Which process must be completed by the nurse before caring for clients with substance-abuse disorders?

Answers

Answer 1

Before caring for clients with substance-abuse disorders, the process that must be completed by the nurse is an initial assessment.

What is a substance abuse disorder?

Substance abuse disorder is a chronic and relapsing illness that arises from repeated consumption of drugs. Substance abuse disorders are characterized by compulsive drug seeking and using, as well as a preoccupation with drugs and alcohol. Additionally, individuals with substance use disorders may continue to use drugs even when it harms themselves or those around them.

How is the initial assessment carried out by a nurse?

Before providing treatment to a client with a substance abuse disorder, the nurse must complete an initial assessment of the client. The initial assessment includes the following:

Evaluation of the client's overall health status.

Evaluation of the client's psychological state. Collecting a thorough medical history from the client. Collecting data regarding the client's history of drug and alcohol use. How the client's family history of drug and alcohol use can affect their care. The initial assessment is a critical step in the treatment of individuals with substance abuse disorders. It assists the nurse in determining the best approach to provide the client with the appropriate treatment.

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Related Questions

Discuss the black woman as a negritude poem​

Answers

a typical poem of the negritude literary movement in that it celebrates the beauty of Africa.

What two components make up Body Mass Index(BMI)?

Answers

The two components that make up Body Mass Index (BMI) is weight and height.

A nurse is performing a neurologic assessment on a 1-day-old neonate in the nursery. which findings indicate possible asphyxia in utero?

Answers

A nurse is performing a neurologic assessment on a 1-day-old neonate in the nursery, the findings indicate possible asphyxia in utero is the neonate may have poor muscle tone or hypotonia and may appear to be floppy

They may have minimal movements and are lethargic. The neonate's respiratory rate and heart rate may be either lower or higher than normal, and it may fluctuate often.The neonate's skin may have a mottled appearance with a bluish tint, which is known as cyanosis. It may also be cool to the touch.The neonate may have a weak cry or may not cry at all.

They may also have a weak suck and, as a result, may not feed well. The neonate may also have a decreased level of consciousness. The neonate may also have an abnormal level of reflex activity, such as a weak Moro reflex or a weak grasp reflex. So therefore during a neurologic assessment of a neonate, there are several indications that may suggest asphyxia in utero, the neonate may have poor muscle tone or hypotonia and may appear to be floppy are the possible findings that indicate asphyxia in utero.

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Which of the following is true of major depressive episode?
a. It does not begin until adolescence.
b. It is equally common in men and women.
c. It occurs five times as often in elderly people as in middle-aged adults.
d. It is the most prevalent mood episode.

Answers

Major depressive episode is a mood disorder characterized by a period of at least two weeks during which there is either a depressed mood or a marked decrease in interest or pleasure in nearly all activities. This mood disorder can occur in people of any age, race, or ethnicity. According to the options provided, the statement that is true of major depressive episode is that it is the most prevalent mood episode so that correct answer is option (d).

Option (a) is false because major depressive episodes can occur in childhood or adolescence, although they are less common in these age groups than they are in adults.

Option (b) is false because major depressive episodes are more common in women than in men.

Option (c) is false because the incidence of major depressive episodes increases with age, with the highest rates reported in adults aged 18 to 29 years.

Therefore, the correct option is d. It is the most prevalent mood episode. Major depressive episodes are a common and debilitating mood disorder. They can be caused by a variety of factors, including genetics, environmental stressors, and biochemical imbalances in the brain.

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death of a loved one affects every family member in one aspect or another. which loss is one that most significantly threatens the health, well-being, and productivity of surviving loved ones?

Answers

The loss of a spouse or life partner is one that most significantly threatens the health, well-being, and productivity of surviving loved ones. When a spouse or life partner passes away, it can have profound emotional, psychological, and practical implications for the surviving family members.

Losing a spouse or life partner often means losing a primary source of emotional support, companionship, and shared responsibilities. The surviving partner may experience intense grief, loneliness, and a sense of profound loss, which can have detrimental effects on their mental health and overall well-being. The emotional impact can be long-lasting and may manifest in symptoms of depression, anxiety, and difficulty adjusting to life without their partner.

Furthermore, the loss of a spouse or life partner can have significant financial implications. The surviving partner may face challenges in managing household finances, making important decisions, and adjusting to a new financial reality. This can lead to increased stress, financial strain, and potentially impact their productivity and ability to maintain their usual level of functioning.

The loss of a spouse or life partner is a unique and profound type of loss that can disrupt every aspect of a person's life. It is important for surviving loved ones to seek support, whether through counseling, support groups, or other resources, to navigate the grief process and address the various challenges that arise.

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You are planning a meal that includes a hamburger on a bun, coleslaw, and French fries. To have a substantially more nutrient-dense meal, you should instead eat (pick the MOST nutrient-dense option!):
a. fried chicken, potato salad, biscuit, & canned peaches
b. pork tenderloin, green beans, brown rice, & fresh strawberries
c. BBQ spare ribs, scalloped potatoes, cornbread, & cake
d. fried catfish, beans, dinner roll w/butter, & ice cream

Answers

For a substantially more nutrient-dense meal than a hamburger on a bun, coleslaw, and French fries, you should instead eat pork tenderloin, green beans, brown rice, and fresh strawberries.What you eat makes a huge difference in your health, well-being, and energy levels so the correct answer is option (b).

Nutrient-dense foods are those that have a high nutritional value for the number of calories they provide. Nutrient-dense foods, unlike processed foods, provide a lot of nourishment in a small amount of food. Nutrient-dense meals include those that have a higher proportion of healthy nutrient-rich foods. They provide a good balance of healthy fats, proteins, and carbohydrates, as well as fiber, vitamins, and minerals.

A nutrient-dense meal will make you feel satisfied and energized for longer periods of time and will aid in weight loss and the maintenance of a healthy weight. So, in order to have a substantially more nutrient-dense meal, you should instead eat pork tenderloin, green beans, brown rice, and fresh strawberries.Pork tenderloin, a lean protein source, is rich in nutrients like iron, zinc, and vitamin B12. Green beans are a fiber-rich food that is also high in vitamins A and C. Brown rice, which is high in fiber and other minerals, is a complex carbohydrate. Fresh strawberries, a low-calorie food, are rich in vitamins C and K, and fiber.

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Select the characteristic in long sleepers (more than 9 hours) that is absent in short sleepers (less than 6 hours).
A.
Mildly depressed
B.
Ambitious
C.
Socially adept
D.
Efficient

Answers

The characteristic in long sleepers (more than 9 hours) that is absent in short sleepers (less than 6 hours) is being socially adept. Long sleepers do not exhibit this characteristic when compared to short sleepers. The other options, including being mildly depressed, ambitious, and efficient, are not exclusive to either long or short sleepers.

Among the given options, being socially adept is the characteristic that is absent in short sleepers. Short sleepers, who sleep less than 6 hours, may experience reduced social functioning and have difficulties in social interactions due to sleep deprivation. On the other hand, long sleepers, who sleep more than 9 hours, may not necessarily possess superior social skills solely based on their sleep duration. Social adeptness is influenced by various factors beyond sleep duration, such as personality traits, social experiences, and individual differences.

It is important to note that the other options, including being mildly depressed, ambitious, and efficient, are not exclusive to either long or short sleepers. Individuals with different sleep durations can exhibit these characteristics, and they are not solely determined by the amount of sleep one gets.

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Select the correct answer.
Effective communication involves:
A.
Being able to express what you mean.
B. Understanding what is being said to you.
C. Interpreting body language.
D.
All of the above

Answers

Answer:

the answer is D- all of the above

Why is it important for the nurse to understand the stages and characteristics of normal sleep? Select all that apply.
*The quality sleep will be manifested in various symptoms.
*The quality of sleep impacts client's wellness while awake.

Answers

It is important for the nurse to understand the stages and characteristics of normal sleep because the quality of sleep will be manifested in various symptoms and it impacts the client's wellness while awake. (Option a and d).

The correct answers are:

a. The quality of sleep will be manifested in various symptoms.

d. The quality of sleep impacts the client's wellness while awake.

a. The quality of sleep will be manifested in various symptoms: Understanding the stages and characteristics of normal sleep allows the nurse to recognize the signs and symptoms associated with different stages of sleep. This understanding can help the nurse identify abnormal sleep patterns or sleep disorders and provide appropriate interventions or referrals.

d. The quality of sleep impacts the client's wellness while awake: Sleep quality significantly affects a person's well-being during waking hours. By understanding normal sleep stages, the nurse can recognize the importance of good sleep quality for the client's overall health, including physical, mental, and emotional well-being.

The correct question is:

Why is it important for the nurse to understand the stages and characteristics of normal sleep? Select all that apply.

a. The quality sleep will be manifested in various symptoms.

b. The nurse will need to document the client's sleep cycles.

c. The client will require less sleep while hospitalized.

d. The quality of sleep impacts client's wellness while awake.

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how do you model a solar system

Answers

Answer:

you could use styrofoam for the planets and the sun and paint them, for rings around planets you could use pipe cleaners and use a styrofoam bottom and have sticks to secure the planets

Explanation:

Excess restorative material that extends beyond the cavity margin

Answers

Answer:

please give me brainlist and follow

Explanation:

Cards

Term AutoMatrix Definition Matrix system designed to establish a temporary interproximal call for the restoration of a tooth surface without the use of a retainer

Term Overhang Definition Excess restorative material that extends beyond the cavity margin

What is the area of the entire figure in square inches PLS HELP MEE IM NKT SMART!!!

Answers

You *are* smart, you’re just in the middle of learning something new. Draw an imaginary line to cut off the square at the top of the rectangle.

The area of that square is 6×6 = 36 square inches.

That leaves the rectangle. We figure out the area of that by multiplying 22×7 = 154

Then you add the area of the square and the area of the rectangle together.

154 + 36 = 190 square inches.

Does that make sense? I’m happy to answer any questions you might have.

What are the main things that its brain would need to do? Choose two functions and describe them. What parts of the human brain do what you have described?

Answers

Answer:

We need both a brain and a heart to think and act, and we need a heart to keep you alive.

Explanation:

Hope this helps!

Please mark me as Brainliniest.

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Based on research conducted on obedience, all of the following would most likely increase the tendency for individuals to obey except __________.
A.
other participants are defying commands of authority
B.
victims are depersonalized
C.
authority figure is seen as legitimate
D.
authority figure is respected

Answers

Answer:

I think it would be

A. Other participants are defying commands of authority

Answer:

Its A now relax

Explanation:

inside voices lol

the nurse is working with a client who is in a stressful situation. the nurse evaluates the client’s resiliency by assessing the client’s ability to do what?

Answers

The nurse working with a client who is in a stressful situation evaluates the client’s resiliency by assessing the client’s ability to cope with the current situation. In other words, the nurse will assess the client’s ability to handle or adjust to the situation without losing their functionality.

Resiliency is a psychological concept that is used to describe the ability to recover quickly from a difficult situation. It is the capacity to adapt and move forward from the traumatic event. Resiliency helps individuals to cope with stressors effectively and reduces the risk of developing mental health problems such as depression, anxiety, and post-traumatic stress disorder (PTSD).In nursing, assessing the client’s resiliency is critical because it allows the nurse to identify the client’s psychological strengths and weaknesses. The nurse can identify interventions that can promote the client’s resiliency and reduce the risk of developing mental health issues. The nurse assesses the client’s ability to maintain positive relationships with others, maintain hope and optimism, and handle the situation in a positive manner.

They also assess the client’s ability to use effective coping mechanisms such as seeking support, being proactive, and problem-solving. In conclusion, a nurse working with a client in a stressful situation evaluates the client’s resiliency by assessing their ability to cope and adapt to the current situation. Assessing resiliency is crucial for nurses as it helps them to identify interventions that can promote the client’s resiliency and reduce the risk of developing mental health issues.

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A nurse is documenting client care. Which of the following abbreviations should the nurse use? O "BRP" for bathroom privileges "oj" for orange juice "SQ" for subcutaneous O "SS" for sliding scale

Answers

The nurse should use the abbreviation "SQ" for subcutaneous administration. However, it is important to avoid using the abbreviations "BRP" for bathroom privileges, "oj" for orange juice, and "SS" for sliding scale as they can lead to confusion and potential medication errors.

When documenting client care, healthcare professionals often use abbreviations to save time and space. However, it is crucial to use standardized and accepted abbreviations to ensure clear and accurate communication.

The abbreviation "SQ" is commonly used to indicate subcutaneous administration, which refers to the delivery of medication or fluids into the fatty tissue layer beneath the skin.

On the other hand, using abbreviations such as "BRP" for bathroom privileges, "oj" for orange juice, or "SS" for sliding scale can be ambiguous and prone to misinterpretation. These abbreviations may vary in meaning among different healthcare settings or individuals, leading to confusion and potential errors.

To maintain patient safety and prevent misunderstandings, it is recommended to use clear and standardized terminology when documenting client care.

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______________ individuals would be at an increased risk for osteoporosis.

Answers

Factors contributing to an increased risk of osteoporosis include postmenopausal women, older adults, family history, sedentary lifestyle, hormonal imbalances, low calcium and vitamin D intake, and smoking/excessive alcohol consumption.

While the missing word in your statement could be any specific group or condition associated with a higher risk of osteoporosis, here are some examples:

1. Postmenopausal Women: Women, especially those who have gone through menopause, have a higher risk of osteoporosis due to a decrease in estrogen levels.

2. Older Adults: As people age, their bones naturally become weaker and lose density, increasing the risk of osteoporosis.

3. Individuals with Family History: Having a family history of osteoporosis or fractures can contribute to an increased risk.

4. Sedentary Lifestyle: Lack of regular weight-bearing exercises and physical activity can contribute to the development of osteoporosis.

5. Hormonal Imbalances: Certain medical conditions, such as hormonal disorders or prolonged use of corticosteroid medications, can increase the risk.

6. Low Calcium and Vitamin D Intake: Inadequate consumption of calcium and vitamin D, which are essential for bone health, can increase the risk of osteoporosis.

7. Smoking and Excessive Alcohol Consumption: Both smoking and excessive alcohol intake can negatively impact bone health and increase the risk of osteoporosis.

It is important to note that this list is not exhaustive, and other factors can also contribute to an increased risk of osteoporosis.

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a carton of ice cream states that it is reduced fat. according to the fda's guidelines concerning nutrient claims, it must contain _____ less fat than the reference food.

Answers

According to the FDA's guidelines concerning nutrient claims, if a carton of ice cream states that it is reduced fat, it must contain at least 25% less fat than the reference food.

Reference food is defined as food of the same type as the labeled food that is generally accepted by the public as the food that usually contains the nutrient in question. For example, reference food for fat could be a similar flavor of ice cream that does not have any fat claims.

The FDA’s guidelines are standard for food products to use nutrient content claims, such as "low fat" or "reduced fat," on their packaging, and the claims must meet certain criteria in order to be used.

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a nurse is assessing a client who is postoperative and has a history of pulmonary embolism which of the following should the nurse report to the provider?

Answers

Option E is correct. Shortness of breath, Oxygen saturation, Hemoptysis and chest pain should be reported to the provider.

The nurse should inform the healthcare practitioner of the following findings:

Shortness of breath that appears out of nowhere: This can be a sign that a pulmonary embolism is returning or getting worse.

Chest pain or discomfort: Chest pain may be an indication of cardiac strain or other pulmonary embolism-related consequences, such as a lung infarction.

Rapid breathing and dyspnea: Rapid breathing and dyspnea may indicate respiratory distress or insufficient oxygenation.

Lowered oxygen saturation: A pulmonary embolism may cause impeded gas exchange, which can be indicated by a decline in oxygen saturation.  

Hemoptysis: Coughing up blood can indicate lung bleeding or an embolism that is getting worse.

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Complete question

A nurse is assessing a client who is postoperative and has a history of pulmonary embolism which of the following should the nurse report to the provider?

A. Shortness of breath

B. Oxygen saturation

C. Hemoptysis

D. chest pain

E. All of the above

i need helpppppppppppp

Answers

Answer: 1. Him To Walk 2. To go Rock Climbing 3. He is Most Passionate About

Explanation:

Answer:

Those first prosthetics helped him to walk, but they did not allow him to go rock climbing, the sport he is most passionate about.

Explanation:

The answers are in bold. This is the only way it makes sense.

Hope that helps

Question 9 of 10 Which of these treatments is effective against HIV and may delay the onset of AIDS? A. Anti-retroviral therapy B. Antibiotics C. Herbal supplements D. HIV vaccine

Answers

Answer:

b

that is answer

briefly describe the type(s) of nursing health assessments you commonly perform

Answers

Two different kinds of health evaluations, referred to as focused assessments and comprehensive assessments, can be carried out by nurses.

Thus, comprehensive evaluations entail a careful investigation of the patient's total health, including acquiring specific information about their medical history, carrying out a physical exam, and evaluating their psychosocial well-being.

These evaluations are often carried out when a patient is admitted to a healthcare facility or on a regular basis for continuous patient monitoring. On the other hand, focused evaluations are those that have a particular issue or concern in mind. When a patient arrives with a specific complaint or condition, this enables a more focused examination and assessment of the area of concern.

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Y'all I have. Crush and we like each other but I feel like I don't deserve him........he so sweet and is so respectful he is christan which makes it all easier.....I don't know what to do he's so amazing I feel like I don't deserve him......

Answers

Answer: You deserve him

If you worried that you don't deserve him its okay because you do. Just be yourself and since you mentioned already that he likes you I think you will be just fine :) Good luck and have a wonderful day

Answer:

ask him out!!

Explanation:

good lucky girlyyy! <3

4. how should you respond when you hear a friend say, "all protein is good!"

Answers

When a friend says all protein is good, we should respond in an agreeable manner but also explain. how it is not true

Although protein is a necessary ingredient for our bodies, it's crucial to think about type and origin of the protein consumed. The effects of various protein sources on human health might differ. Lean proteins, like those found in fish, chicken, and lentils, are typically seen as better options since they deliver required amino acids without having too many saturated fats. Whereas, consuming an excessive amount of processed meats or protein from sources high in saturated fats, such fried foods, may have negative consequences on health, like an increased risk of heart disease.  

Therefore, it's important to consider the quality of the protein as well as the overall balance of our diet. By responding in this way, one may inform their buddy on the significance of taking protein source quality into account and promote a more complex understanding of nutrition. Promoting knowledge about a balanced and nutritious diet is always a good idea.

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Free points!!!!!

What is your dream car. Mine is a mercedes - benz g class

Answers

Answer:tyyyyy

Explanation: i dont really have a dream car lol

Answer:

pooooop

Explanation:

DNA is a...

1. nucleoside
2. nucleoside triphosphate
3. nucleotide
4. nucleic acid

Answers

Answer:

Nucleic Acid

Explanation: DNA in its full form is Deoxyribonucleic acid if you separate you get Deoxyribo-nucleic acid

4
DNA stands for DeoxyriboNUCLEIC ACID

"I wish that I was good enough"when all people do is walk in and outta your life and you get used to it but it still hurts so bad........When you don't know who to trust anymore

Answers

Answer:

That's stu pid! Not even kind of u gly! You should get some better friends

Explanation:

When you were a baby, flashing lights on a cop car probably didn't scare you or make
your heart race. Over the years, you've learned that flashing lights usually mean that
someone is in trouble (which can lead to expensive tickets, jail time, scolding from
your parents, etc.) or in danger. Many people, when driving on the freeway, will feel
their heart rate increase and possibly begin perspiring if they see a police car behind
them with its lights flashing (even if they aren't committing a crime). What is the UCS
of this situation?

a) getting in trouble
b) police lights
c) heart rate increase, begin sweating (happening naturally when you get in
trouble)
d) heart rate increase, begin sweating (because you have begun to associate
police lights with getting in trouble)

Answers

D because it's the most detailed answer

A nurse is unable to palpate the apical impulse on an older client. Which assessment data in the client's history should the nurse recognize as the reasonfor this finding?
A. heart rate is irregular
B. heart enlargement is present
C. respiratory rate is too fast
D. client has an increased chest diameter

Answers

The nurse should recognize a heart enlargement is present in the client's history. Option B is correct.

The apical impulse, also known as the point of maximal impulse (PMI), is the point where the heartbeat can be felt most prominently on the chest wall. It is typically located in the fifth intercostal space, midclavicular line. Palpating the apical impulse helps assess the size, position, and strength of the heart.

If a nurse is unable to palpate the apical impulse on an older client, it suggests that there may be a change in the size or position of the heart. Heart enlargement (cardiomegaly) can cause the apical impulse to be displaced or obscured, making it difficult to locate or feel. This can occur due to conditions such as congestive heart failure, myocardial infarction, or cardiomyopathy.

Hence, B. is the correct option.

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Which option distinguishes why the children in the following scenario are still likely over their recommended daily sugar intake?

Claire is trying to limit her children’s sugar intake, so she buys a new cereal that claims to have the lowest amount of sugar among similar products.

The product doesn’t include sugars from carbohydrates.
The product has smaller serving sizes than the others.
The product actually has sugar added as noted on the label.
The product has artificial sweeteners instead.

Answers

Answer:

The product has artificial sweeteners and actually has sugar added.

Explanation:

Even tho it might have a smaller serving size than others the product still has sugar added and artificial sweeteners(which may contain sugar)

Answer:

D

Explanation:

Other Questions
Simplify: 2(x+3)+5(2x-1)(no files please) Help meee helppp meee help Grace wants to sell her motorcycle, and Ryan is looking for a used motorcycle to buy. Ryan takes it for a test drive. Grace knows that the clutch is going out on her motorcycle, the fuel filter is leaking, and the tires will need to be replaced soon. If she does not disclose this information to Ryan and he cannot tell from his test drive, this is an example of Who was the first wife of heracles, whom he killed in a fit of rage? Mega Electronix sells television sets and Blu-ray DVD players. The business is divided into two divisions along product lines. A variable cost income statement for a recent quarter's activity is prese The city of zmir is prone to three main types of natural hazards: earthquakes, winds and floods. Each of these can be modelled as a Poisson process. The mean annual occurrence rates for earthquakes and floods are 0.1 and 0.25 damaging events, respectively. The wind is considered as a hazard when the speed exceeds 40m/s. The probability distribution for the annual wind speed is known to be lognormal with a median of 30m/s and a coefficient of variation 0.2. All the three hazardous events occur independently of each other, and each can cause damages with an approximate cost of 2M TL. For proper budgeting, the municipality of zmir needs to calculate the expected monetary loss from natural hazards, and approximately estimates the loss as a product of the number of hazardous events and the related cost. Based on this data, find out: a) What is the return period of a hazardous wind? b) What is the probability that more than 3 hazardous events in total can happen within a year? c) What is the probability that no hazardous events can happen within 5 years? d) Provide estimates for the mean and standard deviation of expected annual monetary losses so as to have an idea about how much budget the municipality should allocate for natural hazards. A 1.99 uF capacitor that is initially uncharged is connected in series with a 5.77 ki2 resistor and an emf source with 54.3 V and negligible internal resistance. The circuit is completed at t = 0. just after the circuit is completed, what is the rate at which electrical energy is being dissipated in the resistor? An amusement park sold 38 discount tickets and 12 full-price tickets. What percentage of the tickets sold were discount tickets? Read the excerpt from "Healthy Eating."If anything gets in the way of our good eating, it's lifestyle. When you get home from work late, why spend an hour in front of the stove when you can spend two minutes at the microwave? And doesn't that oatmeal box claim to be a good source of calcium for our kids, never mind the small print listing 14 grams of sugar? A small soda at the movies could satisfy a family of four. Even schools have vending machines.What does the author think is responsible for people's poor eating habits?A) They do not know how to correctly read the nutrition information on food packages.B) They do not know how to prepare healthy meals that are both inexpensive and quick.C) They often choose foods that are quick and convenient instead of ones that are healthy.D) They spend time thinking about work and entertainment instead of thinking about food.PLSS HELPP MEEE!!! I NEED A ANSWER!!! IM TIMED!!! Helpppp meeeeee plssss An aircraft seam requires 29 rivets. The seam will have to be reworked if any of these rivets is defective. Suppose rivets are defective independently of one another, each with the same probability. (Round your answers to four decimal places.) (a) If 23% of all seams need reworking, what is the probability that a rivet is defective what is this answer to these questions no links 30 points List 2 confusions on food facts what life lesson does sodapop learn in the outiders? FREE BRAINLIST NEED HELP ASAP Obrigado pelos pontos livres.. What is put into a system to reach a goal?inputfeedbackoutputprocess VERY EASY, WILL GIVE 50 POINTS FOR CORRECT ANSWER ASAP AND WILL GIVE BRAINLIEST. The Venn diagram below shows some characteristics of civil and criminal law.Which statement completes the Venn diagram?A. There are no rules of evidence.B.Trials never require a jury.C.The losing side pays all court costs.D. The defendant is innocent until proven guilty.I'll give 90 points if you answer this question correctly. A cylindrical bar of metal having a diameter of 19.9 mm and a length of 186 mm is deformed elastically in tension with a force of 42600 N. Given that the elastic modulus and Poisson's ratio of the metal are 67.1 GPa and 0.34, respectively, determine the following: (a) The amount by which this specimen will elongate (in mm) in the direction of the applied stress. (b) The change in diameter of the specimen (in mm). Indicate an increase in diameter with a positive number and a decrease with a negative number.