which of the following situations identify a familiarity threat with respect to a member's independence?

Answers

Answer 1

Threats are people or situations that might limit your independence. The following dangers to independence are listed in the framework's

paragraphs: unfavorable interest, advocacy, familiarity, management participation, self-interest, self-review, and undue influence. which of the following circumstances indicates a threat from familiarity to a member's independence If you come across a connection or circumstance that isn't covered in detail by an independent interpretation, you should consider whether it poses one or more dangers.

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Related Questions

what is the square of 10​

Answers

Answer:

10*10=100

Explanation:

the assembly or assembly-use category for amusement parks, stadiums, outdoor activities, and sporting events is .

Answers

The assembly or assembly-use category for amusement parks, stadiums, outdoor activities, and sporting events is A-5. Thus the correct option is D.

What are Group Occupancy Classifications?

Building occupancy categories involve grouping together buildings according to how they are used. The department of labor uses the standard occupational categorization system to identify and group all the jobs and occupations in order to make its estimates.

Group A-5 occupation comprises structures used for amusement parks as well as other gathering places for participation in or viewing outdoor activities. 

Therefore, option D is appropriate.

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The complete question is probably

.

The assembly or assembly-use category for amusement parks, stadiums, outdoor activities, and sporting events is ___.

answer choices

A-1

A-3

A-4

A-5

dysfunctional turnover is the loss of poor-performing employees who choose to leave an organization.

Answers

This assertion is untrue. Functional turnover is the loss of underperforming workers who voluntarily leave the company. The opportunity to replace underperformers with superior employees is provided by dysfunctional turnover.

What distinguishes a turnover that is functional from one that is dysfunctional?

Functional turnover is the departure of people who perform poorly from the company, as opposed to dysfunctional turnover, which happens when high-performing personnel leave the organization. Because it has an impact on how well the organization as a whole performs, dysfunctional turnover is the issue that the management is most concerned about.

How does dysfunctional worker turnover affect business?

High staff turnover rates have negative immediate repercussions, such as the loss of crucial knowledge and experience, a fall in morale among the surviving members, and a loss of faith in the team's ability to perform well.

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2 pts alan always has been terrified of spiders. he refuses to enter his bedroom at night until it has been thoroughly checked for spiders. even a picture of a spider makes him extremely uncomfortable. most likely, alan is suffering from a psychological disorder called group of answer choices a phobia obsessive-compulsive disorder posttraumatic stress disorder social anxiety disorder

Answers

Alan is suffering from a psychological disorder called specific phobia. Patterns of personal or psychological symptoms in several aspects of life are known as mental disorders or psychological disorders.

The symptoms of these diseases are disturbing for the individual who is experiencing them.

Strong, illogical anxiety about an object that presents little to no major danger is known as a specific phobia. Though individuals suffering from phobias are conscious,  the mental image of encountering a frightening object or circumstance causes painful anxiety symptoms.

Alan always has been terrified of spiders, Even a picture of a spider makes him extremely uncomfortable. This reflects the symptoms of specific phobia in Alan.

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Which of the following best exemplifies the diffusion of popular culture throughout the world in contemporary society?
The increasing popularity of a fashion trend that originates in a large city, such as New York, and spreads to small rural towns
The spread of an Internet meme via social media applications
The spread of a religion through the migration of adherents of the religion
The increasing popularity of a new band that spends a year touring cities around the world
The spread of new slang that becomes widely used in government-funded schools

Answers

The spread of an Internet meme via social media applications best exemplifies the diffusion of popular culture throughout the world in contemporary society

In today's society, one of the most common ways to transmit popular culture is via the internet, particularly through the use of social media. Memes are spread not only through memes but also by news, messages, videos, and other types of media.

These statements may quickly reach the other side of the world via the internet, where they might be retweeted countless times until they become famous not only in the United States, but worldwide.

The definition of contemporary society is a big group of people that live together in an organized manner, making choices on how to accomplish things and sharing the labor that has to be done.

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james madison considered the greatest strength of the articles of confederation was its lack of a strong central government.

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The Articles of Confederation served as the first constitution of the United States and created a very weak central government. This was intended to protect the independence of the states and ensure that the federal government could not interfere in the affairs of the states.

The Strength of the Articles of Confederation: The Lack of a Strong Central Government

The Articles of Confederation created a system of government where the states had the majority of the power and the central government had very limited authority. This was a conscious decision by the founding fathers to protect the states' sovereignty and independence.

The Articles' lack of a strong central government was seen as its greatest strength because it allowed the states to remain largely self-governing, while still uniting them under a single union. This was seen as a way to maintain the states' political autonomy while still allowing the federal government to handle certain matters of national concern. This arrangement was not without its flaws, however, and the need for a stronger central government eventually led to the adoption of the US Constitution.

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Distinguish this law from the two other Reconstruction amendments. Why were all three necessary? What other laws did Congress pass to enforce these amendments?

Use the Fourteenth Amendment to answer the question

Section 1.

All persons born or naturalized in the United States, and subject to the jurisdiction thereof, are citizens of the United States and of the State wherein they reside. No State shall make or enforce any law which shall abridge the privileges or immunities of citizens of the United States; nor shall any State deprive any person of life, liberty, or property, without due process of law; nor deny to any person within its jurisdiction the equal protection of the laws.

Section 2.

Representatives shall be apportioned among the several States according to their respective numbers, counting the whole number of persons in each State, excluding Indians not taxed. But when the right to vote at any election for the choice of electors for President and Vice-President of the United States, Representatives in Congress, the Executive and Judicial officers of a State, or the members of the Legislature thereof, is denied to any of the male inhabitants of such State, being twenty-one years of age, and citizens of the United States, or in any way abridged, except for participation in rebellion, or other crime, the basis of representation therein shall be reduced in the proportion which the number of such male citizens shall bear to the whole number of male citizens twenty-one years of age in such State.

Section 3.

No person shall be a Senator or Representative in Congress, or elector of President and Vice-President, or hold any office, civil or military, under the United States, or under any State, who, having previously taken an oath, as a member of Congress, or as an officer of the United States, or as a member of any State legislature, or as an executive or judicial officer of any State, to support the Constitution of the United States, shall have engaged in insurrection or rebellion against the same, or given aid or comfort to the enemies thereof. But Congress may by a vote of two-thirds of each House, remove such disability.

Section 4.

The validity of the public debt of the United States, authorized by law, including debts incurred for payment of pensions and bounties for services in suppressing insurrection or rebellion, shall not be questioned. But neither the United States nor any State shall assume or pay any debt or obligation incurred in aid of insurrection or rebellion against the United States, or any claim for the loss or emancipation of any slave; but all such debts, obligations and claims shall be held illegal and void.

Section 5.

The Congress shall have the power to enforce, by appropriate legislation, the provisions of this article.

Answers

Finally, it gave Congress the authority to enforce this amendment; this clause paved the way for the enactment of other significant pieces of 20th-century legislation, such as the Voting Rights Act of 1965 and the Civil Rights Act of 1964.

What are Rights?

Rights are fundamental normative rules about what is permitted of people or owed to people in accordance with some legal system, social custom, or ethical theory. Rights are therefore legal, social, or ethical principles of freedom or entitlement.

Congress has the authority to adopt corrective measures in order to enforce the Fourteenth Amendment's protections against state denials, such as allowing people who are being denied their civil rights in state courts to bring their cases before federal courts7 and establishing both criminal and civil liability.

Therefore, The Civil Rights Act of 1964, as well as the Voting Rights Act of 1965.

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Jenny is a 30-year old executive who was diagnosed with attention deficit hyperactivity disorder (ADHD) when she was in elementary school. Based on research, you would assume that
it is more likely than not that Jenny still shows symptoms of ADHD

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Behind the brain stem is where the cerebellum is situated. The cerebellum "fine-tunes" movement, which is controlled by the frontal brain Jenny.

This part of the brain controls balance, fine motor control, and the ability to recognize the posture of the limbs. People with antisocial personality disorder (ASPD) exhibit a lack of respect for others and disregard for socially acceptable norms and rules. People who have ASPD may breach the law or hurt those around them physically or emotionally. While the DSM focuses on visible symptoms, the latter are  Jenny unobservable. If both parents have schizophrenia diagnoses, the risk increases to 50%; if an identical twin has schizophrenia diagnoses, the risk ranges from 40% to 65%. Prefrontal cortex is a word used to to the frontal lobe of the brain, which is situated above and behind the eyes and behind the forehead. By foreseeing the effects of our actions and inhibiting behaviors, it appears to play a crucial part in the regulation of emotion and behavior.

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Which of the following is most likely to increase your connection with your audience and help you control nervousness?
a. moving around the space
b. your appearance
c. direct eye contact
d. good posture

Answers

Direct eye contact  is most likely to increase your connection with your audience and help you control nervousness. Hence, option C is correct.

What is nervousness?

the feeling of being slightly alarmed or worried: Concern about what the future may contain is present.

Her job interview is making her anxious. I'm becoming anxious after waiting all this time. He looked at the time anxiously. His anxious mother often worries that he'll suffer a tragic fate.

An individual's response to stress is unique, and it has an internal source. A "persistent feeling of dread or concern" in circumstances that are not genuinely dangerous is a common feature of anxiety. In contrast to stress, anxiety lingers even after a worry has subsided.

Thus, option C is correct.

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Neuroimaging techniques such as magnetic resonance imaging and positron emission tomography have provided evidence that problems in the __________ may contribute to the delusions experienced by those with schizophrenia.
ventral striatum

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Neuroimaging techniques such as magnetic resonance imaging and positron emission tomography have provided evidence that problems in the ventral striatum may contribute to the delusions experienced by those with schizophrenia.

In the field of science, schizophrenia can be described as a mental disorder in which a person believes such things to be true that are far away from reality.

The ventral striatum is the part of the brain that has a majority of neuronal connections and the functions of all these neuronal connections have been difficult to study due to their complexity. However, emerging neuroimaging techniques have shown that this region of the brain contributes to the far-from-reality thoughts, delusions, and hallucinations of a person that has schizophrenia. Magnetic resonance imaging has shown that regions in the ventral striatum are illuminated when a schizophrenic patient is perceiving a delusion.

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according to the supreme court in bowers v hardwick, homosexual relations between consenting adults in the privacy of their own homes

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The Supreme Court in Bowers V. Hardwick held that, under the Constitution, homosexual relations between consenting adults within the privacy of their homes do not have the same rights as others to engage in private, consensual homosexual sodomy.

Since, the Supreme Court found that this right was not protected by the Constitution, because it does not confer a fundamental right to homosexuals to participate in sodomy. Furthermore, the Court reasoned that the right to privacy does not protect a consensual, private homosexual act from state regulation.

What is private and consensual homosexual sodomy?

Is a sexual activity that is becoming more accepted and commonplace in many parts of the world. This type of activity is protected by many laws in many countries, giving individuals the right to express their sexuality in private without fear of discrimination or legal repercussions.

Many countries have also taken steps to ensure that same-sex couples have access to the same rights and benefits as heterosexual couples, including the ability to enter into civil unions or marriages. While many people still view homosexual activity as immoral or sinful, it is becoming more and more accepted in societies that have become more open and tolerant of individuals with different sexual orientations.

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The administrator can require which of the following regarding federal covered securities offered in a state? i notice filing for the issue in the state ii registration of the issue in the state iii filing of documents relating to the issue in the state iv payment of a filing fee in the state

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Option (i), (iii) and (iv) are correct. The administrator can require notice filing for the issue in the state, filing of documents relating to the issue in the state, payment of a filing fee in the state regarding federal covered securities offered in a state.

The National Securities Markets Improvement Act of 1996 and the Jumpstart our Business Startups Act made substantial changes to state regulation of securities offerings, including a preemption of states' authority to register most securities offerings. With respect to four classes of "covered securities," concurrent registration at the state level is no longer required.

States are also precluded from imposing any conditions on the use of any offering document prepared by or on behalf of the issuer of the covered securities. The four classes of securities identified by NSMIA as covered securities are: federally registered mutual fund shares; national exchange-listed securities; exempt securities based on offers and sales to qualified purchasers; and exempt securities based on certain transactional exemptions under the Securities Act of 1933.

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Ten-year-old Patrick has very high reading and math test scores in fifth grade. According to the text, Patrick's scores in these areas will MOST likely _____ in seventh grade.

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Patrick, ten, scored quite well on math and reading assessments in the fifth grade. The text indicates that Patrick's performance in these areas will MOST LIKELY remain unchanged in seventh grade.

Which of the following statements about middle-school-aged children's information processing ability is true?

Children who are concrete operators can focus on several facets of an issue at once, allowing them to save both number and volume.

Which of the following describes an antisocial behavior protective factor?

IQ is the neuropsychological characteristic that has been most successfully repeated as a deterrent to antisocial conduct, and it appears to have both indirect and direct protective effects.

Which theories of cognitive development explain how enhancing motor abilities might enhance cognitive capacity?

According to the Piagetian viewpoint, newborns discover the world largely through their senses and motor skills throughout this period (Harris, 2005). The basis for the cognitive capabilities that will emerge during the following stages of cognitive development is provided by these fundamental motor and sensory abilities.

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Tony wakes up on a cot in a homeless shelter in another town. He doesn't know where he is or how he got there, and he's confused when people say he has been calling himself Michael. This is most likely an episode of dissociativeamnesia with fugue.

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This is most likely an episode of amnesia with fugue.

A fugue is a temporary state where a person has a loss of memory (amnesia) and ends up in an unexpected place. People with this sign cannot remember who they are or details about their past. Other names for this include "fugue" or "fugue state."

The term "fugue" derives from the Latin word which means for fleeing or running away. People who experience a fugue state can't recognize their memory until they have evidence that they can't remember something. People with this symptom can not intentionally travel to specific locations or wander. Often,  when they come out of the fugue state, they feel confused because they don't remember how they got to where they are.

Fugue states can be as short as a few hours, or they can last for days or months. When the fugue state is shorter, it is difficult for others to see the signs of them, because people who have this may seem like they are late or absent from their comings and goings. When the fugue state is longer, people may find themselves distant from their immediate surroundings. They may try to adopt a new identity and create a new life for themselves, which can last until they remember.

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Companies that plan to implement skills and capabilities. A) product stewardship B) a new clean technology C) pollution prevention D) a sustainability vision E) a DFE practice

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Companies that plan to implement skills and capabilities have D)  a sustainability vision.

In the field of business, a sustainability vision can be described as the strategy or vision of a company to stay long in a particular business and develop its skills and capabilities based on the sustainability vision.

Hence, companies that tend to enhance skills so that they can stay longer in a business and build capabilities based on the requirements of a market are known to have a sustainability vision to stay long in the market for business. A sustainability vision is a long-sustaining vision of a market organization. Better skills and enhanced capabilities are the strategies that need to be improved for staying longer in business and sustaining it.

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factors contribute to job satisfaction; factors prevent job dissatisfaction.

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According to the two-factor theory, several factors might affect how motivated and content a person is. There are two components: (Affective/Hygiene) Happiness at work Workplace unhappiness (motivational).

What exactly does the term "work satisfaction" mean?

The level of enjoyment employees experience at work is referred to as job satisfaction. This includes their relationships with coworkers and supervisors, their opinions of the company's rules, and how, in addition to their regular responsibilities, their work influences their personal lives.

What are Herzberg's two factors and their two components?

A person's level of motivation and contentment are influenced by a number of factors, which are described by the two-factor theory. The two components are as follows: Affective and physical well-being at work work-related discontent (motivational).

Employee satisfaction, in Frederick Herzberg's opinion, is made up of two factors: "hygiene" and "motivation." Pay and supervision are two hygienic elements that lower employee dissatisfaction with the workplace. When they are driven by things like success and recognition, they are more devoted, effective, and innovative.

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Which of the following refers to the seven-day period in traditional Judaism in which mourners sit together as a group for an extended period and have an opportunity to project their feelings to the group as a whole?
shivah

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The seven-day period in traditional Judaism in which mourners sit together as a group for an extended period and have an opportunity to project their feelings to the group as a whole is known as Shivah. (Option A)

In Judaism, shivah refers to the period of seven days of prescribed mourning that commence immediately after the burial of a first-degree relatives such as a parent, child, spouse, or sibling. It generally involves mourners sitting together as a group and sharing their feelings of loss over the deceased.

The traditional practices in shivah requires mourners to stay at the home of the deceased, sit on floors or low stools, avoid wearing new garments or leather footwear, and cover all mirrors, Additionally, the mourners may not cut their hair or shave, may not take part in ordinary business, and may not engage in marital relations. Friends and relatives visit the mourners to express their sympathy. Mourners may burn a seven-day candle in memory of the departed. Actual observance, especially among Reform Jews, varies considerably.

Note: The question is incomplete as it is missing options which are A. shivah B. sheloshim C. aninut D. shabat

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Germany takes internet security very seriously, all information technology (it) and telecommunications operators must ensure the use of state-of-the-art security measures. Tru or False

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Germany takes internet security very seriously, and all telecommunications and information technology (IT) providers are required to adopt cutting-edge security measures. True

What is the work of telecommunications?

They are in charge of developing and installing the telecommunications equipment & guaranteeing the high-quality of the data transferred via wired or wireless communication. Radio, television, satellite, computer networks, the internet, or optical fiber are all examples of telecom engineering.

What are some instances of communications?

Using electrical impulses or electromagnetic radiation, telecommunication is distance communication. The telephone network, radio broadcasting network, computer networks, and the Internet are a few examples of telecommunications systems.

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A woman is sitting on a bench. She is sweating profusely, is short of breath, has numbness in her feet and hands, and feels as though she is dying. The woman is most likely experiencing
a panic attack

Answers

The symptoms of the woman who is short of breath, has numbness in her feet and hands, and feels as if she is dying corresponds to those of a panic attack.

What is a panic attack?

It corresponds to a mental and emotional trigger that an individual develops as a response to some internal or external condition or experience, and leads him to develop a deep and generalized anxiety that turns into exacerbated physical symptoms, such as:

TachycardiaSweatingStressNumbness in the limbsDelusions

This condition usually develops after a traumatic experience or triggers that lead to excessive worry and fear.

Therefore, it is essential that doctors and psychologists follow up to identify the best treatment and control of panic attacks, so that the individual has greater knowledge of the causes that led to the crises and increases his self-control over such a situation.

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during a special meeting of shareholders at which a quorum is present, action may always be taken by the shareholders on:

Answers

During a special meeting of Shareholders at which a quorum is present, action may always be taken by the shareholders based on a majority.

A shareholder quorum is necessary for a commercial meeting to be valid. Without a quorum, the meeting would have no effect.

A quorum is a minimal number of members of a deliberative assembly( a body that uses administrative procedure, similar to a council) necessary to conduct the business of that group.

By dereliction, a quorum is still measured as four members. Business mustn't be conducted at a periodic or special general meeting unless a quorum is present.

For a shareholders' meeting, the presence of at least 10 percent of the shareholders( shareholders holding 10 percent of the shares) is needed. A 75- percent maturity vote is needed.

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According to a study of long-term happy marriages, which of the factors below was NOT mentioned as an element of those marriages?

Answers

D) Religion is an assortment of social frameworks, conviction frameworks, and perspectives that relate mankind to otherworldliness and, at times, to virtues.

The purpose of many religious narratives, symbols, traditions, and sacred histories is to provide life with meaning or to explain how life or the universe came to be.

What are strict convictions models?the belief that you should wear a cross as a sign of your faith, held by some Christians.the Islamic belief that a woman should cover her entire body or just her head.the belief in intelligent design or creationism.

What are the fundamental beliefs of religion?

Rajaei (1) mentioned the following three fundamental religious beliefs: Existence, God, and the human being (both oneself and others). Rejaei and others (23) found that basic religious beliefs have a positive relationship with overall health and a negative relationship with identity crisis in one study.

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Full Question = Chapter 5 cites a study of long-term happy marriages. Which of the factors below was NOT mentioned as an element of those marriages?

A. Positive distortion

B. Stubbornness

C. Unconditional acceptance

D. Religious beliefs

FILL IN THE BLANK. __________ _____________ consists of actions and measures that inhibit the emergence of risk factors in the form of environmental, economic, social, and behavioral conditions and cultural patterns of living, etc.

Answers

Primordial prevention refers to actions and measures that prevent the emergence of risk factors like environmental, financial, social, and behavioral conditions, as well as cultural patterns of living, and so on.

What does environment mean?

The collection of things, circumstances, or influences in the immediate vicinity; surroundings; milieu 2. the atmosphere, water, mineral deposits, organisms, and any other environmental events that surround and affect a specific organism at any given time.

What is the environmental significance?

The environment is critical to healthy lifestyles and the survival of life on Earth. The Earth is indeed a home for various living species, and we are all dependent on it for food, air, moisture, and other necessities. As a result, it is critical for each person to save and defend our environment.

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compare and contrast stravinsky's the rite of spring as a depiction, in music and dance, of primitive tribal rituals, with the information on medieval religious services in the monastery and cathedral found in chapter 4. which one of the following comparative evaluations is faulty?

Answers

The improper comparable evaluation is Option d). Igor Stravinsky and Josquin Desprez both chose folk songs because they are simple to interpret and have danceable rhythms. In the medieval cathedral or convent, women were not permitted to dance, so Stravinsky resorted to ballet.

Numerous avant-garde elements, such as experiments with tonality, metre, rhythm, stress, and dissonance, may be found in Stravinsky's score. Analysts have recognized a strong foundation in Russian folk music in the score, a connection Stravinsky sought to downplay. Under the woodwind melody in Spring Rounds, a strong bow ostinato that alternates with offbeat pizzicato (plucked strings) is used (0:23).

Each measure in Stravinsky's rhythmic vocabulary appears in the Glorification of the Chosen One and the Sacrificial Dance. Despite the fact that he produced works of art in nearly every genre, he is most remembered for the ballet music he wrote for Diaghilev's Ballet Russes, including The Firebird, Petrushka, and The Rite of Spring, the premiere of which memorably resulted in a riot.

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Correct Question:

Compare and contrast Stravinsky's The Rite of Spring as a depiction, in music and dance, of primitive tribal rituals, with the information on medieval religious services in the monastery and cathedral found in Chapters 4 and 5. Which one of the following comparative evaluations is INCORRECT?

a. Hildegard of Bingen thought of herself as a mere vessel through which divine revelation passed; she described herself as "a feather floating on the breath of God." Similarly, Stravinsky said, "I am the vessel though which The Rite of Spring passed." Both composers saw their music as something bestowed from a higher source.

b. Hildegard of Bingen, by composing chant that avoids a regular meter and catchy rhythms, attempts to create  a ritual experience that allows the listener to enter an almost otherworldly state. Stravinsky, using pounding, syncopated rhythms, tries to create a nother kind of ritual experience, in which the listener is almost assaulted by the rites of an early pagan religion.

c. Monophonic chant, with flowing melodic lines and fluid rhythm, could create  a timeless and meditative atmosphere in a medieval chapel or cathedral, especially when sound waves reverberated off the bare stone church walls, creating a rich sonic environment. Stravinsky's The Rite of Spring, using the pounding of dancers' feet on a stage or on an arena floor, could cause the entire space to reverberate with rhythmic energy. In sum, in both cases the acoustic ambiance of a place of performance is as much a part of the performance as the music itself.

d. Folksongs were used by Josquin Desprez and Igor Stravinsky because the words of folksongs are easy to understand and the rhythms are easy to dance to. Women were not allowed to dance in the medieval cathedral or convent, so Stravinsky turned to ballet.

the black lines in the figure show the natural migratory routes of starlings from their breeding range to their wintering range. during their migration, some starlings were transported to switzerland (green arrow) and released. the blue arrow shows the subsequent migratory route of older birds that were more experienced with the journey, while the red arrows show the subsequent routes of inexperienced young birds. what statement regarding this experiment is most accurate?

Answers

Red arrows denote the future migration paths of young, inexperienced birds, whereas blue arrows denote the subsequent migration routes of older, more experienced birds. In this experiment, novice birds fly exclusively by approach, whereas seasoned birds fly by navigation. The most precise answer is this.

Common or European starlings usually travel from their summer breeding areas in the north to the UK, central Europe, the Mediterranean, the Middle East, Iberia, and North Africa.

A short-distance migrant resident. Many juvenile birds migrate south during the winter months along coastal plains or down river valleys since adult birds live north of 40 degrees. While some birds migrate to northern Mexico and the Lesser Antilles for the winter, the majority stay in North America.

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Which of the following is one of the diagnostic criteria for anorexia nervosa? Multiple Choice Extreme dietary réstriction that leads to significantly low body weight Body mass index below 17.5 kg/m2 Use of unsafe means of preventing weight gain (e.g., self-induced vomiting) at least one time per week for at least 3 months Significantly low heart rate, measured on two separate occasions

Answers

Extreme dietary restriction that leads to significantly low body weight is a diagnostic criteria for Anorexia nervosa.

What is Anorexia nervosa?

The eating disorder anorexia nervosa, also known as  "anorexia," is characterized by an abnormally low body weight, a strong fear of gaining weight, and a skewed sense of weight. Anorexics put great emphasis on maintaining their weight and physical appearance, often by making excessive attempts that seriously disrupt their lives.

People with anorexia severely restrict their food intake in order to avoid gaining weight or to keep losing weight. By vomiting after eating, or by abusing laxatives, diet supplements, diuretics, they can reduce their calorie intake. They might also make an effort to lose weight by exercising excessively . No matter how much weight is removed, the person's anxiety of weight gain never goes away.

Therefore, Anorexia nervosa can be diagnosed when  a person have extreme dietary restriction that leads to significantly low body.

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which of the following phrases was not part of the various attempts to define public relations over a period of 30 years by edward l. bernays?

Answers

A secret press bureau was not part of the various attempts to define public relations

Public relations is a discipline that involves the management of the communication between an organization and its various stakeholders, with the intent of building and maintaining a positive reputation.  A secret press bureau is not a term commonly associated with the field of public relations.

A secret press bureau, on the other hand, is a term that is sometimes used to describe an organization that engages in propaganda or disinformation. This type of organization may use secret or covert methods to manipulate public opinion or promote a particular agenda. It is not typically considered to be a part of the public relations field.

Complete Question

Which of the following phrases was not part of the various attempts to define public relations over a period of 30 years by Edward L. Bernays?

a secret press bureau

to engineer public support

giving a client ethical advice

information, persuasion, and adjustment

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ta-nehisi was walking back to his dorm after studying until midnight. when a car slowed down and began to trail him, he began to feel fear. he broke into a sweat and began to breath faster. his heart began to pound. he quickened his pace and thought of a different, safer route home. according to dr gewirtz's definition, in this incident, the autonomic aspect of ta-nehisi's emotional response was The choices for this question are; a. quickening his pace
b. feeling fear
c. sweating, shortness of breath and his pounding heart.
d. finding a different, safer route home

Answers

Based on the given information, according to Dr. Gewirtz's definition the autonomic response of emotion was sweating, shortness of breath and his pounding heart. (Option C)

Dr. Gewirtz defines emotion as a state, elicited by a strongly motivational event or by anticipation of such an event, that produces a coordinated set of adaptive responses. Emotion responses have three aspects: feelings, autonomic responses, and somatic responses. Feelings are introspective and subjective, autonomic responses are sympathetic activation and hormonal, and somatic responses are facial expressions, approach or avoidance. In automatic response, the autonomic nervous system (sympathetic and parasympathetic) regulates the visceral activities which controls involuntary functions mediated by the activity of smooth muscle fibers, cardiac muscle fibers, and glands. Hence, the automatic response in the given situation is sweating, shortness of breath and pounding of heart.

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liza hates stepping outside her house because she fears humiliation and embarrassment in the presence of strangers. she is very self-conscious about her appearance and behavior. which of the following psychological disorders does Liza suffer from
a. ocd
b. bipolar disorder
c. ptsd
d. social anxiety disorderd

Answers

Liza suffers from a psychological disorder called:

d) social anxiety disorder.

What is a social anxiety disorder?

a persistent mental illness in which being among people makes one feel irrationally anxious.

Everyday social encounters result in illogical worry, dread, self-consciousness, and shame for those with social anxiety disorder.

Excessive dread of being judged, worry about being humiliated or embarrassed, and worry about offending someone are a few symptoms that might occur.

Increased confidence and improved social skills can be achieved with the use of talk therapy and antidepressants.

psychological signs like:

Fear of encounters when you could be evaluatedFearing that you'll make a fool of yourself and humiliate yourselfcrippling anxiety while connecting with new peopleavoiding situations or interactions where one could attract attentionfollowing a social contact, seeking to identify weaknesses in one's interactionsFear of upsetting others

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since 2008, a series of initiatives have been passed that appear to have strengthened the legislative process and reduced gridlock. match each of these propositions with its main feature.

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Legislative is having the power or performing the function of legislating.

Prop 28: Reduced the term limits in the legislative from 14 to 12 years.Prop 11: Took redistricting of the state legislature away from the legislature and put it in the hands of the newly created Citizens' Redistricting Commission.Prop 55: Extended Prop 30's income tax increases for 12 years.Prop 20: Extended the jurisdiction of the Citizens' Redistricting Commission to congressional districts.

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Increasing web traffic and gaining customer insights are examples of what kind of goals?

Answers

Answer:

Increasing web traffic and gaining customer insights are examples of marketing goals.

Explanation:

Marketing is the process of identifying and promoting products or services that meet the needs and desires of a target audience. In order to be effective, marketing efforts must be aligned with the overall goals and objectives of a business. Increasing web traffic and gaining customer insights are two examples of goals that can help a business achieve its marketing objectives. Increasing web traffic can help a business reach a wider audience and gain more customers while gaining customer insights can help a business understand the needs and preferences of its target market and tailor its marketing efforts accordingly.

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