hence, option B is the correct answer.
What is monosynaptic reflex ?An illustration of a monosynaptic reflex. When a doctor taps the tendon immediately below the knee to test reflexes, the leg kicks out. This knee-je-rk reaction is an illustration of a straightforward monosynaptic reflex. The major sensory endings in the muscle spindles are the source of this response.
Proprioceptive neurons (afferent fibers, group Ia) that innervate these terminals create direct projections on alpha-motoneurons, which transmit their axons to the same muscle. The muscle spindle, which senses both the amount and pace of muscular stretch, is where this reflex starts.
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NOTE: The given question is incomplete on the portal. Here is the complete question.
QUESTION: A reflex with a single synapse between the sensory and motor neurons within the spinal cord is known as a:
(A) somatic reflex.
(B) monosynaptic reflex.
(C) polysynaptic reflex.
(D) visceral reflex.
Based on your knowledge of human physiology, is it necessary to consume energy bars, sports drinks, and nutritional supplements to be fit? Justify your answer.
It is necessary to consume energy bars, sports drinks, and nutritional supplements to be fit because all of the energy snacks, sports drinks, and dietary supplements provide our bodies a large amount of carbs right away. By use of various systems, these carbs are instantly transformed into glucose and then into ATP. Consequently, the amount of ATP available to the cells would suddenly increase.
This large amount of ATP is not necessary for the body in the case of a typical person who does not engage in strenuous activity, such as sports. When the body has extra ATP, it is kept in muscles as glycogen for later use.
What is ATP?The body's cells are powered by the chemical adenosine triphosphate (ATP). Cells use ATP as a source of energy to carry out many bodily processes. Our body generates ATP through three different processes: aerobic respiration, anaerobic respiration, and the creatine phosphate system.
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is where the healthcare provider is measured on the effectiveness of the care provided.
quality measure outcome is the point at which the efficiency of the care given by the healthcare provider is evaluated. Outcome metrics show how the medical service or intervention affected patients' states of health.
Consider the percentage of patients who died following surgery. the frequency of infections or surgical issues picked up in hospitals. The characteristics of the health care system's resources, such as individual doctors, groups of doctors, organisations and systems of care, as well as their location and accessibility to services, are often included in structural measures of quality.
As a result, we can state that the outcome of the quality measure is the point at which the effectiveness of the care provided by the healthcare provider is assessed. Outcome metrics show how the medical service or intervention affected patients' states of health.
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Drug abuse can be very dangerous to the body which of these best describe drug abuse
calculate the fluid intake in milliliters for the following food items
1 bowl tomato soup
1 lime jell-o cup
1/4 quart iced tea
1/2 glass water
The fluid intake in milliliters is;
1) 236.6 milliliters
2) 500 milliliters
3) 236.6 milliliters
4) 118 ml
What is the conversion factor?We know that we can use the conversion factor to be able to obtain the value of the units of volume that we have here as they ought to be in the unit of milliliter. The conversions would now be meticulously done one after the other.
According to standard measure, the given volumes have standard equivalents in milliliters and these are all shown below.
a)
1 bowl = 236.6 milliliters
b)
1 lime jell-o cup = 500 milliliters
c) 1/4 quart = 236.6 milliliters
d)1/2 glass = 118 ml
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What are the three ways the government is trying to limit the exposure of tobacco smoke in public places?
Answer:
The government has limited the exposure of tobacco smoke by banning its usage in indoor places, regulating sales, and increasing the taxes.
Explanation:
1. Banning smoking in public places: The government has banned smoking in all indoor public places, including workplaces, restaurants, bars, and clubs. This will help to protect non-smokers from secondhand smoke.
2. Regulating tobacco products: The government is regulating the sale and marketing of tobacco products, including e-cigarettes. This will help to reduce the number of people who start smoking.
3. Increasing taxes on tobacco products: The government is increasing taxes on tobacco products, making them more expensive. This will discourage people from buying them, and will help to reduce smoking overall.
over consumption of protein-rich foods offers no benefits and may pose health risks, particularly for weakened kidneys. True/False ?
It is true that excessive consumption of protein-rich foods does not provide any benefit and may pose health risks, especially kidneys are compromised.
What diseases are caused by proteins?Protein misfolding is believed to be a major cause of Alzheimer's, Parkinson's, Huntington's, Creutzfeldt-Jakob, cystic fibrosis, Gaucher's and many other degenerative and neurodegenerative diseases.
What happens to excess protein in the body?it is converted into fat. Excess dietary protein is not stored as protein and is not converted into muscle. When the body converts protein from its carbon skeleton (carbon, hydrogen and oxygen) into fat, the body must secrete nitrogen because it is toxic. High protein intake raises blood cholesterol levels.
What can happen if you overemphasize high protein foods?The strategy of combining two vegetable protein sources allows the amino acids of one food to supplement the deficiencies of the other. Over-emphasis on high-protein foods can lead to: Low intake of folic acid.
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Which parenting style has been associated with children’s social behavioral competence and confidence
Answer: authoritative parenting style
Explanation:
What outcome is possible when people display learned helplessness when confronted with stressful situations?.
They works by entering a cell of the body, known as the host cell, and producing more. It kill the host cell and spread throughout the body. Antibiotics do not work against.
Bacteria
Viruses
Hypertension
Answer:
The answer is viruses.
Explanation:
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Which of the following psychological disorders is common in people who have been infected with toxoplasmosis and streptococcal Infection?
a. PTSD
b. obsessive compulsive disorder
c. attentjon deficit hyperactivity disorder
d. factitious disorder
The people who have been infected with toxoplasmosis and streptococcal Infection is b. obsessive compulsive disorder
What is Obsessive compulsive disorder?OCD is characterised by a pattern of unpleasant thoughts and anxieties (obsessions) that cause you to engage in repetitive actions (compulsions). These compulsive thoughts and behaviours disrupt daily life and cause severe distress.Obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD) is a mental and behavioural condition in which a person experiences intrusive thoughts and/or a strong urge to repeat particular behaviours until it causes distress or affects daily functioning. Obsessions and compulsions are the main signs of OCD, as the disorder's name suggests.A person with obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD) experiences uncontrollable, recurrent thoughts. OCD is a common, chronic, and long-lasting condition ("obsessions ")To learn more about Obsessive compulsive disorder refer to:
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the psychological response to aging is negatively influenced by all of the folling
Answer:
Several factors influence our biological age, including genetics, diet, exercise, biomarkers, and sleep
The decline in memory in late middle age has been attributable to information ____ that builds up as we go through the adult years.
The accumulation of information over the course of our adult lives has been linked to memory loss in late middle age.
What modifications take place in middle and late adulthood?The era of development that takes place between the ages of 46 and 65 is known as middle adulthood. Physical changes that indicate the body is aging start to happen at this stage. These include the beginning of elasticity loss in the skin and the occurrence of gray hair due to pigment loss.The conflict between the senses of generativity and stagnation begins to emerge in middle age. At this point, the person is expected to act as a productive, contributing member of society.Late-adults continue to produce in a variety of ways. Work, education, volunteer work, family life, and close connections are a few of these. Also experiencing generativity are older individuals (recall Erikson's earlier stage of generativity vs.To learn more about middle and late adulthood refer to:
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which of the following is a dieting myth? group of answer choices eat 3 meals and snack as needed. A) use non-fat or low-fat milk. B) natural or herbal weight-loss products are safe and effective. C) weigh yourself frequently.
Organisms obtain nutrition and use food for survival through the biochemical and physiological process known as nutrition.
What does dieting mean?natural or herbal weight-loss products are safe and effective.Dieting is the process of controlling one's food intake with the goal of enhancing one's physical appearance, particularly with the goal of lowering obesity or what is perceived to be excess body fat.A balanced diet is necessary for both good nutrition and health. You are shielded from a variety of degenerative noncommunicable diseases, including cancer, diabetes, and heart disease. A balanced diet that limits salt, sugar, saturated fats, and trans fats from industrial production is crucial for good health.The term is actually derived from the Greek word "diaita," which means "style of life," but for many, it refers to adhering to a certain diet in order to lose weight. Many people resume their former eating patterns after losing weight.To learn more about nutrition refer to:
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Thinking that your colleague is lazy or irresponsible because he/she/they are working flex hours is an unconscious bias, True or false?
False, giving preference to the candidate because you have a lot of commonalities is unconscious bias. More specifically, this is the case of affinity bias.
What is an unconscious bias?When compared to other things, people, or groups, prejudice or unwarranted judgments are frequently used to describe unconscious bias (also known as implicit bias). Affinity bias is an unconscious bias that causes people to favor those who resemble them (including those with similar interests, backgrounds, and appearances).Affinity bias is the term used to describe the phenomenon of liking or feeling a connection with people who appear to have your hobbies, viewpoints, or background. Most commonly, it happens unintentionally. Affinity prejudice is one of the most prevalent types of unconscious bias.Dispositional attribution is the tendency of misunderstanding of a certain cause to be the result of one's traits or internal characteristics. This is also called internal attributions. In such attribution, we oversee the possibilities of any outer force.In the given question, Jade is having assumption of dis-positional attribution because he is thinking that Chris is late because of his internal attribution, i.e., laziness and irresponsibility and overlooked any possibility of outer force(traffic).To learn more about unconscious bias refer to:
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What are some possible causes of Lindsey’s discomfort?
Answer:
Infants can start weaning off supplement foods at 4 to 6 months.1.Food allergies can occur when we introduce food to our child other than breastmilk....
Exiting the litter box, lack of grooming, or aggressiveness when certain parts of their body are touched. Veterinarians can identify joint pain through a patient's medical history, physical exam results, and even x-rays. A questionnaire on Painfreecats.org might assist owners in determining whether their cat may be in pain.
What possible causes of Lindsey’s discomfort?An owner may notice specific indicators of joint discomfort in their cat, such as trouble getting up and down, issues jumping, difficulty going up or down stairs, stiff walking, difficulty entering.
Although joint pain cannot be cured, there are a number of things we can do to manage it. In order to relieve the pain brought on by joint discomfort, veterinarians may suggest supplements, dietary changes, prescription drugs, acupuncture, laser therapy, and massage.
Therefore, raised the food and water bowls for my own elderly cats, made sure they have plenty of soft, comfortable beds, purchased a litter box that is low on one side. And purchased a step stool for climbing into and off of higher surfaces like window ledges and beds, to name a few things.
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A type of ensure that is owned by its policy owners is called?
Mutual insurer is a kind of ensure which is owned by its policy owner.
What is mutual insurer?A mutual insurance company is one that is owned by its policyholders. A mutual insurance company provides insurance coverage at or near cost to its members and policyholders. Profits from premiums and investments are distributed to members in the form of dividends or premium reductions.The policyholders own a mutual insurer. A life insurance company has outsourced some of its risk to a different insurer. The insurer who assumes the risk is known as the reinsurer.Mutuality is the underlying principle of private, commercial insurance; individuals join a pool to share losses and pay based on their best estimate of the risk they bring with them.Policyholders in a mutual insurance company may be able to vote on management personnel and policy decisions.To learn more about mutual insurer refer to :
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What is the correct dose and route of epinephrine for an adult patient presenting with anaphylaxis?
Answer:WOW
Explanation:WOW
In the case of a bleeding eye injury, it is appropriate to apply direct pressure over the eye socket in order to stop or slow the bleeding.
A. True
B. False
It is recommended that you apply direct pressure over eye socket in the event of a bleeding eye injury in order to prevent or slow the bleeding. This claim is false.
What is the name of bleeding?Bleeding, also referred to as hemorrhage, is the action of losing blood. This can refer to bleeding which happens either internally (internal bleeding) or externally (external bleeding).
Why does bleeding occur?Bleeding could happen: when blood escapes from veins and arteries or organs inside the body. Blood can also leave the body when it passes through a skin break or a natural orifice (such the ear, nose, mouth, vagina, or rectum).
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breast cancer is the fifth most common cause of cancer death. for women aged 60 to 69, breast cancer screening significantly reduces breast cancer mortality. doctors should encourage women aged 60 to 69 to be screened for breast cancer. the government should force doctors to encourage women aged 60 to 69 to be screened for breast cancer.
Breast cancer is the fifth most common cause of cancer death. positive
For women aged 60 to 69, breast cancer screening significantly reduces breast cancer mortality. positive
Doctors should encourage women aged 60 to 69 to be screened for breast cancer. normative
The government should force doctors to encourage women aged 60 to 69 to be screened for breast cancer. normative
A condition known as cancer occurs when some body cells grow out of control and spread to other body regions. Since the human body contains billions of cells, cancer can develop practically everywhere. Human cells typically proliferate and divide (via a process called cell division) to create new cells as the body requires them. Cells die when they are old or injured, and new cells replace them. When this routine process fails, aberrant or damaged cells begin to proliferate and develop when they shouldn't. Tumors—tissue growths—can develop from these cells. Tumors can either be cancerous or not.
The following table contains statements that provide some analysis of policies that address breast cancer.
Breast cancer is the fifth most common cause of cancer death.
For women aged 60 to 69, breast cancer screening significantly reduces breast cancer mortality.
Doctors should encourage women aged 60 to 69 to be screened for breast cancer.
The government should force doctors to encourage women aged 60 to 69 to be screened for breast cancer.
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An emergency medical technician is examining a trauma victim by shining a pen light into her patient's eye. She records the reactivity of the patient's pupils as they constrict when stimulated by the light. This test supports which of the following?
The patient has function of the oculomotor nerve (III).
An emergency medical technician is examining a trauma victim by shining a pen light into her patient's eye. She records the reactivity of the patient's pupils as they constrict when stimulated by the light. This test supports the patient has function of the oculomotor nerve (III).
What is oculomotor nerve?The third cranial nerve, sometimes referred to as the oculomotor nerve, cranial nerve III, or simply CN III, is a cranial nerve that travels from the brain to the orbit through the superior orbital fissure and innervates the extraocular muscles that move the eyelid and allow for most eye movements. Additionally, the nerve has fibers that innervate the intrinsic eye muscles that control pupillary accommodation and constriction (ability to focus on near objects as in reading). The embryonic midbrain's basal plate is the source of the oculomotor nerve. The control of eye movement is likewise mediated by cranial nerves IV and VI.
Thus from above conclusion we can say that an emergency medical technician is examining a trauma victim by shining a pen light into her patient's eye. She records the reactivity of the patient's pupils as they constrict when stimulated by the light. This test supports the patient has function of the oculomotor nerve (III).
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Dr. Frobish possesses a ________ behavior pattern because she is an intensively driven workaholic, preoccupied with deadlines, and always seems to be in a rush.
Choose matching definition
a. Health
b. Eustress
c. Type A
d. Autoimmune
Due to her intense workaholism, obsession with deadlines, and constant sense of urgency, Dr. Frobish exhibits a Type A behaviour type.
A Type A personality is known for being goal-oriented, competitive, fast-paced, and impatient.The majority of individuals are now aware that Type A personality traits can raise the risk of health issues and have something to do with being competitive and work-obsessed. However, it's not always clear what characteristics make up Type A behaviour or how these characteristics affect health and happiness. It might be transforming to realise what a Type A personality is really like. You can better control your stress and learn to identify and deal with Type A personalities.Competitiveness, urgency, and a propensity for workaholism are examples of Type A personality qualities that can be perceived as advantageous for job success (especially by Type A persons).
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