which of the following lies under the skin covering the lateral and posterior surfaces of the mandible?

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Answer 1

The lateral and posterior surfaces of the mandible are covered in parotid salivary glands that are located beneath the skin.

On each side of the face, directly in front of the ears, are the parotid glands, which produce saliva. To help in chewing and digestion, salivary glands create saliva. The lips, cheeks, mouth, and throat all include salivary glands. Major salivary glands called parotid glands are found just in front of and beneath each ear. Our parotid glands generate saliva (spit), similar to our other major salivary glands (submandibular and sublingual), to keep our mouth moist and to help with eating and digestion. Salivary glands called parotids, which are situated between the ear and the jaw, become painfully swollen when we have parotitis. A virus, like the mumps, herpes, or Epstein-Barr, is the most frequent cause. Parotitis can also be brought on by bacterial infections, diabetes, salivary gland tumors or stones, and dental issues.

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Related Questions

Where do I find motor tracks in the spine? (Posterior or Anterior)?

Answers

Answer:

Anterior

Explanation:

Motor tracks in the spine can be found in the anterior (front) portion of the spinal cord. The spinal cord is a long, slender bundle of nerve tissue that extends from the base of the brain down through the spinal column. It is divided into two main regions: the posterior (back) region, which contains sensory neurons that carry information about sensation from the body to the brain, and the anterior (front) region, which contains motor neurons that carry information from the brain to the muscles and other organs in the body.

The motor tracks in the spinal cord are located in the anterior region, along with the sensory tracks that carry information from the body to the brain. These tracks are organized into columns of neurons called tracts, which are grouped according to the type of information they carry and the areas of the body they serve. Motor tracts carry information from the brain to the muscles and other organs, controlling movements and other functions.

Overall, motor tracks in the spine can be found in the anterior portion of the spinal cord, along with the sensory tracks that carry information from the body to the brain. These tracks are essential for controlling movements and other functions in the body.

More than 30% of water evaporates before permeating the soil, and another high percentage of the remaining water runs off the intended site onto sidewalks or streets. True or False?

Answers

Before penetrating the soil, more than 30% of sprayed water evaporates, and a significant portion of the remaining water flows off the intended site onto sidewalks or roadways.

Liquids vaporize, right?

Evaporation transforms liquid water into gaseous water (water vapor). Water travels from the Earth's surface to the atmosphere via evaporation. Evaporation results from the dissolution of the bonds holding the water molecules together as a result of heat energy.

What materials vaporize?

Evaporation happens when anything transforms from a liquid to a gas. When heated, water evaporation occurs. The vibrations and rapid movement of the molecules cause water vapor molecules to be released into the atmosphere.

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Which of the following statements about aging is true?
The way in which you age is completely dictated by your lifestyle.
Signs of aging may include changes in your skin, height, muscle mass, bones and organ function.
All of these statements are correct.
As a woman ages, she enters andropause and can no longer reproduce.

Answers

Statements about aging is true is option A.  Signs of aging may include changes in your skin, height, muscle mass, bones and organ function.

Throughout this third step of urine formation, urine filters into the ureters and in the long run to the urinary bladder for garage. To keep the frame's acid-base stability, substances pass from the blood in the peritubular capillaries into nephron tubules.

However, with aging, the sensitivity of the hypothalamus to feedback regulators starts offevolved to decline. This consequences in a revolutionary loss of homeostasis and in the end, disruption of appropriate hormone production and an lack of ability of the hypothalamus to accurately regulate its target tissues.

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Which of the following statements about the retina's operation across different levels of ambient light is true?
For a given level of ambient light, an on-center ganglion cell respond's proportionately to a small spot of light over an intensity range of about one log unit.
Via adaptational mechanisms, on-center ganglion cells can dynamically encode brightness levels in their on-center over a range of 6 log units of ambient light levels.
Ganglion cells generally do not report absolute light intensities, but rather encode relative intensity differences between center and surround.
Interactions within the outer plexiform layer play an important role in modulating the photic sensitivity of ganglion cells.
All of the above
All of the above
Textbook Reference: Contribution of Retinal Circuits to Light Adaptation, pp. 253-255

Answers

The operating statement for the retina at various light levels above is E. All of the above

The eye is the sense of sight that provides us with visual information. The eye sees an object through light that is captured by the cornea which is then received by the retina.

In the retina there are nerve cells that are sensitive to light. Retinal stem cells function to see dim light, rod cells see bright light and color. Retinal ganglion cells will cover messages from rod cells and cone cells and then send information to the brain via the optic nerve. The brain will respond to the impulses given and translate them into images.

The retina has operations at various light levels which are as follows:

For a given level of ambient light, the central ganglion cells respond proportionally to a small point of light over a range of about one log unit intensity. Through an adaptation mechanism, the ganglion cells in the center can dynamically encode the brightness level in the center in the range of 6 log units of ambient light level. Ganglion cells generally do not report absolute light intensity, but instead encode the difference in relative intensity between center and surroundings. Interactions in the outer plexiform layer play an important role in modulating the photic sensitivity of ganglion cells.

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Explain how the fish blastula is able to go from a ball of simple cells to a complex fish with many organs and parts. Be specific and use important vocabulary.

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The process by which a fish blastula (a ball of simple cells) develops into a complex fish with many organs and parts is called embryonic development. This process is controlled by a complex series of genetic and cellular processes that result in the differentiation of the blastula cells into the various cell types and tissues that make up a fish.

During embryonic development, the cells of the blastula begin to differentiate into two main cell types: the epiblast and the hypoblast. The epiblast cells give rise to the ectoderm, which forms the outer layer of the developing fish, and the hypoblast cells give rise to the endoderm, which forms the inner layer.

As development continues, the cells in the ectoderm and endoderm begin to differentiate further into the various tissues and organs of the fish. For example, the ectoderm gives rise to the skin, nervous system, and sensory organs, while the endoderm gives rise to the digestive system and respiratory organs.

In addition to this process of cell differentiation, embryonic development also involves the growth and specialization of cells and tissues through a process called morphogenesis. This process results in the formation of the various structures and organs of the fish, such as the heart, liver, and kidneys.

Overall, embryonic development is a complex and dynamic process that involves the coordination of many different genetic and cellular processes. Through this process, the simple cells of the fish blastula are transformed into a complex and highly organized organism with many specialized organs and parts.

Source:

opentextbc

Explanation:

The fish blastula is able to go from a ball of simple cells to a complex fish with many organs and parts through the process of embryonic development.

During embryonic development, the cells of the blastula undergo a series of changes that allow them to differentiate into the various tissues and organs of the adult fish. This process is controlled by a complex network of genes and regulatory molecules, which direct the cells to take on specific roles and functions.

One of the key steps in this process is called gastrulation, which occurs during the early stages of embryonic development. During gastrulation, the cells of the blastula begin to rearrange themselves, forming a two-layered structure called the gastrula. The outer layer of cells, called the ectoderm, will eventually give rise to the skin, nervous system, and other tissues. The inner layer of cells, called the endoderm, will give rise to the digestive system and other internal organs.

After gastrulation, the cells of the ectoderm and endoderm continue to differentiate and specialize, forming the various tissues and organs of the adult fish. This process is called organogenesis, and it involves the coordinated growth and development of the different cell types.

Overall, the fish blastula is able to go from a ball of simple cells to a complex fish with many organs and parts through the process of embryonic development. This process involves the coordinated growth and differentiation of the cells of the blastula, leading to the formation of the various tissues and organs of the adult fish.

Which of these is a criticism of the common core?
A. over-emphasis on fiction texts
b. over-emphasis on basic concepts
c. over-emphasis on advanced concepts
d. over-emphasis on nonfiction texts

Answers

Answer:

option d is the correct answer

A carboxylase reaction by rubisco consumes ______ ATP, and an oxygenase reaction consumes ______ ATP.

Answers

A carboxylase reaction by rubisco consumes 0 ATP, and an oxygenase reaction consumes 1/2 ATP.

Which reagent is used in carboxylation reaction?

This process starts by converting an electrophilic halide into a highly nucleophilic Grignard reagent. The halomagnesium succinate salt of a carboxylic acid is produced when the Grignard reagent is added to carbon dioxide (an electrophileC=O. )'s bond.

Why is the enzyme pyruvate carboxylase significant?

A multisubunit enzyme called pyruvate carboxylase uses acetyl CoA as either an adrenoceptor regulator. Since it replaces the citrate cycle stages (malate or citrate) who leave the cells as part of metabolic activities, the enzyme is essential for both glycolysis and the synthesis of fatty acids.

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Which of the following could be elements of cytoarchitecture, as related to Brodmann’s microscopic studies of the cerebral cortex? a. connections to the cerebellum b. activation by visual stimuli c. number of neurons per square millimeter d. number of gyri or sulci

Answers

According to Brodmann's, cerebral cortex elements is c)number of neurons per square millimeter. So, correct option is c.

The cerebral cortex, otherwise called the cerebral mantle, is the external layer of brain tissue of the frontal cortex of the cerebrum in people and different warm blooded animals. The cerebral cortex generally comprises of the six-layered neurons, with simply 10% comprising of allocortex. It is isolated into two cortices, by the longitudinal gap that separates the frontal cortex into the left and right cerebral sides of the equator.

The two halves of the globe are joined underneath the cortex by the corpus callosum. The cerebral cortex is the biggest site of brain coordination in the focal anxious system. It assumes a critical part in consideration, discernment, mindfulness, thought, memory, language, and cognizance. The cerebral cortex is essential for the cerebrum answerable for perception.

Hence, correct option is c.

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complete the paragraph on sense of smell by clicking and dragging the labels to the correct location. (some labels will not be used.)

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In order to detect an odor, molecules must first dissolve in the mucus before they bind to the receptor sites of the olfactory system. When receptor cells temporarily bind to an odorant molecule, it results in a(n) action Potential over the olfactory neurons passing through the-foramina of the cribrifom plate and nerve fibers in the olfactory Bulb. Eventually the impulses arrive at interpreting centers located deep within the frontal lobes and the inferior Temporal lobes of the cerebrum.

Mucus is produced by the membranes in the nose and sinuses, and its main function is to trap bacteria, viruses, and allergens such as dust or pollen in the nose and prevent them from spreading it in body and result in making you sick. Eventually, the stool, and its contents, will go into the stomach and out of the body.

olfactory system, the body system that provides the sense of smell. The system consists of the nostrils and the nasal passages, which in their upper parts support the olfactory mucosa for smell perception and in their lower parts they act as respiratory passages.

The human skull has openings (foramina), through which cranial nerves, arteries, veins, and other structures pass. These foramina vary from size to size and from number to number, with age.

The cribriform plate is a part of the ethmoid bone located at the base of the skull. The base of the skull is the term used to describe the smallest part of the skull. It consists of parts of the frontal bone, ethmoid bone, sphenoid bone, temporal bone, and occipital bone.

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Complete question:

complete the paragraph on sense of smell by clicking and dragging the labels to the correct location (given in image) (some labels will not be used.)

Hormones can be divided into different groups based on their chemistry. These categories includeA) steroids.B) amino acid derivatives.C) peptides.D) eicosanoids.E) All of the answers are correct.

Answers

The solutions are all accurate. , Based on their chemical, hormones can be classified into many classes. These groups include eicosanoids, peptides, amino acid derivatives, and steroids.

What are the three groups into which hormones fall?

Despite the fact that there are several distinct hormones in the human body, they can be categorized into three groups based on their chemical makeup: hormones made from peptides, amino acids, and lipids

What number of primary hormone kinds are there?

Over 50 hormones in the human body have so far been found by scientists. Your endocrine system is composed primarily of the glands and tissues that produce and secrete hormones. Hormones regulate a wide range of physiological functions, including: Metabolism.

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scientists discovered that the difference between blond and dark hair in humans and other mammals comes down in part to a single nucleotide difference in the dna sequence of an enhancer that lies more than 350,000 base pairs upstream from the coding region of the gene it controls. on average, blonds transcribe this gene less efficiently than people with dark hair. which of the following statements about this blond/dark hair enhancer is correct?

Answers

DNA looping could bring the enhancer bound by an activator physically close to the promoter even if the enhancer is a huge distance away along the DNA molecule.

Deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA) is a polymer made up of two polynucleotide chains that coil around one another to form a double helix. The polymer contains genetic instructions for all known organisms and viruses' development, functioning, growth, and reproduction. Nucleic acids include DNA and ribonucleic acid.

During reproduction, DNA and the instructions it contains are passed from adult organisms to their offspring. DNA now serves three distinct functions: genetics, immunology, and structure, all of which rely on the sugar phosphate backbone and bases in different ways. DNA is composed of nucleotide molecules. Each nucleotide contains a sugar, phosphate, and nitrogen base group.

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select all of the following that provide evidence that modern species have evolved from prior species. a. molecular biology b. biogeography c. biogeography d. comparative anatomy e. the fossil record

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Molecular biology, biogeography, comparative anatomy, and the fossil record all provide evidence for common descent, and that modern species have evolved from prior species. By studying these sources, one can gain a better understanding of the evolutionary process, and how species have changed over time.

Molecular biology provides evidence for common descent by comparing the genetic sequences of different species. Genetic sequences are like fingerprints that are unique to each species, and by comparing the genetic sequences of two species, one can determine how closely related the two species are. For example, if two species have similar genetic sequences, then it is likely that the two species are closely related, and are descended from a common ancestor.

Biogeography is the study of the geographic distribution of species. By looking at the geographic distribution of species, one can infer how the species might have evolved from their ancestors. For example, if two species are found in the same geographic area, then it is likely that the two species are related, and descended from a common ancestor.

Comparative anatomy is the study of the anatomy of different species. By comparing the anatomy of different species, one can determine how closely related they are. For example, if two species have similar anatomical features, then it is likely that the two species are closely related, and are descended from a common ancestor.

The fossil record provides evidence for common descent by looking at the transition of species over time. Fossilized remains provide a snapshot of the evolution of species over time, and by looking at the transition of species over time, one can infer how one species evolved into another.

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Match the major events of meiosis with the stage in which the events occur. Answers may be used more than once.
1.Homologous chromosomes are held together by the synaptonemal complex in synapsis
2.Two haploid daughter cells form, each having duplicated chromosomes
3.Nuclear envelope re-forms around the chromosomes
4.Tetrads align at the metaphase plate
5.Duplicated chromosomes separate at the centromere
6.Four haploid daughter cells form, each with a set of unduplicated chromosomes
7.The centrosome has duplicated in preparation for meiosis
8.Non-sister chromatids exchange genetic information during crossing over
9.Division of the cytoplasm occurs
10.Homologous chromosomes separate and move toward opposite poles
11.Duplicated chromosomes are aligned at the metaphase plate
12.Daughter (Unduplicated) chromosomes are moved to opposite poles
13.The nuclear envelope breaks down
14.Chromosomes are not yet visible; DNA is in its long, stringy, uncoiled state
A. Metaphase II B. Gap phase 2 C. Prophase I and Prophase II D. Telophase I and Cytokinesis E. Telophase I/II and Cytokinesis F. Prophase I and Prophase II G. Telophase II and Cytokinesis H. Metaphase I I. Prophase I J. Anaphase I K. Anaphase II
Place letter in appropriate event. Thanks

Answers

Major events of meiosis with the stage in which the events occur:

1.Homologous chromosomes are held together by the synaptonemal complex in synapsis - I. Prophase I

2.Two haploid daughter cells form, each having duplicated chromosomes - D. Telophase I and Cytokinesis

3.Nuclear envelope re-forms around the chromosomes - E. Telophase I/II and Cytokinesis

4.Tetrads align at the metaphase plate - H. Metaphase I

5.Duplicated chromosomes separate at the centromere - K. Anaphase II

6.Four haploid daughter cells form, each with a set of unduplicated chromosomes - G. Telophase II and Cytokinesis

7.The centrosome has duplicated in preparation for meiosis - B. Gap phase 2

8.Non-sister chromatids exchange genetic information during crossing over - I. Prophase I

9.Division of the cytoplasm occurs - E. Telophase I/II and Cytokinesis

10.Homologous chromosomes separate and move toward opposite poles - K. Anaphase II

11.Duplicated chromosomes are aligned at the metaphase plate - H. Metaphase I

12.Daughter (Unduplicated) chromosomes are moved to opposite poles - J. Anaphase I

13.The nuclear envelope breaks down - C. Prophase I and Prophase II

14.Chromosomes are not yet visible; DNA is in its long, stringy, uncoiled state - F. Prophase I and Prophase II

What is cell cycle?

A cell's growth and division are accompanied by a sequence of processes known as the cell cycle. A cell spends the majority of its time in what is known as interphase, where it develops, duplicates its chromosomes, and gets ready to divide. The cell then exits interphase, goes through mitosis, and finishes dividing.

Why is cell cycle important?

The primary purpose of the cell cycle is to accurately divide the enormous amount of DNA found in the chromosomes into two daughter cells that are genetically identical.

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For the following sequences, construct the phylogenetic tree that best depicts their evolutionary relationships (assume that these sequences are aligned).
Taxon 1: GTTCCCTA
Taxon 2: GTTCGCTA
Taxon 3: GATAGCCA
Taxon 4: GTTCGCTA

Answers

Below image is the phylogenetic tree for the four sequences.

A phylogenetic tree is a branching diagram or a tree that depicts the evolutionary relationships among different biological species or other entities based on similarities and differences in their physical or genetic traits. It is also known as an evolutionary tree or phylogeny. A single phylogenetic tree that represents the common ancestry of all life on Earth.

Each node in a rooted phylogenetic tree reflects the inferred most recent common ancestor of each descendant, and in some trees, the edge lengths can be interpreted as time estimates. The term "taxonomic unit" refers to each node. Due to their inability to be physically observed, internal nodes are typically referred to as hypothetical taxonomic units.

In biological disciplines like bioinformatics, systematics, and phylogenetics, trees are helpful. Unrooted trees don't require knowledge of or inference from the ancestral root; they just show how the leaf nodes are linked.

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the flower color gene has two alleles: p (purple) and p (white). the flower position gene has two alleles: a (axial) and a (terminal).

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If a plant that was true-breeding for Purple-Axial Flowers was crossed with a plant that true-breeding for White-Terminal Flowers, what would be the expected phenotypic ratio two generations later option E: 9(Purple-Axial): 3(Purple-Terminal): 3(White-Axial): 1(White-Terminal)

Mendel examined a pea plant's various characteristics. As an illustration, some pea plants have white blossoms while others have purple flowers. Pea plants have the option of self- or cross-fertilization. Hybridization is the process of crossing two plants. Mendel required true-breeding plants to begin with, though. This indicates that the pea plant only exhibited one variation of the characteristic following generations of self-breeding. After several generations, a plant with purple flowers exclusively produced purple flowers; it never produced a plant with white flowers.

Mendel next crossed a purple flowering plant that was true to breed with a white flowering plant. This experiment is a monohybrid one. The result of a test cross between two plants that breed identically for one attribute is determined for each of the offspring plants.

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Complete Question is :

In pea plants, there are two alleles for the gene controlling Flower Color, with the allele for Purple Flowers (P) being completely-dominant to the allele for White Flowers (p). Another gene controls Flower Position with the allele for Axial Flowers (A) being completely-dominant to the allele for Terminal Flowers (). If a plant that was true-breeding for Purple-Axial Flowers was crossed with a plant that true-breeding for White-Terminal Flowers, what would be the expected phenotypic ratio two generations later? a. 3(Purple-Axial): 1(White-Terminal) b. 3(White-Axial): 1(Purple-Terminal) c. 1(Purple-Axial): 1(White-Terminal) d. 1(Purple-Axial): 1(Purple-Terminal): 1(White-Axial): 1(White-Terminal) e. 9(Purple-Axial): 3(Purple-Terminal): 3(White-Axial): 1(White-Terminal)

the ultimate goal of cellular respiration is to produce atp. cells use two different mechanisms to do this: substrate level phosphorylation and oxidative phosphorylation.

Answers

The ultimate goal of cellular respiration is to produce ATP, a molecule that powers the work of cells.

Cellular respiration is utilized to produce usable ATP energy to help numerous different responses in the body. ATP is especially significant for vigorously troublesome responses that would somehow not happen without an energy input.

There are three principal steps of cellular respiration: glycolysis; the citrus extract (TCA) or the Krebs cycle; and the electron transport chain, where oxidative phosphorylation happens. The TCA cycle and oxidative phosphorylation require oxygen, while glycolysis can happen in anaerobic circumstances.

A definitive objective of cellular respiration is synthesis of ATP, which is utilized to control a large portion of the cell's exercises. Cells make ATP by two generally various components. Substrate-level phosphorylation moves a phosphate straightforwardly to ADP.

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(Complete question) is:

The ultimate goal of cellular respiration is to produce ______,a molecule that powers the work of cells.

In biology our energy is in______. In a spontaneous reaction it gets smaller or decreases.

Answers

In biology Our energy exists in a free state. It shrinks or falls in a spontaneous reaction.

As spontaneous reactions develop, free energy is released. Remember that changes in the system's enthalpy and entropy determine whether a reaction is spontaneous or not. Enthalpy and entropy changes together mathematically to provide the free energy change of a process. Given that spontaneous reactions discharge free energy, the sign of ΔG must be negative. There are four different conceivable combinations because both ΔH and ΔS can be positive or negative depending on the specific reaction's properties. The following causes lead to the spontaneous generation of negative free energy: A spontaneous reaction favors the production of products in the conditions in which it occurs. A combustion reaction causes the entropy of the system to increase.

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the appropriate magnification for a manual rbc cell count using a hemocytometer is which of the following?

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The appropriate magnification for a manual RBC cell count using a hemocytometer is to use a microscope and focus on the grid lines of the hemocytometer with a 10X objective.

Through the use of a hand tally counter, you can count the live, unstained cells in one set of 16 squares. While counting, employ a system whereby cells are only counted when they are set within a square or on the right-hand or bottom boundary line. If the same guidelines are followed, then the dead cells stained with Trypan Blue might also be counted for a viability estimate when required.  

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(on the peanut butter usage article): explain why linear regression was appropriate to use for this analysis.

Answers

It is preferable to utilize linear regression for analysis because peanut butter consumption has categorical values.

The value of one variable can be estimated using linear regression analysis based on the value of another variable. The dependent variable is the one you want to be able to predict. The independent variable is the one you're using to make a prediction about the value of the other variable. To compare the links between various elements in nature, linear regression may also be used in environmental professions in fields like sustainability. For instance, the effect that pollution levels may have on temperature, or even something as simple as how the quantity of water that plants receive influences their development. For determining the relationship between two continuous variables, simple linear regression is helpful. An independent variable is a prediction, whereas a dependent variable is a reaction. Instead of deterministic relationships, it seeks out statistical relationships.

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nematodes and arthropods are the largest ecdysozoan phyla. which of the following statements are true? A.Both nematodes and arthropods possess an external covering, or cuticle.
B.Nematodes possess a closed circulatory system.
C.Arthropods possess an open circulatory system.
D.Nematodes are acoelomate, whereas arthropods are coelomate.

Answers

Arthropods & nematodes both have an outer layer, or cuticle. Having an open circulatory system, arthropods. Some nematodes parasitize people.

What six types of arthropods are there?

any member of the phylum Arthropoda is an arthropod. Arthropoda is the largest phylum of animals, and it contains well-known species including centipedes, millipedes, spiders, mites, and spider webs. This phylum contains about 84 percent of all known animal species.

How can you recognize an arthropod?

All arthropods have specialized appendages, a bilateral symmetry, jointed appendages, segmented bodies, and an exoskeleton. By contrasting the number of body regions, legs, and antennae in the various arthropod classes, we may distinguish between them.

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the neurobiology of opiate reinforcement suggests that opiates produce their effects by inhibiting neuro

Answers

Opioid receptors at the neuronal level are typically inhibitory, lowering neurotransmitter release presynaptically and hyperpolarizing neurons postsynaptically.

What is the purpose of neuroscience?

The philosophical underpinnings Finding the biological processes through which neural systems influence behavior is the focus of neurobiology. The nervous system's cells have received a lot of attention in the last 50 years of neurobiology.

Is neuroscience an excellent major?

The focus of a major in neurobiology and neurosciences is the investigation of the nervous system and brain. Unlocking the mysteries of how the brain functions will be possible thanks to this highly important subject. This might be a wonderful major for you if you are scientifically inclined and enjoy deducing how things operate.

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identify on the skeletal muscle fiber where the description best fits by clicking and dragging the label to the correct location.

Answers

A muscle cell's fundamental rod-shaped organelle is called a myofibril. They are made of several chains of myofibrils that are long, tubular cells known as muscle fibres.

What is myofibril and its function?

Sarcomeres, a muscle's functional units, make up myofibrils. The sliding-filament concept is used by the myofibril to produce muscle contraction. When tendons are at rest, the dense and thin filaments do not completely overlap, with certain regions having neither of the two types.

What are myofibrils are composed of?

The dense and thin myofilaments that make up the myofibrils are what give the muscle its rough appearance. Also with two other muscle regulating proteins, tropomyosin and troponin, the thick filaments are made up of strands of the protein myosin, while the thin filaments are made up of strands of the protein actin.

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What is the benefit of sketching or providing a screenshot of the DNA fingerprints for qualitative data? What is the benefit of gathering quantitative data on the base-pair lengths?

Describe one struggle a forensic scientist might have when looking at DNA evidence?

Answers

The benefit of sketching or providing a screenshot of the DNA fingerprints for qualitative data is the ability to relate an individual to certain genetic features (question 1). The benefit of gathering quantitative data on the base-pair lengths is that we can obtain repeated polymorphisms that may be useful to discover a variation pattern (question 2). Some limitations for a forensic scientist using DNA as evidence are the rapid degradation of this molecule or the presence of identical sequences in different individuals (question 3).

What is a DNA fingerprint?

DNA fingerprint is a technique used in molecular biology laboratories to identify individuals on the basis of the linear order of nucleotides in the DNA molecules for a given fragment of the genome, which is used in DNA forensics and depends on the conservation state of the DNA sequence.

Therefore, with this data, we can see that DNA fingerprint is a technique that can be used in forensics to identify individuals, but this technique may lead to spurious associations when individuals have the same sequence for a given locus.

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you are a bio-researcher on the planet tawniwani, and you have been given the task of identifying and classifying the native fauna. use this dichotomous key to identify tawniwanian creature c.

Answers

A Roundus tricurlus is individual C. The key offers a quick and simple method of identification by outlining several physical or behavioural characteristics and guiding you to the appropriate taxonomic categorization.

Each feature will always have two alternatives (a and b, or 1 and 2), and you must select one of them based on the traits of your organism. Once you select the choice that best fits your organism, the key will take you to the next description, where you must select another alternative. Until you reach the name of your organism, you will keep doing this. Only particular characteristics that help distinguish are described in the key.

For instance, we need to know the name of individual C in the example that was provided. So, it is a Roundus tricurlus, individual C.

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During translation, the amino acid detaches from the transfer RNA molecule and attaches to the end of a growing protein chain when
a. the ribosomal RNA anticodon binds to messenger RNA codon.
b. the transfer RNA anticodon binds to the messenger RNA codon.
c. a "stop" codon is encountered.
d. the protein chain sends a signal through the nerve cells to the brain.

Answers

The correct option is B ; The transfer RNA anticodon binds to the messenger RNA codon. During translation, ribosomal subunits form a sandwich on the strand of mRNA,

where they bind tRNA molecules bound to amino acids (circles). As the ribosome decodes the mRNA sequence into a polypeptide, or new protein, a lengthy chain of amino acids appears.

The tRNA that has lost an amino acid is freed. It can then attach to another amino acid molecule and be reused later in the protein-making process. The ribosome advances the mRNA three nucleotides at a time via a ratcheting process.

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The use of genetic information by employers, insurance companies, and others to discriminate against or stigmatize people is known asa. Genetic testingb. Genetic controlc. Unauthorized testingd. Genetic discrimination

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According to the question use of genetic information by employers, insurance companies, and others to discriminate against or stigmatize people is known as Genetic discrimination.

It refers to the unequal treatment of individuals based on an aspect of their genetic code or genome, such as the risk for genetic disorder.

In the Genetic discrimination can involve such genomic information being used against individuals in a various type of circumstances, such as employment, health or disability, insurance status, or education, or health care.

Genetic discrimination occurs when a person is treated in an unjust manner because of their genetic type. Many are concerned that without monitoring or evidence of genetic discrimination, it can occur in our daily life.

There are state and Government laws to protect individuals from genetic discrimination in health insurance and employment.

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You are working the night shift on the Answer-Line, a telephone service provided by a health management organization for its enrollees. You receive a call from a 26-year-old woman. She has been experiencing painful urination for the past 24 hours. This is the first time she has had this condition and she describes herself as otherwise healthy. 1) The patient reports a fever of 101.5F and nearly constant urge to urinate, though she often voids little or no urine. What is your preliminary diagnosis? 2) What is the most likely causative agent for this condition? 3) There is a potential risk for progressing to a more serious condition. What is it?

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Painful urination with fever and constant urge to urinate may indicate urinary tract infection. Preliminary diagnosis would be the patient is suffering from a upper urinary tract infection as she has fever along with other symptoms of UTI.

This can be confirmed by doing an urine culture. An urine culture will help identify the causative agent and will help in further treatment. The most likely causative agent in UTI are bacteria, especially Escherichia coli in majority of cases, with Staphylococcus saprophyticus in some cases. These usually travel up to the bladder from the rectum. Other causative agents may be fungi or viruses in rare cases.

Women are more prone to UTIs than men as they have a shorter urethra than men. UTI's may occur during intercourse or it sometimes may be hereditary. Sometimes it may have be acquired from pubic restrooms or hospitals or due to the use of catheters but it seems that is not the case in this patient.

Untreated or unrecognised UTIs may turn to serious condition very quickly. Untreated UTI may result in infection in the kidney leading to cloudy and oul smelling urine, blood in the urine, back pain. If left untreated the bacteria may travel upto both the kidneys and may result in permanent reduction in kidney function and kidney failure as well.

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Which of the following activities are most closely associated with natural killer cells? Select all that apply: a. production of TNF-α
b. lysis of virus-infected cells
c. phagocytosis of bacteria
d. release of reactive oxygen intermediates
e. production of IFN-γ

Answers

production of IFN-γ is the most closely associated with natural killer cells. Thus, Option e. is the correct one.

If you analyze carefully, you would find out that type I interferon (IFN) production is the key event developing from the recognition of host DNA and consequent activation of signaling pathways by all DNA sensors. The type I IFN family consists of various IFN-α and single IFN-β. IFN-γ is produced predominantly by natural killer cells (NK) as well as by natural killer T cells (NKT) as part of the innate immune response, and also by CD4 Th1 and CD8 cytotoxic T lymphocyte (CTL) effector T cells once antigen-specific immunity starts developing as part of the adaptive immune response.

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If you go to the movie theater and eat a large bag of popcorn with salt, after few minutes, your plasma salt concentration will o increase O decrease. o be at the normal level. O increase and then decrease. o decrease and then increase. our screen Ston sharing Hide

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If you go to the movie theater and eat a large bag of popcorn with salt, after a few minutes, your plasma salt concentration will (D) increase and then decrease.

The quantity of sodium and potassium present in blood plasma, as well as the volume of body water, determine the serum sodium concentration.

A rapid rise in plasma salt concentration and blood pressure will follow an increase in the amount of salt consumed, which can be caused by a single meal, however, this rise will be followed by a fall as a result of an increase in glomerular filtration rate (GFR).

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which of the following reduces circulating blood levels of follicle-stimulating hormone (fsh) when the sperm count is high?

Answers

Answer: releasing inhibin

Explanation: its a hormone that suppresses the release of FSH.

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