Answer:
a haploid animal cell
Explanation:
the answer is a haploid animal cell
You are working the night shift on the Answer-Line, a telephone service provided by a health management organization for its enrollees. You receive a call from a 26-year-old woman. She has been experiencing painful urination for the past 24 hours. This is the first time she has had this condition and she describes herself as otherwise healthy. 1) The patient reports a fever of 101.5F and nearly constant urge to urinate, though she often voids little or no urine. What is your preliminary diagnosis? 2) What is the most likely causative agent for this condition? 3) There is a potential risk for progressing to a more serious condition. What is it?
Painful urination with fever and constant urge to urinate may indicate urinary tract infection. Preliminary diagnosis would be the patient is suffering from a upper urinary tract infection as she has fever along with other symptoms of UTI.
This can be confirmed by doing an urine culture. An urine culture will help identify the causative agent and will help in further treatment. The most likely causative agent in UTI are bacteria, especially Escherichia coli in majority of cases, with Staphylococcus saprophyticus in some cases. These usually travel up to the bladder from the rectum. Other causative agents may be fungi or viruses in rare cases.
Women are more prone to UTIs than men as they have a shorter urethra than men. UTI's may occur during intercourse or it sometimes may be hereditary. Sometimes it may have be acquired from pubic restrooms or hospitals or due to the use of catheters but it seems that is not the case in this patient.
Untreated or unrecognised UTIs may turn to serious condition very quickly. Untreated UTI may result in infection in the kidney leading to cloudy and oul smelling urine, blood in the urine, back pain. If left untreated the bacteria may travel upto both the kidneys and may result in permanent reduction in kidney function and kidney failure as well.
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On an isolated Pacific Ocean Island, there exists a recessive allele for psychic ability which enabled the lucky natives to complete witch doctor school. This recessive allele was found in the population of 2000 natives at a frequency of 10%. How many witch doctors are there on the island? What proportion of the population would be hybrid?
The witch doctors are there on the island is 20. The proportion of the population would be hybrid 18% (0.18).
Allele frequency refers to how not unusual an allele is in a populace. It is decided by counting how typically the allele seems inside the population and then dividing by the full variety of copies of the gene.
Gene frequency can be defined as the fraction or percentage of a population that contains an allele at a selected locus (Gillespie 2004). It is also extra accurately known as allele frequency.
Relative genotype frequency and relative allele frequency are the most essential measures of genetic variation. Relative genotype frequency is the proportion of individuals in a populace that has a specific genotype.
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there are many species of finches in the galapagos islands and quite a few species are found on only one of the islands. one reason these finches are considered different species might be that there is and finches of different species do not interbreed in nature.
On the Galapagos Islands, there are currently at least 13 different species of finches, each of which fills a specific niche on a separate island. They all descended from a single ancestor species that just recently inhabited the islands, about a million years ago.
What verdict did Darwin reach on the Galapagos finches?Darwin later came to the conclusion that a number of finches of the same species had likely been blown by a storm or somehow dispersed to each of the islands from the mainland or from one island. To their new surroundings and food sources, the finches had to adjust. They gradually underwent species diversification.
Darwin finally postulated that several finch species had developed on various islands, with their varied beaks serving as an adaptation to various natural environments or environmental niches.
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mammals and birds eat more often than reptiles. Which of the following traits shared by mammals and birds best explains this habit?
A. amniotic egg
B. terrestrial
C. insulating body cover
D. ectothermy
E. endothermy
Answer: A amnoiotic egg
Explanation:
Suppose in a species of petunia, locus A determines petal color and locus B determines whether the petals can express any pigment. At locus A, purple petal color (A) is dominant over yellow petal color (a). At locus B, pigmentation (B) is dominant over lack of pigmentation (b). If an AA BB plant is crossed to an aa bb plant, what is the ratio of purple- to yellow- to white-flowered petunias expected in the F2 progeny?
A. 9:3:4
B. 15:1
C. 9:4:3
D. 12:3:1
E. 9:7
9:3:4, Although it's not as straightforward as just producing pigment, flower color is the consequence of pigment molecules gathering in cells. The location, type, and quantity of the pigment are all crucial factors.
What genotype determines flower color?The P locus genotype influences whether flowers are purple or red-pink in hue. PP or Pp individuals have purple flowers, whereas pp people, depending on the genotype at the I locus, have pink or red flowers.
Does a single gene determine the color of a flower?Mendel came to the conclusion that the color of the pea flowers was governed by a single locus or gene after doing numerous additional tests with cross-breeding subsequent generations of flowers. That gene requires two known components in order to produce two distinct hues.
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A researcher observes membrane-bound organelles in a cell. Based on this observation, the researcher can conclude that the cell is classified as a(n) __________ cell.
eukaryotic
Based on this observation, the researcher can conclude that the cell is classified as an eukaryotic cell.
Eukaryotes are organisms with nuclei in each of their cells. Eukaryotes include all animals, all plants, all fungi, and many unicellular creatures. They are a part of the Eukaryota or Eukarya group of organisms, one of the three categories of life. The other two domains are made up of bacteria and archaea, both prokaryotes.
The eukaryotes are now commonly thought to have originated in the Archaea or to be a sister archaea to the Asgard archaea. According to this, there are only the two domains of life—Bacteria and Archaea—with eukaryotes included in the latter. Although eukaryotes make up a very small portion of all living things, their total global biomass is thought to be roughly equivalent to that of prokaryotes due to their typically considerably bigger size.
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Even though the full oxidation of glucose is exergonic, some of the reactions in cellular respiration are endergonic.
A) True
B) False
True, The full oxidation of glucose is exergonic and some of the reactions in cellular respiration are endergonic.
In the second phase of glycolysis: phosphorylated sugar molecule is cleaved and the products rearranged.Cells must replenish ATP by synthesising it from ADP and phosphoric acid. This requires energy, and one way of providing this is from the oxidation of glucose which is an exergonic reaction.Under standard conditions, glucose reacts with oxygen during glycolysis to release Gibbs free energy. This is an exergonic reaction, which means energy is released. In order to use up this free energy, this reaction is coupled to other reactions in our body.Cellular respiration is an exergonic reaction; ΔG for this reaction, which converts glucose and oxygen to carbon dioxide and water, is –686 kcal/mol.The events of cellular respiration up to this point are exergonic reactions – they are releasing energy that had been stored in the bonds of the glucose molecule. This energy will be transferred to the third and final stage of cellular respiration: the Electron Transport System, which is an endergonic reaction .
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Predict whether each activity would primarily utilize fast-twitch or slow-twitch muscle fibers. 1. Long-distance jogging (Click to select) 2. Weightlifting (Click to select) 3. Sprinting (Click to select) 4. Biking twenty miles on flat ground (Click to select) ✓ (Click to select) Fast-twitch Slow-twitch
Slow twitch is used during long-distance jogging. Fast twitch muscles are used in weightlifting. When sprinting, use fast twitches. When biking 20 miles on level ground, use slow twitch.
Two different types of muscle fibres make up the majority of your body's muscles, and aid in movement: Slow-twitch muscle fibres, which move more slowly yet aid in extending your range of motion. You can move more quickly but only for brief periods of time thanks to fast-twitch muscle fibres. While fast-twitch muscle fibres are used for short, strong actions like sprinting or weightlifting, slow-twitch muscle fibres are used for long-distance endurance sports like marathon running.
Thus, we might conclude that long-distance jogging uses the Slow twitch muscle. Weightlifting makes use of fast twitch muscles. During a race, utilise quick twitches. Use slow twitch when cycling 20 km on level ground.
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During translation, the amino acid detaches from the transfer RNA molecule and attaches to the end of a growing protein chain when
a. the ribosomal RNA anticodon binds to messenger RNA codon.
b. the transfer RNA anticodon binds to the messenger RNA codon.
c. a "stop" codon is encountered.
d. the protein chain sends a signal through the nerve cells to the brain.
The correct option is B ; The transfer RNA anticodon binds to the messenger RNA codon. During translation, ribosomal subunits form a sandwich on the strand of mRNA,
where they bind tRNA molecules bound to amino acids (circles). As the ribosome decodes the mRNA sequence into a polypeptide, or new protein, a lengthy chain of amino acids appears.
The tRNA that has lost an amino acid is freed. It can then attach to another amino acid molecule and be reused later in the protein-making process. The ribosome advances the mRNA three nucleotides at a time via a ratcheting process.
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select all of the following that provide evidence that modern species have evolved from prior species. a. molecular biology b. biogeography c. biogeography d. comparative anatomy e. the fossil record
Molecular biology, biogeography, comparative anatomy, and the fossil record all provide evidence for common descent, and that modern species have evolved from prior species. By studying these sources, one can gain a better understanding of the evolutionary process, and how species have changed over time.
Molecular biology provides evidence for common descent by comparing the genetic sequences of different species. Genetic sequences are like fingerprints that are unique to each species, and by comparing the genetic sequences of two species, one can determine how closely related the two species are. For example, if two species have similar genetic sequences, then it is likely that the two species are closely related, and are descended from a common ancestor.
Biogeography is the study of the geographic distribution of species. By looking at the geographic distribution of species, one can infer how the species might have evolved from their ancestors. For example, if two species are found in the same geographic area, then it is likely that the two species are related, and descended from a common ancestor.
Comparative anatomy is the study of the anatomy of different species. By comparing the anatomy of different species, one can determine how closely related they are. For example, if two species have similar anatomical features, then it is likely that the two species are closely related, and are descended from a common ancestor.
The fossil record provides evidence for common descent by looking at the transition of species over time. Fossilized remains provide a snapshot of the evolution of species over time, and by looking at the transition of species over time, one can infer how one species evolved into another.
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which of the following reduces circulating blood levels of follicle-stimulating hormone (fsh) when the sperm count is high?
Answer: releasing inhibin
Explanation: its a hormone that suppresses the release of FSH.
identify on the skeletal muscle fiber where the description best fits by clicking and dragging the label to the correct location.
A muscle cell's fundamental rod-shaped organelle is called a myofibril. They are made of several chains of myofibrils that are long, tubular cells known as muscle fibres.
What is myofibril and its function?Sarcomeres, a muscle's functional units, make up myofibrils. The sliding-filament concept is used by the myofibril to produce muscle contraction. When tendons are at rest, the dense and thin filaments do not completely overlap, with certain regions having neither of the two types.
What are myofibrils are composed of?The dense and thin myofilaments that make up the myofibrils are what give the muscle its rough appearance. Also with two other muscle regulating proteins, tropomyosin and troponin, the thick filaments are made up of strands of the protein myosin, while the thin filaments are made up of strands of the protein actin.
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in male rats, the medial amygdala plays an important role in sexual behavior by conveying information about to the .
The amygdala converts information about pheromone signals to the hypothalamus
What is the hypothalamus?Your brain's hypothalamus is a structure located there. Your body maintains homeostasis, a stable state of equilibrium, thanks to the hypothalamus.
The hypothalamus gets chemical signals from brain and body nerve cells that are also responding to signals from outside the body.
The primary job of your hypothalamus is to respond to these signals in order to maintain your body stable or in a condition of internal equilibrium.
Your hypothalamus serves as the body's "smart control" coordination centre, much like the "smart control" system in your home.
Many of your hypothalamus' "body balancing" functions are accomplished by either directly affecting the autonomic nerve system or by controlling hormones.
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Which of the following statements about the retina's operation across different levels of ambient light is true?
For a given level of ambient light, an on-center ganglion cell respond's proportionately to a small spot of light over an intensity range of about one log unit.
Via adaptational mechanisms, on-center ganglion cells can dynamically encode brightness levels in their on-center over a range of 6 log units of ambient light levels.
Ganglion cells generally do not report absolute light intensities, but rather encode relative intensity differences between center and surround.
Interactions within the outer plexiform layer play an important role in modulating the photic sensitivity of ganglion cells.
All of the above
All of the above
Textbook Reference: Contribution of Retinal Circuits to Light Adaptation, pp. 253-255
The operating statement for the retina at various light levels above is E. All of the above
The eye is the sense of sight that provides us with visual information. The eye sees an object through light that is captured by the cornea which is then received by the retina.
In the retina there are nerve cells that are sensitive to light. Retinal stem cells function to see dim light, rod cells see bright light and color. Retinal ganglion cells will cover messages from rod cells and cone cells and then send information to the brain via the optic nerve. The brain will respond to the impulses given and translate them into images.
The retina has operations at various light levels which are as follows:
For a given level of ambient light, the central ganglion cells respond proportionally to a small point of light over a range of about one log unit intensity. Through an adaptation mechanism, the ganglion cells in the center can dynamically encode the brightness level in the center in the range of 6 log units of ambient light level. Ganglion cells generally do not report absolute light intensity, but instead encode the difference in relative intensity between center and surroundings. Interactions in the outer plexiform layer play an important role in modulating the photic sensitivity of ganglion cells.
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categorize each enzyme based on its specific function in glycolysis, gluconeogenesis, or both pathways.
Categorize each enzyme based on its specific function in glycolysis, gluconeogenesis, or both pathways ATP, GTP, and NADH molecules.
In contrast to gluconeogenesis, which is crucial for sustaining blood glucose levels during hunger, glycolysis is a catabolic process of glucose hydrolysis required for energy and biosynthetic intermediates.
When blood sugar levels fall, the liver breaks down glycogen, whereas the liver and kidneys produce glucose from non-carbohydrate sources like lactic acid, glycerol, and amino acids.
Two pyruvate molecules are created during glycolysis, the initial stage of the breakdown of glucose.
Both prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells undergo glycolysis in the cytoplasm.
Gluconeogenesis is the opposite of glycolysis, where two pyruvate molecules combine to generate a glucose molecule.
Aldolases A and C are primarily involved in glycolysis, while aldolase B is involved in both glycolysis and gluconeogenesis. The various isozymes have various catalytic roles.
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which of the following hormones controls secretion of adrenal androgens? parathormone thyroid-stimulating hormone (tsh) adrenocorticotropic hormone (acth) calcitonin
Answer: the answer is adrenocorticotropic hormone calcitonin or
(acth)
Explanation:
the neurobiology of opiate reinforcement suggests that opiates produce their effects by inhibiting neuro
Opioid receptors at the neuronal level are typically inhibitory, lowering neurotransmitter release presynaptically and hyperpolarizing neurons postsynaptically.
What is the purpose of neuroscience?The philosophical underpinnings Finding the biological processes through which neural systems influence behavior is the focus of neurobiology. The nervous system's cells have received a lot of attention in the last 50 years of neurobiology.
Is neuroscience an excellent major?The focus of a major in neurobiology and neurosciences is the investigation of the nervous system and brain. Unlocking the mysteries of how the brain functions will be possible thanks to this highly important subject. This might be a wonderful major for you if you are scientifically inclined and enjoy deducing how things operate.
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Arrange the following steps in order to describe the chronological order of the events in phagocytosis.
The steps of phagocytosis occur in the following chronological order: chemotaxis, adherence, ingestion, maturation, killing, and elimination.
Phagocytes are attracted to and moved toward a variety of chemicals created during the immune response during chemotaxis, the first stage of phagocytosis.
At resting phagocytes, inflammatory mediators activate them (bacterial products, cytokines, prostaglandins, and complement proteins). After activation, they develop greater metabolic and microbic activity. Additionally, more glycoprotein receptors are expressed by activated cells, which improves their capacity to firmly bind to pathogens and go to the infection site. Neutrophils show up first, and macrophages follow shortly after. The subsequent stage of phagocytosis is the antigen's attachment to the cell membrane of the phagocytic cells. An endocytic vesicle called a phagosome, which moves along the endocytic processing pathway, contains the material when the pseudopodia unite. Pseudopodia, membrane protrusions that expand out and ingest the attached material, are brought about by adhesion.
When a phagosome follows this pathway, it finally combines with a lysosome to form a phagolysosome when it enters the cell. Lysosomes include lysozyme in addition to a variety of cytotoxic and antibacterial substances that can destroy phagocytosed cells and pathogens. Microorganisms are eliminated using processes that either require oxygen or do not. Exocytosis is the procedure used to evacuate the phagolysosome's digested contents.
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you are a bio-researcher on the planet tawniwani, and you have been given the task of identifying and classifying the native fauna. use this dichotomous key to identify tawniwanian creature c.
A Roundus tricurlus is individual C. The key offers a quick and simple method of identification by outlining several physical or behavioural characteristics and guiding you to the appropriate taxonomic categorization.
Each feature will always have two alternatives (a and b, or 1 and 2), and you must select one of them based on the traits of your organism. Once you select the choice that best fits your organism, the key will take you to the next description, where you must select another alternative. Until you reach the name of your organism, you will keep doing this. Only particular characteristics that help distinguish are described in the key.
For instance, we need to know the name of individual C in the example that was provided. So, it is a Roundus tricurlus, individual C.
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scientists discovered that the difference between blond and dark hair in humans and other mammals comes down in part to a single nucleotide difference in the dna sequence of an enhancer that lies more than 350,000 base pairs upstream from the coding region of the gene it controls. on average, blonds transcribe this gene less efficiently than people with dark hair. which of the following statements about this blond/dark hair enhancer is correct?
DNA looping could bring the enhancer bound by an activator physically close to the promoter even if the enhancer is a huge distance away along the DNA molecule.
Deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA) is a polymer made up of two polynucleotide chains that coil around one another to form a double helix. The polymer contains genetic instructions for all known organisms and viruses' development, functioning, growth, and reproduction. Nucleic acids include DNA and ribonucleic acid.
During reproduction, DNA and the instructions it contains are passed from adult organisms to their offspring. DNA now serves three distinct functions: genetics, immunology, and structure, all of which rely on the sugar phosphate backbone and bases in different ways. DNA is composed of nucleotide molecules. Each nucleotide contains a sugar, phosphate, and nitrogen base group.
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which of the following statements about secondary messengers is true? they carry out the effects of steroid hormones within the cell. they carry out the effects of non-steroid hormones within the cell. they work with both steroid and non-steroid hormones to carry out their effects in the cell. they are a third type of hormone, although they differ significantly from the other two.
The secondary messenger carry out the effects of non-steroid hormones within the cell.
what are secondary messenger?
Secondary messengers can be described as a the binding of ligands or a small molecules and ions that transmit signals received by cell-surface receptors to effector proteins.
what are non-steriod hormones?
A non-steroid hormone include proteins, small peptides, and modified amino acids which is derived from amino acids. It is also not fat soluble, which means it cannot diffuse across the plasma membrane of a target cell. Instead, it binds to a receptor protein on the cell membrane.
examples of non-steriod hormones
some of the examples of non-steriod hormone include:
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consider how you might add pathogens and infection to the concept map. each statement may contain a term already present in the concept map (italicized) and at least one new term (bold). the intervening words represent the connecting phrase in the concept map. which of the following phrases are accurate statements? (select all that apply.)
Infection of a cell may lead to its death, disrupting the organism's homeostasis. Pathogens trigger the production of antibodies, maintaining homeostasis. Immune system releases pathogens in response to infection. Pathogens bind to antibodies to raise their chance of survival. Pathogens cause infection. Pathogens compete with body cells for resources, disrupting homeostasis.
Options 1, 5 and 6 are correct. Infection is caused by pathogens Pathogens engage in resource competition with bodily cells, upsetting homeostasis. A cell may die from infection, which would upset the organism's balance.
There are many ways that pathogens can make their hosts unwell. The most evident method is direct tissue or cell damage caused by the infection during replication, usually, through the creation of toxins that allow the pathogen to enter new tissues or leave the cells, it replicated in. When bacteria, viruses, or other organisms enter your body and start to grow, infection results.
We can conclude that Options 1, 5, and 6 are correct in this case. Infection is a result of pathogens. By competing with bodily cells for resources, pathogens disturb homeostasis. The equilibrium of the organism may be disturbed if an infected cell dies.
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Scientists have suggested that the autonomic nervous system is not well-adapted to modern human life. How is the sympathetic nervous system an ineffective response to the everyday challenges faced by modern humans?
(The autonomic nervous system or ANS is referred to as the vegetative nervous system, which controls the muscles of internal organs such as the heart, stomach, intestine, and glands.
The sympathetic nervous system is involved in fight and flight response and prepares the body for potential danger.)
Explanation:There are many events in human life that are not potential physical threats such as feeling nervous before exams or paying loans activate humans' sympathetic nervous systems but these stressful situations do not require a fight or flight response for survival.
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Which of the following statements about aging is true?
The way in which you age is completely dictated by your lifestyle.
Signs of aging may include changes in your skin, height, muscle mass, bones and organ function.
All of these statements are correct.
As a woman ages, she enters andropause and can no longer reproduce.
Statements about aging is true is option A. Signs of aging may include changes in your skin, height, muscle mass, bones and organ function.
Throughout this third step of urine formation, urine filters into the ureters and in the long run to the urinary bladder for garage. To keep the frame's acid-base stability, substances pass from the blood in the peritubular capillaries into nephron tubules.
However, with aging, the sensitivity of the hypothalamus to feedback regulators starts offevolved to decline. This consequences in a revolutionary loss of homeostasis and in the end, disruption of appropriate hormone production and an lack of ability of the hypothalamus to accurately regulate its target tissues.
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a type of programmed cell death which causes cells to swell and burst, spilling their contents into the extracellular matrix and potentially triggering immune and inflammatory responses.
Cell necrosis is a type of programmed cell death which causes cells to swell and burst, spilling their contents into the extracellular matrix and potentially triggering immune and inflammatory responses.
. It is distinct from necrosis, in which cells pass away as a result of harm.
A multicellular organism's cells are part of a tightly knit community. In this community, the number of cells is strictly regulated, not only by regulating the rate of cell division but also by regulating the rate of cell death. Cells that are no longer required start an intracellular death programme and end their lives. Therefore, although though apoptosis is the more often used term for this process, it is also known as planned cell death.
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On the left are several misconceptions about evolutionary theory. The labels on the right all list a biologist's explanation for each misconception. Match each misconception with its accurate biological explanation by dragging the explanation to the correct answer dock Misconception about Biologist's Explanation Reset Biological evolution explains the origin of life. Evolution does not have a plan. New adaptations arise by mutations, which occur randomly Biological evolution did not begin until life existed. Evolution occurs "in order to help a species survive." Mechanisms of evolution may act orn ndividuals (or even on genes), but by definition evolution always occurs at Individuals can evolve the level of the were to arise, then t Beneficial traits acquired during an individual's life are passed to the next generation would originate in a single individual, not in the entire population. The new trait would then be subject to natural
Below, I've coupled up the corresponding false beliefs with their justifications (please note that it is in the order misconception followed by explanation)
Biological evolution explains the origin of life.Biological evolution did not begin until life existed.Evolution occurs in order to help a species survive.Evolution does not have a plan. New adaptations arise by mutations, which occur randomly.Individuals can evolve.Mechanisms of evolution may act on Individuals (or even on genes), but by definition evolution always occurs at the level of the population.Beneficial traits acquired during an individual's life are passed to the next generation.Acquired characteristics are not typically inherited.All members of a population develop new traits simultaneously .If an adaptation were to arise, then it would originate in a single individual, not in the entire population. The new trait would then be subject to natural selection.Evolution and natural selection are the same thing.Natural selection is one mechanism of evolution. Mutation, genetic drift, migration, and nonrandom mating are other mechanisms of evolution.Evolution only happens when conditions change dramatically.Minor changes in the environment may be sufficient to trigger selection for different traits.To learn more about evolution click:
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1)consider a population where selection favors one allel (B) over another allle (b)Which of the following would be least likely to counter the expected decrease of the b allele in the popuplation
a) genetic drift b ) mutation c) gene flow d) non random mating
2)Consider a population of lizards where there is variation in jaw size. Check which of the following types of selection could result in an increase in the proportion of lizards with large jaws.
a) disruptive selection b) directional selection c) stabilizing selection there can be more than one answer
3) Convergent evolution occurs when two species living in
a)the same area become reproductively isolated.
b) different areas become reestablished and are able to reproduce.
c) the same area are competing for the same resource thus causing one to evolve away from the other.
d) different areas evolve similarities through natural selection acting on those characteristics.
Non-random mating will have the lowest chance of reversing the population's anticipated loss of the b allele. Small populations typically experience a faster loss of genetic diversity than big populations due to stochastic sampling error.
A and B are the best options for 2nd question. Disruptive selection and directional selection kinds of selection may enhance the proportion of lizards with large jaws when applied to a population of reptiles with variable jaw sizes.
It is wise to select option d for 3rd question. When two species that are geographically separated from one another evolve similar traits due to natural selection acting on those traits, this is known as convergence.
This is because small populations increase the likelihood of some gene variants being lost by random chance. Selection, which boosts advantageous alleles and eliminates harmful ones, and genetic drift, which changes frequencies arbitrarily as some parents pass on more or fewer alleles to the following generation, are the two processes in a population without migration that alter allele frequencies.
According to our calculations, the population's predicted loss of the b allele will thus have the lowest likelihood of being reversed by non-random mating.
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Paleontology - The Fossil Record Scientists use the age of fossils as evidence for evolution. There are two ways of dating fossils: Relative dating and absolute dating. Relative dating uses a fossil's location in rock layers to determine that fossil's approximate age. Fossils found deeper in the ground are usually the oldest. Using the chart to the right, a paleontologist can therefore know that a fossil found in layer 1 at the dig site is older than a fossil found at layer 6, for example, by relative dating.
Absolute dating determines the fossil's actual age by measuring amount of an element called carbon 4 in the fossil. There is a mathematical formula that will calculate the rate of decay of this element. By measuring the carbon-14 levels and plugging it into the math formula, the scientist can know an actual number of years old a fossil is.
1. What are the two ways of finding the age of a fossil?
2. Describe how relative dating works.
3. What does absolute dating do?
4. Why is the element carbon-14 important for paleontologists?
Fossils are defined as the dead and decayed remains or traces or impressions of the plants and animals that were buried deep down on the earth millions of years ago.
Paleontologists is term that refers to the scientists who study the life and history of earth and evolution through the fossils and their records.
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Once bacteria have fixed nitrogen, it can be taken up by plants and animals, where it is used in the production of A. Nitrogen oxides B. Carbohydrate C. Proteins D. Energy​
Nitrogen may be absorbed by plants and animals as nitrogen oxides once bacteria have repaired it.
What carry out bacteria?Some bacteria aid in the digestion of food, assist the body to produce necessary vitamins, and eliminate disease-causing cells. Additionally, bacteria are employed to create healthy foods like yogurt and cheese. However, infectious bacteria can cause you to become ill. Within your body, they grow quickly.
What is the origin of bacteria?Bacteria may be found in thermal baths, polar ice and glaciers, soil, water, plants, animals, radioactive waste, and deep within the earth's crust. Bacteria may be found in the stratospheric, between 6 and 30 miles high in the atmosphere, as well as in the deepest parts of the ocean, 10,000 meters or 32,800 feet below the surface.
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the ultimate goal of cellular respiration is to produce atp. cells use two different mechanisms to do this: substrate level phosphorylation and oxidative phosphorylation.
The ultimate goal of cellular respiration is to produce ATP, a molecule that powers the work of cells.
Cellular respiration is utilized to produce usable ATP energy to help numerous different responses in the body. ATP is especially significant for vigorously troublesome responses that would somehow not happen without an energy input.
There are three principal steps of cellular respiration: glycolysis; the citrus extract (TCA) or the Krebs cycle; and the electron transport chain, where oxidative phosphorylation happens. The TCA cycle and oxidative phosphorylation require oxygen, while glycolysis can happen in anaerobic circumstances.
A definitive objective of cellular respiration is synthesis of ATP, which is utilized to control a large portion of the cell's exercises. Cells make ATP by two generally various components. Substrate-level phosphorylation moves a phosphate straightforwardly to ADP.
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(Complete question) is:
The ultimate goal of cellular respiration is to produce ______,a molecule that powers the work of cells.