An abnormal coronary heart sound (coronary heart murmur) heard via a stethoscope is the sign/symptom might the nurse count on whilst assessing a purchaser recognized with aortic valve stenosis.
Aortic valve stenosis — or aortic stenosis — is a kind of coronary heart valve disease (valvular coronary heart disease). The valve among the decrease left coronary heart chamber and the body's predominant artery (aorta) is narrowed and does not open fully. This reduces or blocks blood waft from the coronary heart to the aorta and to the relaxation of the body.
Treatment of aortic stenosis relies upon at the severity of the condition. You can also additionally want surgical procedure to restore or update the valve. Without treatment, extreme aortic valve stenosis can result in death. Aortic valve stenosis degrees from moderate to extreme. Symptoms commonly arise whilst narrowing of the valve is extreme. Some humans with aortic valve stenosis might not have signs and symptoms for plenty years.
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a 13-year-old junior high school student is brought into your office by her mother for evaluation of unequal shoulder height. her mother first noticed this 2 weeks ago. there is no history of birth trauma or recent injury. on physical examination, there is a lateral curvature of the spine. the curvature is more pronounced with forward flexion. based on this information, what is your most likely diagnosis?
Based on this information scoliosis should be a diagnosis.
The manner of figuring out a disorder, situation, or harm from its symptoms and signs and symptoms. A health history, bodily examination, and exams, together with blood tests, imaging checks, and biopsies, may be used to assist make a analysis.
A diagnosis made on the idea of clinical signs and said signs and symptoms, in preference to diagnostic checks. A analysis primarily based drastically on laboratory reports or check results, rather than the physical exam of the affected person.
Your diagnosis is the basis for any remedy you may obtain, from drugs to surgical operation. An correct diagnosis is important to save you losing valuable time on the incorrect course of remedy.
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a client is an overweight 32-year-old who regularly binges on large amounts of food. after the client binges, the client feels guilty and ashamed about eating the food. despite the bad feelings, the client binges almost daily. which would the nurse most likely suspect?
A client is an overweight 32-year-old who regularly binges on large amounts of food. after the client binges, the client feels guilty and ashamed about eating the food.
Despite the bad feelings, the client binges almost daily. The nurse will suspect binge eating disorder.
A significant eating condition called binge-eating disorder causes you to repeatedly eat unusually big amounts of food and feels you can't stop.
Everybody occasionally overeats, whether it's having seconds or thirds of a festive feast. However, for some individuals, excessive overeating that spirals out of control and starts to happen frequently crosses the threshold into binge-eating disorder.
If you have a binge-eating disorder, you could feel ashamed of your overeating and make a commitment to stop. But you feel such a strong compulsion that you are powerless to control your urges and keep eating in excess. Treatment can be beneficial if you have a binge eating issue.
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which of the following medical costs would be deductible as qualified medical expenses? (check all that apply.) multiple select question. tummy tuck over-the-counter medications
The question above isn't complete, as there are no options we can choose from. That being said, the medical costs that would be deductible as qualified medical expenses in tax are things like plastic surgery after an accident and prescription medications.
Qualified medical expenses are things (services and products) that could be deducted as medical expenses on the income tax return. The IRS allows people to deduct unreimbursed expenses for several things, such as:
Preventative care, surgeries, and treatmentVisits to psychiatrists and psychologists.Prescription medications and appliances.The deduction value is varied based on income. In 2022, the IRS allows taxpayers to deduct qualified unreimbursed medical care expenses that exceed 7.5% of their gross income.
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in order to be happy, kuhn suggested that people with alzheimer's disease have three central needs that go beyond physical requirements. those three needs are:
Security, hydration, and wellness make up these three criteria.
What are food health and safety?The Nutrition and Food Safety (NFS) Department strives to lessen the burden of disease brought on by poor diets, malnutrition in children and pregnant women, as well as overweight and obesity. These diseases are also brought on by microbiological, chemical, and physical dangers in food.
What significance do food safety and nutrition have?To support life and advance good health, access to enough safe and sufficient food is essential. More than 200 different diseases, from diarrhoea to cancer, can be brought on by food that has been contaminated with hazardous bacteria, viruses, parasites, or chemicals.
How may a diet affect safety?There are physiological links between diet and foodborne sickness as well.
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a nurse has performed an assessment of a patient and subsequently administered the patient's scheduled dose of ramipril, an angiotensin-converting enzyme (ace) inhibitor prescribed for the treatment of the patient's longstanding heart failure (hf). the nurse understands that this drug will aid in the treatment of the patient's disease by:
The treatment of the deases by heart failure.
What is deases?
A deases is a particularly abnormal condition the negatively affects their structure or function of all or any part of an organism, and the is not immediately due to the any external injury.
Sol-Heart failure (HF) affects more than 6.5 million people in the United States and has a 50% mortality rate of within five years of the diagnosis.1 The lifetime risk of that of HF at 45 years of age is 30% for white men and 32% of the for white women.2 HF is a progressive disease that is the can result in the from any structural or the functional changes of the heart, leading to the relative impairment of the ventricular filling or ejection of blood.
Imaging playing an important role in the potential diagnosis of HF, with echocardiogram hy being the gold standard. Transthoracic echocardiography is there method of choice for the assessment of myocardial of systolic and diastolic function of both the left and right ventricles.4 Once the diagnosis is confirmed, the goals of treatment are to improve clinical status, functional capacity, and quality of life; to prevent to the hospital admission; and to reduce morality.
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a patient comes in with trigeminal neuralgia. surgeon performs a microvascular decompression that reduces the hyperactivity of the nerve. what could be a possible post-surgery complication that a patient may experience?
A patient comes in with trigeminal neuralgia and surgeon performs a microvascular decompression that reduces the hyperactivity of the nerve and a possible post-surgery complication is spinal fluid leakage.
Trigeminal neuralgia is a condition that causes painful sensations the same as an electrical shock on one facet of the face. This chronic pain condition affects the trigeminal, that carries sensation from your face to your brain. neuralgy typically happens impromptu, however is usually related to facial trauma or dental procedures.
Spinal fluid leakage is one of the most common complications after microvascular decompression. Once the pressure of this fluid is simply too low generally once there's alittle leak somewhere within the membrane.
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a client has been prescribed betaxolol eye drops for the treatment of glaucoma. the ambulatory care nurse determines that the client understands proper medication use if the client states the need to return to the office for monitoring of what item(s)?
the client understands proper medication use if the client states the need to return to the office for monitoring of D. Blood Pressure.
Betaxolol is an antiglaucoma medication and a beta-adrenergic blocker. Systemic effects of this medication are hypotension, dizziness, nausea, diaphoresis, headache, fatigue, constipation, and diarrhea. The client should have the blood pressure monitored for hypotension and the pulse assessed for strength, weakness, irregular rate, and bradycardia. it can be given in the form of eye drops for the treatment of glaucoma. Bowel activity and evidence of heart failure also should be assessed. The other options are incorrect and not associated with this medication
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(Complete question)
A client has been prescribed betaxolol eye drops for the treatment of glaucoma. The ambulatory care nurse determines that the client understands proper medication use if the client states the need to return to the office for monitoring of what item(s)?
A. Hearing acuity
B. Blood glucose level
C. Presence of calf pain
D. Blood pressure
the occupational health nurse is called to care for an employee who experienced a traumatic amputation of a finger. which actions should the nurse take to provide emergency care and prepare the client for transport to the hospital? select all that apply.
The actions that the nurse should take to provide emergency care and prepare for transport to the hospital for the patient who experienced a traumatic amputation of a finger are as follows:
"Elevate the extremity above heart level". (1)"Assess the employee for airway or breathing problems". (2)"Examine the amputation site and apply direct pressure to the site using layers of gauze". (5)Do not choose these options since they are incorrect:
"Remove the layered gauze every 10 minutes to check the bleeding". (3)"Wrap the severed finger in moistened gauze and place it in a bag of ice water". (4)Fingertip AmputationAmputation of the fingertip is a frequent injury. Treatment for this condition is determined by how much epidermis, tissue, bone, and nail were injured, as well as how much of the patient's thumb or fingers was cut off. The patient's finger may have been stitched by the doctor. They may require further treatment from a hand surgeon.
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signaling molecule a cannot enter the cell because this signaling molecule is polar molecule, please tell me how cell can respond to this signal
Regardless of the nature of the signal, the target cell responds by means of a specific protein called a receptor, which specifically binds the signal molecule and then initiates a response in the target cell.
How do cells respond to signal molecules?Typically, different signaling molecules deliver chemical signals to cells.A chain of events is started when a signaling molecule binds to the right receptor on a cell surface, which not only sends the signal inside the cell but also amplifies it. No of the signal's origin, the target cell replies using a specialized protein called a receptor that specifically binds the signal molecule and then triggers a reaction in the target cell. Polar molecules are crucial in setting up the three-dimensional structure or orientation of other bigger molecules as a result.For instance, the molecules of fatty acids (Chapter 8), which are present in all living things, are made up of a nonpolar carbon chain that is terminated by a polar carbon-oxygen group (COOH).
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what is the first sensation lost in cerebral lession?
Sense of touch is the first sensation lost in a cerebral lesion.
Any harm or abnormal change in an organism's tissue known as a lesion is typically brought on by disease or trauma. Lesions can typically be divided into groups based on their patterns, sizes, locations, or causes. They could also be given names based on the finder.
After a biopsy is analyzed, a lesion that is caused by a tumor might be labeled as benign or malignant. Premalignant refers to a benign lesion that is developing into a malignant lesion. The growth dynamics of cancerous lesions can sometimes be categorized, as is the case with the Lodwick classification for different types of bone lesions.
Another kind is an excitotoxic lesion, which is brought on by excitatory amino acids like kainic acid and results in the overstimulation-induced death of neurons.
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which patient factors controlling hydrostatic pressure would a nurse consider when caring for a patient with heart disease?
The patient factors controlling hydrostatic pressure that the nurse would consider when caring for a patient with heart disease is patient's rate of contraction (heart rate).
What is heart rate?Heart rate is defined as the number of times at which the heart contract and relaxes per unit time.
Heart diseases are those diseases that affects the cardiac muscles, the cardiac blood vessels and the cardiac valves.
Examples of heart diseases include the following:
High blood pressure,
coronary artery disease,
Peripheral arterial disease, and
Aortic disease.
Common signs and symptoms of heart disease in patients include the following:
Chest Pain. Shortness of Breath. Coughing or Wheezing. Swelling in the Legs, Ankles, or Feet. Narrowed Blood Vessels. Fatigue.The hydrostatic pressure between the tissue cells are being maintained by the normal heart rate which is being distorted by the heart disease leading to Swelling in the Legs, Ankles, or Feet.
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what is the purpose of a tracheostomy in an ill patient? group of answer choices to assist the patient with sleeping to assist the patient with waste removal to assist the patient with breathing to assist the patient with feedings
The purpose of a tracheostomy in an ill patient is ''To assist the patient with breathing''.
How do you explain tracheostomy ?A tracheostomy is a hole made at the front of the neck that allows a breathing tube to be placed into the trachea.The tube can, if required, be attached to an oxygen source and a ventilator, a mechanical breathing apparatus.The tube can also be used to drain any fluid that has accumulated in the windpipe and throat.It is possible to perform a tracheostomy to:If you are unable to breathe regularly due to an injury, an accident, or because your muscles are very weak, provide oxygen to the lungs.If your throat is obstructed, such as by a swelling, tumor, or something caught in the throat, it will allow you to breathe.If coughing is difficult for you, decrease the possibility of food or liquid aspiration.Learn more about tracheostomy refer :
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Answer: The purpose of a tracheostomy in an ill patient is ''To assist the patient with breathing''.
Explanation: A tracheostomy is a hole made at the front of the neck that allows a breathing tube to be placed into the trachea.
The tube can, if required, be attached to an oxygen source and a ventilator, a mechanical breathing apparatus.
The tube can also be used to drain any fluid that has accumulated in the windpipe and throat.
It is possible to perform a tracheostomy to:
If you are unable to breathe regularly due to an injury, an accident, or because your muscles are very weak, provide oxygen to the lungs.
If your throat is obstructed, such as by a swelling, tumor, or something caught in the throat, it will allow you to breathe.
If coughing is difficult for you, decrease the possibility of food or liquid aspiration.
a client a client with parkinson's takes an anticholinergic medication for morning stiffness and tremors in the right arm. during a visit to the clinic, the client complains of some numbness in the left hand. which intervention would the nurse implement for this client?
The intervention that the nurse can implement for this client is to make arrangements immediately for further medical evaluation by the client's primary healthcare provider.
What is the case about?Parkinson's illness commonly manifests as cogwheel and lead-pipe rigidity. When moving a bodily part, lead-pipe rigidity refers to a consistent, unchanging stiffness. Tremor and lead-pipe rigidity together result in cogwheel stiffness.
Therefore, Further medical testing is required since parkinsonism cannot explain numbness, a sensory deficiency. Even in the absence of other issues, numbness may be a sign of an imminent brain attack (cerebrovascular accident, CVA).
Since parkinsonism is not the cause of this condition, taking more anticholinergic medicine won't be of any use. Stressing the need for the patient to call their primary healthcare practitioner right away may prevent them from seeking emergency medical care.
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Which of the following statements is true about sexual dysfunction?
a. Sexual dysfunctions are extremely rare.
b. Sexual dysfunctions are not as common as other conditions such as depression or schizophrenia.
c. Sexual dysfunctions are among the most prevalent of all disorders.
d. Sexual dysfunctions are equally common to other conditions such as depression.
The statements which is true about se-x.ual dysfunction is d. Se-x.ual dysfunctions are equally common to other conditions such as depression.
Among alternative issues, se-x.ual dysfunction will scale back your want for s-e-x, or your ability to become se-xually aro-used. It's going to forestall you from achieving a se-x.ual climax, cause eja-cul.ation, or it's going to cause pain throughout inter-co.ur.se . Se-x.ual dysfunction will have causes that are not due to underlying sickness. Examples embody stress, drug use, alcohol consumption, tobacco use, sport or relationship factors.
Depression is a mood disorder that causes a persistent feeling of disappointment and loss of interest. additionally referred to as major clinical depression or depressive disorder, it affects however you are feeling, suppose and behave and might cause a range of emotional and physical issues.
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which of the following impairments is likely to cause your client to shift his trunk excessively forward during the lowering phase of a squat? 1. poor mobility of the hamstrings 2. excessive lumbar lordosis 3. poor mobility of quadriceps
Excessive lumbar lordosis is likely to cause your client to shift his trunk excessively forward during the lowering phase of a squat.
What causes the lumbar lordosis?One of the most prevalent spinal diseases, lumbar lordosis affects people of all ages and socioeconomic backgrounds. People with lordosis have an inward curve in either the lower back or the upper back, despite the fact that everyone's spine normally curves at the neck, upper back, and lower back. You might have lumbar lordosis if the lower back of your spine curves forward; on the other hand, people with similar curve in the upper back have cervical lordosis.Typically, muscle issues or anatomical abnormalities that impact the discs and bones throughout the spine are what lead to both lumbar lordosis and cervical lordosis. The following are a few of the most typical conditions that can cause lordosis:Poor postureObesityOsteoporosis (a bone disease common among older adults)Osteosarcoma (bone cancer that develops near the knee or in the upper arm)Spondylolisthesis (a spinal condition where the vertebrae in the lower back slip forward)Achondroplasia (a common type of dwarfism)Discitis (inflammation of the discs in the spine)Kyphosis (excessive outward curvature of the thoracic spine)To learn more about lumbar lordosis, refer to
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a patient has returned to the nursing unit after having a percutaneous coronary intervention (pci) in the hospital's cardiac catheterization laboratory. the nurse who is providing care for this patient should prioritize what assessment?
The nurse who is providing care for this patient should prioritize Assessing the patient for signs and symptoms of hemorrhage
What is percutaneous coronary intervention (PCI)?A set of minimally invasive techniques called percutaneous coronary intervention (PCI) are used to clear blocked coronary arteries (those that deliver blood to the heart). The procedure helps lessen artery blockage symptoms like chest pain and shortness of breath by restoring blood flow.Primary PCI must be performed within 12 hours of the start of symptoms, however it can wait up to 24 hours if symptoms and ST-segment elevation are persistent or have been stuttering.A non-surgical treatment called percutaneous coronary intervention (PCI) is used to treat blockages in a coronary artery; it widens or clears blocked or restricted parts of the artery, reviving blood flow to the heart.To learn more about percutaneous coronary intervention refer to:
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three peak parameters that you can measure for vitamin c in any chromatogram are retention time, peak area, and peak height. which of the 3 parameters indicates the maximum concentration of vitamin c as the peak passes through the detector?
The maximum concentration of vitamin C as the peak passes through the detector peak area signifies high concentration of vitamin C in the sample
What is peak area?Each component has a unique value that describes how long it takes for the injected sample to reach the detector (retention time).It is feasible to identify a component by investigating the retention duration under certain analysis settings (qualitative analysis).Additionally, it is feasible to tell how much of the component there is by looking at the component peak's size, or its area and height (quantitative analysis).Each component exhibits specific properties depending on the conditions of analysis, such as the elution time. In other words, a peak is confirmed simultaneously when the same component is evaluated under the same circumstances.Out of the three given parameters,
Peak Area signifies high concentration of vitamin C in the sample. Area under the peak gives the concentration of that component in the sample. Peak height is also another plausible explanation for high concentration but due to broadening of peaks, shoulder bands and overlapping of peaks, it becomes rather tough to quantify the peak height in proportion with concentration.Therefore, area under the curve with respect to baseline is more convenient and accurate. Larger area of the peaks represent that more number of molecules are eluted at the as a same time as all of them have more or less same interaction due to same structure.To learn more about peak area, refer to
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As the clinical assistant in the office, what could be your role for
seeing this patient today? Dental Prophylaxis
Answer:
Reviewing the patient schedule for the day and getting patient medical records ready.
Ensuring all dental instruments are sterilized.
Setting up procedure rooms with necessary dental instruments.
Making sure procedure rooms are clean.
Explanation:
you are in a shopping mall and a person has a seizure. the seizure only lasts a few minutes, after which the person is awake but disoriented. what care should you give to this person now that the seizure is over?
If required, contact 9-1-1 or the authorized emergency number, reassure the individual, remove and shield the person from any onlookers, inquire as to whether there are any other injuries, and so forth.
The postictal phase, or time of recovery following the seizure, starts when the episode comes to a close. While some people bounce back right away, it could take others minutes or even hours to feel like themselves again.
Each person's recovery from a tonic-clonic seizure takes a varied amount of time. Some people feel well within an hour or two, while others may not feel normal for several days.
As soon as the seizure stops and the victim regains consciousness, stay by their side. When it's over, assist the person in finding a secure seat. Tell them what occurred in simple words once they are awake and able to speak. Soothe the individual and maintain composure.
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Medications are used as replacements for naturally occurring substances in the body
The statement " medications are used as replacements for some missing naturally occurring or even low substances in the body " is true.
Why medications are used to replace low level substances in the bodyMedications are those drugs, medicines or injections which are given to improve, manage or cure certain health conditions. They are also used to maintain our wellbeing.
That being said, when the natural substances which are supposed to be present in adequate amounts are present in low quantities, it affects our wellness too as medications are given to balance this.
In conclusion, it can be deduced that medications are very good to our body system to enhance more healthy living.
Complete question:
Medications are used as replacements for some missing naturally occurring or even low substances in the body.
a. True
b. False
c. None of the above.
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your parents tell you that on your 22nd birthday, they would like for you to get your own health insurance. you are very healthy, are not taking any prescription medicines, and generally only see your doctor for your annual physical. what type of health insurance is likely to be best for you?
If you are very healthy, are not taking any prescription medicines, and generally only see your doctor for your annual physical. what type of health insurance is likely to be best for you: A high deductible plan with a low monthly premium.
What is health insurance?Health insurance can he defined as a form of insurance coverage that help to cover medical expenses of those under the policy thereby saving medical cost or expenses.
On the other hand High Deductible Health Plan is a health insurance plan that tend to offer a low monthly premium which implies that those that enroll for this plan will pay lesser amount for medical coverage every month. This plan is better that traditional plan due to the lower premium that the high deductible plan offers.
Therefore going for high deductible plan is the best choice.
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which type of healing occurs when granulation tissue is not visible and scar formation is minimal?
Fetal wound healing is the type of healing which occurs when granulation tissue is not visible and scar formation is minimal.
Fetal wound healing is the ability of craniate tissue to heal while not scarring is currently well documented, however the doubtless comprehensive implications of this method for the apply of surgery and also the management of healing area unit simply getting down to be understood.
Granulation tissue is a style of new connective tissue, and microscopic blood vessels have 3 main functions. Immune: Protects the wound surface from microbic invasion and more injury. Proliferative: Fills the wound from its base with new tissue and vasculature. granulation formation is a component of a traditional healing method.
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Harley has been diagnosed with borderline personality disorder and is seeing a therapist who is focused on reducing her radical behaviors, discussing her past traumatic experiences, and helping her to develop a sense of independence and self-respect. Harley’s therapist is most likely using.
Dialectical behaviour therapy heavily emphasises the idea of mindfulness, or paying attention to how you are feeling right now (DBT). It's important to foster a sense of independence and self-respect.
What drug is used most frequently to treat BPD?Anticonvulsants, antidepressants, and antipsychotics are widely used to treat and manage the symptoms of borderline personality disorder.
Why is treating BPD difficult for therapists?The APA further said that although BPD patients routinely seek treatment, they frequently stop their treatments. Some views contend that patients with BPD may be easily triggered in therapy, making it difficult for them to maintain emotional control and cooperate with their therapist.
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a young man is rushed to the emergency room after fainting. his blood pressure is alarmingly low, and his companion reports the man collapsed shortly after being stung by a wasp. what has caused his hypotension? what treatment will be given immediately?
The patient had an allergic reaction to the wasp sting and needed epinephrine right away.
What is epinephrine?Epinephrine injection is used to treat severe allergic reactions (including anaphylaxis) to insect bites or stings, medicines, foods, or other substances in an emergency.
It is also used to treat anaphylaxis caused by unknown substances or exercise-induced anaphylaxis.
Adrenaline is another name for epinephrine, which is derived from the name of its gland. As a result, receptors for both epinephrine and norepinephrine are referred to as adrenergic receptors.
After fainting, a young man is rushed to the emergency room. His blood pressure is dangerously low, and according to his companion, the man collapsed shortly after being stung by a wasp.
Anaphylactic shock has occurred, and epinephrine injections should be administered immediately.
Thus, this can be the treatment that will be given immediately.
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the concept that broad changes in dietary patterns are preferable to adding or replacing specific foods is known as the
The concept that broad changes in dietary patterns are preferable to adding or replacing specific foods is known as Total Diet Approach .
This is referred to as the total diet approach to healthy eating by the Academy of Nutrition and Dietetics. According to DGA, a person's "total diet approach" is their average daily intake of all the meals and beverages that provide them with energy and nutrients.
The quantity, proportions, variety, or mix of various foods, beverages, and nutrients in diets, as well as the regularity with which they are consumed, are referred to as dietary patterns.
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you are conducting a clinical breast examination for your 30-year-old patient. her breasts are symmetrical with bilateral, multiple tender masses that are freely moveable with well-defined borders. you recognize that these symptoms and assessment findings are consistent with:
These symptoms and assessment findings are consistent with Fibrocystic changes.
what is fibrocystic changes ?
Breasts affected by fibrocystic alterations produce fluid-filled round or oval sacs called cysts and more noticeable scar-like (fibrous) tissue, which can make them feel sensitive, lumpy, or ropy.
Is fibrocystic a cancer ?
Fibrocystic breast changes are not cancer.Many breast lumps are due to fibrocystic changes. The lumps can be caused by a collection of fibrous tissue in an area of the breast.
Tender masses with spherical, movable, well defined borders, typically bilateral, are characterized as fibrocystic alterations. Typically, a fibroadenoma is nontender. Nipple eczema-like condition called Paget disease is an indication of an underlying malignancy. Cancer rarely causes pain.
so, the assessment findings are related to fibrocystic changes
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pain that persists longer than six months and increases in severity due to an advancing disease process is considered to be:
Pain that persists longer than six months and increases in severity due to an advancing disease process is considered to be chronic pain.
This type of pain may persist even after the illness or injury that caused it has recovered or vanished. The neurological system continues to receive pain impulses for numerous weeks, months, or even years.
What are neurological system?
The control center of your body is your neurological system. Your behaviors, ideas, and automatic responses to your surroundings are governed by it, which is under the control of your brain. It also controls several biological processes and systems, such as digestion, respiration, and sexual development (puberty).
Signals are sent from the brain to the remainder of the body, including the internal organs, via the nervous system. Thus, the neural system's activity regulates a variety of functions, including the capacity to move, breathe, see, and think.
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What drug is most commonly used to incapacitate people into having non-consensual activity?.
the mother with human immunodeficiency virus (hiv) infection brings her 10-month-old infant to the clinic for a routine checkup. the primary health care provider has documented that the infant is asymptomatic for hiv infection. after the checkup, the mother tells the nurse that she is so pleased that the infant will not get hiv infection. the nurse should make which most appropriate response to the mother?
The nurse should make which most appropriate response to the mother is Cough .
What is human immunodeficiency virus?
The human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) preys on the immune system, weakening people's resistance to a variety of infections and some cancer types that healthy immune systems are better able to combat
Depending on the individual, acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS), the most advanced stage of HIV infection, might take many years to manifest. The emergence of certain tumours, infections, or other serious long-term clinical symptoms is what defines AIDS.
There are many bodily fluids from HIV-infected people that might transfer the disease, including blood, breast milk, semen, and vaginal secretions. HIV infection in the mother may be transmitted to her unborn child during pregnancy and birth. Sharing personal things, food, or water or engaging in routine daily activities like kissing, hugging, shaking hands, or shaking hands do not infect a person.
It is important to keep in mind that HIV-positive people who are taking antiretroviral therapy (ART) and having their viral load reduced do not transmit the virus to their sexual partners. Therefore, encouraging patients to maintain their treatment and gaining early access to ART are crucial for both improving the health of those living with HIV and halting the transmission of the virus.
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jessica is a 28 yr old established patient that is seeing her gynecologist for her routine annual check up. jessica has no complaints or issues. her doctor performs a complete preventative medical check up. what e/m code do i use?
The age range for the 99385 e/m code is 18–39.
For a 28-year-old adult female, E/M preventive services might include a pelvic exam, which might involve getting a pap smear, a breast exam, and a blood pressure check.
What is e/m code?E&M codes, often known as E&M codes or E and M codes, are a classification scheme that uses CPT codes that fall between the ranges of 99202 and 99499 to reflect services rendered by a doctor or other competent healthcare practitioner.Counseling is offered with relation to eating habits, physical activity, drug usage, and sexual behavior.Because these services are seen as being a component of comprehensive preventive medicine E/M services, it would not be appropriate to independently report for a pelvic exam, which includes getting a pap smear, nor for a breast exam based on this information.A medical coding procedure used to support medical billing is called evaluation and management coding.To learn more about e/m code refer to:
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