For HIPAA compliance, revocation costs are not necessary. The HIPAA Privacy Rule established criteria for the permissible uses and disclosures of health information
Such as who can receive information and under what conditions protected health information can be shared. Under certain conditions, the HIPAA Privacy Rule authorizes healthcare providers, health care plans, healthcare clearinghouses, professional colleagues of HIPAA-covered companies, and other entities protected by HIPAA Rules to share health information. In general, permissible disclosure requirements are for treatment, payment, or national healthcare operations, as well as reporting concerns to public health agencies such as domestic violence.
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an adult client has been prescribed pilocarpine eye drops for the treatment of glaucoma. what teaching should the nurse provide before the client begins taking the medication in the home setting?
Instructions that must be given by the nurse before the client starts taking medication at home for the treatment of glaucoma are Perform hand hygiene immediately before administering the medication. because hand hygiene is the main thing when giving eye medication because there is a high probability of entry of microorganisms into the eye and it is forbidden to touch the eye. (A)
What is Glaucoma?Glaucoma is damage to the optic nerve due to high pressure inside the eyeball. This condition is characterized by pain in the eyes, red eyes, blurred vision, and nausea and vomiting. Glaucoma needs to be treated immediately to prevent blindness.
Glaucoma consists of several types, but there are two of them that are common, namely:
Open-angle glaucoma, namely glaucoma that occurs due to partially blocked aqueous humor dispensing ductsClosed angle glaucoma, which is glaucoma that occurs because the aqueous humor drain channel is completely closedGlaucoma Symptoms and Causes
A common symptom in people with open-angle glaucoma is blurred vision. While the symptoms that often occur in closed-angle glaucoma are severe headaches, pain in the eyes, and red eyes.
The cause of glaucoma is damage to the optic nerve. This damage is generally associated with increased pressure in the eye due to the buildup of aqueous humor that flows to all parts of the eye.
Glaucoma Treatment and Prevention
Routine eye examination and treatment can avoid the risk of blindness in glaucoma sufferers.
Glaucoma cannot always be prevented, but there are efforts that can be made to maintain eye health, including:
Eat foods rich in antioxidants, vitamin A and vitamin CLimit consumption of caffeinated drinksPositioning the pillow slightly higher while sleepingExercise regularlyComplete Answer Options:
A) Perform hand hygiene immediately before administering the medication.
B) Gently touch the dropper to the medial portion of the sclera while administering.
C) Rub the eyes gently, with clean hands, after administration.
D) Perform a saline eye flush if an extra drop is accidentally instilled.
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a client states that the client has just had an argument with the client's spouse over the phone. what can the nurse expect that the client's sympathetic nervous system has stimulated the client's adrenal gland to release?
The nurse expect that the client's sympathetic nervous system has epinephrine that stimulated the client's adrenal gland to release.
The small, triangular-shaped adrenal glands, also referred to as the suprarenal glands, are found on top of both kidneys. Hormones produced by your adrenal glands regulate a number of vital bodily functions, including your immune system, blood pressure, stress response, metabolism, and other vital functions.
Cortisol and aldosterone are two steroid hormones that are secreted by the adrenal gland. Additionally, it creates precursors that can be used to create sex steroids (androgen, estrogen).
Severe allergic reactions (including anaphylaxis) to meals, medicines, insect stings, foods, or other substances are treated in an emergency with an injection of epinephrine. Additionally, it is used to treat anaphylaxis brought on by unknown substances or physical exertion.
Complete question:
A client states that the client has just had an argument with the client's spouse over the phone. What can the nurse expect that the client's sympathetic nervous system has stimulated the client's adrenal gland to release?
Endorphins
Dopamine
Epinephrine
Testosterone
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which lfuid shift will the nurse take into consideration when assessing a client with type 1 diabetes who is experiencing a fluid imbalance
Intracellular to intravascular as a result of hyperosmolarity will be taken into consideration by the nurse.
What is type 1 diabetes?
If one has type 1 diabetes, the pancreas either does not produce insulin or produces very little insulin. Insulin promotes the entry of blood sugar into the body's cells for utilization as energy. Without insulin, blood sugar cannot enter cells and accumulates in the bloodstream.
Hyperglycemia's osmotic impact draws the fluid from cells, resulting in cellular dehydration. Fluid is drawn from the interstitial compartment to the intravascular compartment by hyperglycemia. The extracellular compartment includes interstitial fluid; the osmotic pull of glucose exceeds that of other osmotic forces. A rise in hydrostatic pressure causes a shift from intravascular to interstitial.
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which drug is used to treat gastric ulcers caused by zollinger-ellison syndrome? metoclopramide hesi
The drug that is used to treat gastric ulcers caused by Zollinger-Ellison syndrome is proton pump inhibitors such as lansoprazole, omeprazole, etc.
What is Zollinger-Ellison syndrome?ZES, or Zollinger-Ellison syndrome, is a very uncommon digestive condition. The pancreas, the first portion of the small intestine, or both are likely to include one or more tumors if you have ZES. Gastrin is released by these tumors, which are known as gastrinomas. The stomach produces too much acid as a result of this. Food must first be broken down by stomach acid. But too much acid can develop painful ulcerative colitis within the lining of the stomach as well as the intestine.
Which drug is used to treat gastric ulcers?Proton pump inhibitors are a type of medication that can help control excess stomach acid. These medications aid in preventing the onset of ulcers. Lansoprazole, omeprazole, dexlansoprazole, and many others are examples of Proton pump inhibitors. Surgery may occasionally be required to remove malignancies from the digestive system.
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which parent teaching would the nurse provide the parents of an infant being discharged after surgery for pyloric stenosis
The parent teaching would the nurse provides the parents of an infant being discharged after surgery for pyloric stenosis would be longer recovery time.
Generally speaking, people who have surgical treatment for pyloric stenosis recover well, and the condition only rarely causes long-term issues for its victims. After surgery, your infant can get one or two feedings of special fluids before switching to breast milk or formula 24 hours later. No lasting consequences exist. The following is a recurrence rate of % of recurrence alone.
The uncommon infant with recurrent pyloric stenosis is still anticipated to have a normal digestive system in the long run. Surgery is the only technique to treat pyrophoric stenosis, and it almost always results in a full recovery.
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Answer:
Hold the baby while continuing to feed a regular formula slowly and burp frequently.
Explanation:
If there are no complications, the infant resumes regular feedings soon after surgery. The infant does not need special dietary modifications. Also, holding the infant should be encouraged because it is an important part of the parent-child relationship.
an instructor is teaching a group of students about client education and drug therapy. the instructor determines a need for additional instruction when the students identify what as an important area to include in a client teaching plan?
How to report a medicine mistake. Including this in the patient teaching plan would be improper because patients are not responsible for reporting medication errors in drug therapy.
A patient education plan should definitely include the topic of warning signs. A patient education plan should include information about potential interactions with alternative therapies as well as those to avoid. A key component of a patient education plan would include information concerning the administration schedule. The administration of medications to cure or prevent disease is known as drug therapy. Combination therapy refers to the use of numerous medications with distinct active components in the treatment of diseases such as cancer, HIV infection, and diabetes.
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the nurse teaches a mother about the dietary measures to be followed for her 5-month-old infant. during the follow-up visit, the nurse finds that the child has indigestion. which action by the mother is responsible for this situation?
Feeding mashed sweet potatoes to the infant. May cause indigestion. Food goes back up from a baby's stomach, causing infant reflux, which is when a baby spits up.
Healthy infants experience reflux several times every day. Reflux is not a cause for worry as long as your infant is healthy, comfortable, and growing well. The illness, which is sometimes known as gastroesophageal reflux (GER), is rarely serious and becomes less frequent as a baby becomes older. Infant reflux that persists over the age of 18 months is unusual. In the event that your infant:
Not putting on weight.spits up repeatedly with power, sending stomach contents flying out of his or her mouth (projectile vomiting).spits forth a yellow or green liquid.spits up blood or a substance that resembles coffee.Learn more about Infant
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assessment and management of clients with male reproductive disorders a patient has been prescribed sildenafil. what should the nurse teach the patient about this medication?
The patient ought to consume sildenafil drug medication from the nurse and take it one hour before sexual contact to avoid erection .
During sexual stimulation, sildenafil drug improves dysfunction by boosting blood flow to the genitalia of body. associate degree erection could result from this magnified blood flow. so as to facilitate simple blood flow, sildenafil drug treats PAH by reposeful the blood vessels within the lungs. sildenafil drug aids in sustaining associate degree erection once the has been stroked by control the catalyst. sildenafil drug won't operate to induce associate degree erection while not physical activity to the genitalia of body, like that taking place throughout sexual contact.
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mary is a split-brain patient, which means that she . a. has an underdeveloped cerebellum b. has motor impairments c. has damage to the prefrontal cortex d. had her corpus callosum severed
Answer:
d. had her corpus callosum severed
Explanation:
It means that she had her corpus collosum severed.
which skin condition would be most likely to cause increased systemic absorption of a topical medication?
The skin condition most likely to cause increased systemic absorption of topical medications is severe sunburn.
Topical drugs are drugs that are administered directly to the skin or mucous membranes. There are various types of topical medications ranging from ointments, creams, gels, lotions, foams, and others.
Systemic absorption through the skin is minimal but may increase when the skin is inflamed or damaged. Severe sunburn can be an example of inflamed skin.
Multiple birthmarks and port-wine stains on the face are not examples of skin conditions that increase the absorption of topical medications. Rosacea is an example of an inflammatory skin disorder on the face, but most of the drugs prescribed to treat it are topical and rarely absorbed systemically.
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which times for the medication schedule would a nurse teach when corticosteroid therapy is prescribed for a client with an exacerbation of ulcerative colitis
Taking the drug in the early morning mimics usual adrenal secretions; food helps reduce gastric irritation for the medication schedule would a nurse teach when corticosteroid therapy is prescribed for a client with an exacerbation of ulcerative colitis
The main purposes of corticosteroid therapy are to lower inflammation and weaken the immune system. They are employed to treat ailments like asthma. hay fever and allergic rhinitis. Depending on the ailment being treated, corticosteroids are administered in a variety of ways: via the oral route. Tablets, capsules, or syrups are used to alleviate the pain and inflammation brought on by several chronic illnesses, including lupus and rheumatoid arthritis. using an inhaler and nasal spray. Short-term corticosteroid use is generally associated with mild side effects, such as cutaneous effects, electrolyte abnormalities, hypertension, hyperglycemia, pancreatitis, hematologic, immunologic, and neuropsychologic effects. However, clinically significant side effects can also occur on occasion.
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an obese adult with premature arteriosclerosis is seen in the clinic. when her serum is tested no chylomicrons are present, ldl levels are normal, and vldl levels are increased. there is an increase in triglycerides and a slight increase in cholesterol. lipoprotein electrophoresis reveals a heavy pre-beta band. she has no skin rash and uric acid is increased. this patient most likely has what type of hyperlipoproteinemia?
Answer:
Type IV
Explanation:
The patient has high triglycerides and increased VLDL, both of which are symptoms of type IV hyperlipoproteinemia.
the nurse is preparing a psychosocial assessment for use with clients with various mental health conditions. for which group of clients should the nurse include mostly closed-ended questions?
Clients with adult attention deficit hyperactivity disorder. One of the most prevalent mental health conditions affecting children is attention-deficit/hyperactivity disorder (ADHD).
Inability to maintain focus, excessive movement that is inappropriate for the environment, and impulsivity are all signs of ADHD (hasty acts that occur in the moment without thought). ADHD is seen as a chronic and crippling mental health condition that negatively affects a person's ability to operate on a daily basis as well as their ability to succeed in school and at work. When left untreated, ADHD in kids can result in low self-esteem and poor social skills. Adults with ADHD may suffer low self-esteem, sensitive to criticism, and excessive self-criticism, which may be caused by receiving more criticism overall.
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the flacc pain scale is used to assess pain in a 2-month-old to 7 years old child. what categories does it assess?
The flacc pain scale assesses five categories in children ages 2 months to 7 years old: facial expression, leg movement, activity, cry, and consolability.
What is a Flacc pain scale?
The Flacc pain scale is a 5-point scale used to measure pain intensity in children ages 2–7 years old who are unable to self-report their pain. It assesses pain behavior and facial expression in response to pain. It is often used in hospitals, clinics, and home settings to assess pain in children who cannot communicate their pain using words.
For example, facial expressions such as frowning, grimacing, or squinting may indicate that the child is in pain. Leg movement, such as kicking or tensing the legs, can also be an indicator of pain.
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when should sterile gloves be worn? when collecting a urine sample from a patient when collecting a urine sample from a patient when removing a dressing when removing a dressing when bathing a patient when bathing a patient when treating an open wound
Answer:
When treating an open wound
Explanation:
Sterile gloves should be worn when treating an open wound.
which information would the nurse provide to the pregnant client asking for information about toxoplasmosis?
The nurse would provide the information about toxoplasmosis to the pregnant client that pork and beef should be cooked well before being eaten.
You can contract toxoplasmosis by eating undercooked meat or by handling cat feces or a litter box. It is brought on by the parasite Toxoplasma gondii, which is quite widespread. The parasite is invisible because it is so little. Even if you don't have any symptoms, you could still infect your unborn child if you contract toxoplasmosis soon before or during pregnancy.
Depending on how far along in your pregnancy you were when you contracted the virus, there is a chance that you will infect your unborn child. Your baby is more likely to contract the infection if you become ill later in your pregnancy.
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All of the following statements are true about appraising the clinical significance of a finding of study, except which one?
Clinical significance of the study findings is always addressed in research reports
Clinical significance is a way of portraying the practical meaning of the study findings
Clinical significance is a judgment based on finding information and clinical knowledge
In experimental studies, the size of the treatment effect is an important determinant of clinical significance
All of the following statements are true about appraising the clinical significance of a finding of study, except clinical significance of the study findings is always addressed in research reports.
What is clinical significance?
Clinical relevance is the practical significance of a therapeutic effect in medicine and psychology—whether it has a real, true, tactile, perceptible impact on daily life. Clinically relevant findings are those that advance medical treatment and enhance a person's physical function, mental health, and capacity for social interaction. The phrase "improving quality of life" in relation to medical care covers both subjective and objective concepts.
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All of the following statements are true about appraising the clinical significance of a finding of study, except clinical significance of the study findings is always addressed in research reports.
What is clinical significance?Clinical relevance is the practical significance of a therapeutic effect in medicine and psychology—whether it has a real, true, tactile, perceptible impact on daily life. Clinically relevant findings are those that advance medical treatment and enhance a person's physical function, mental health, and capacity for social interaction. The phrase "improving quality of life" in relation to medical care covers both subjective and objective concepts.
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a patient is admitted to the emergency department experiencing symptoms of a thrombolytic stroke. which medication would the nurse expect to be prescribed for the patient?
Alteplase is medication would the nurse expect to be prescribed for the patient, a patient is admitted to the emergency department experiencing symptoms of a thrombolytic stroke.
When symptoms of a thrombolytic stroke first appear, a tissue plasminogen activator called alteplase can be used to treat them. Descriptions. Blood clots that have developed in the blood vessels can be removed with the use of an injection of alteplase. To increase patient survival, it is applied as soon as heart attack symptoms appear. It is also used to treat blood clots in the lungs and stroke symptoms (pulmonary embolism) tPA is administered to patients via an IV in the arm and works by dissolving blood clots that obstruct blood flow to the brain. It is also known by the generic name alteplase and is sold under the brand name Activase® (Genentech).
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a client develops bacterial meningitis. which action is the priority nursing care? monitoring for signs of intracranial pressure. adding pads to the sides of the bed
A client develops bacterial meningitis, so the priority of the nursing care is monitoring for signs of intracranial pressure because, in this disease, the neurological signs change.
What is bacterial meningitis?The bacterial meningitis happens when the bacteria attacks the meninges that is the outer protective layers of the brain and the spinal cord and this disease would lead to various types of other neurological disorder. The neurons are affected, and the severe infection leads to the death of a person.
Hence, A client develops bacterial meningitis, so the priority of the nurse's care is monitoring for signs of intracranial pressure.
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which contraception-related statement made by an adolescent with irregular menstruation indicates the need for further education
One of the main strategies for lowering teenage pregnancy rates is contraception. DMPA shots administered up until day 7 of the menstrual cycle Pediatricians are advised to create a working plan by the American Academy of Pediatrics.
Which of the following methods for female sterilization includes cutting or tying off specific reproductive system structures?Summary. A permanent method of contraception is tubal sterilisation, sometimes known as tubal ligation or "getting your tubes tied."
Which of the following occurs to suppress ovulation when the pill is taken for contraception?The main hormone responsible for preventing pregnancy is progesterone. The primary mode of action is ovulation prevention; they impede follicular growth and stop ovulation. [1] The hypothalamus uses progesterone negative feedback to reduce the gonadotropin-releasing hormone's pulse frequency.
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a client with diabetes mellitus has a blood glucose level of 344 mg/dl. this client is most at risk for which type of acid-base imbalance?
When a person's blood sugar rises to potentially dangerous levels that demand medical attention, type 2 diabetes with hyperglycemia develops. A person with type 2 diabetes may have either hyperglycemia, which denotes an increased blood glucose level, or hypoglycemia, which denotes a low level.
What is ketoacidosis in type 2 diabetes?
A severe and potentially fatal diabetes consequence is diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA). Type 1 diabetics are most likely to experience DKA. DKA can also occur in people who have type 2 diabetes. DKA happens when your body doesn't produce enough insulin to let blood sugar enter your cells for use as fuel.
Why does diabetes have an electrolyte imbalance?
People with type 2 diabetes mellitus frequently have electrolyte imbalances. Although the cause is frequently complicated, diabetic ketoacidosis and hyperglycemia are the primary culprits.
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physical examination reveals bluish skin, nail beds, and mucous membranes. which term correctly describes this condition?
Cyanosis is a disease that has the symptoms of bluish skin, nail beds, and the mucous membrane.
Cyanosis is a bluish color withinside the skin, lips, and nail beds due to a scarcity of oxygen withinside the blood. Cyanosis takes place due to the fact that blood with low stages of oxygen turns blue or red. This low-oxygen blood reasons a blue-red tint to the skin. Disorders of deoxygenated hemoglobin are similarly divided into broad groups: valuable cyanosis and peripheral cyanosis.
The medicines used for cyanosis are Methaemoglobinaemia, which can be genetic or related to positive drugs - eg, quinones, primaquine, sulfonamides. Sulfhaemoglobinaemia is typically related to positive drugs, specifically sulfonamides.
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What is growth curve
The growth curve is a very sensitive indicator of a youngster’s overall health. Ideally, the head circumference should be measured with a rigid tape above the supraorbital ridge, parallel to the ground, and encompassing the largest circumference of the head. Accurate weight measurements are usually easier to take than length or height.
why woudl there bve a cuasse for comcerm if a pregnant mother is rh- her partner is rh and this is their second child
These Rh antibodies are able to pass the placenta and assault the blood of the unborn child.
The mother's body will actually behave as though she is allergic to her own child. The baby's red blood cells will be effectively broken down if the mother's Rh antibodies assault it while it is still in the womb, which could cause life-threatening anemia.
Because of this, your first pregnancy will not be harmed by being Rh negative. However, if your subsequent child has Rh-positive blood, the antibodies you developed when you were exposed to it during your first pregnancy may cross the placenta and attack the Rh-positive red blood cells. If the mother has an immune system that is Rh-negative, it will view the fetal cells that are Rh-positive as a foreign substance.
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we study three types of immune disorders: immunodeficiency disorders, autoimmune disorders, and allergies. aids is an example of an immunodeficiency disorder. how is it different from a severe allergy or an autoimmune disorder, such as type 1 diabetes?
Immunodeficiency is the inability of your immune system to effectively fight off infection. The opposing syndrome autoimmune reaction is an overactive immune system that targets healthy cells as though they were foreign objects.
An immune system issue occurs when your immune system isn't functioning properly. The most prevalent immunodeficiency disorder is acquired immune deficiency syndrome (AIDS). can hinder the production of healthy white blood cells, which are necessary for the immune system. The body assaults typical, healthy tissues when someone has an autoimmune disorder. The combination of a person's genes and an environmental factor most likely causes those genes to be activated. Type1 diabetes:The cells in the pancreas that produce insulin are attacked by the immune system. In order to utilise sugar as fuel, insulin removes it from the blood.
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ardiac monitoring of a patient in cardiac arrest reveals ventricular fibrillation. in addition to high-quality cpr, what intervention should be a priority for the team?
Epinephrine is the primary drug given and can be repeated each three to five mins. If epinephrine isn't always effective, the subsequent medicine withinside the set of rules is amiodarone three hundred mg.
Defibrillation and medicine are given in an alternating style among cycles of two mins of amazing CPR First name 911 or your nearby emergency number.
Then begin CPR via way of means of pushing difficult and rapid at the person's chest — approximately a hundred to a hundred and twenty compressions a minute. Let the chest upward thrust absolutely among compressions. Continue CPR till an automatic outside defibrillator (AED) is to be had or emergency clinical assist arrive.
Prompt defibrillation is the best intervention for cardiac arrest, apart from amazing CPR, that has been proven to enhance survival; however, the fulfillment of defibrillation is time dependent, with approximately acline in fulfillment after every minute of VF (or pulseless VT).
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A data analyst is working with a file from a customer satisfaction survey. The survey was sent to anyone who became a customer between April and June, 2020. Which of the following is an effective name for the file?
-Survey_Responses
-April_May_June_2020_Responses_to_New_Customer_Survey_ANALYS-SDATA_928310
-Apr-June2020_CustSurvey_V
-NewCustomerSurvey_2020-6-20_V03
-NewCustomerSurvey_2020-6-20_V03
The survey was sent to anyone who became a customer between April and June, 2020 and NewCustomerSurvey_2020-6-20_V03 is an effective name for the file.
A customer satisfaction survey may be a form designed to assist businesses perceive what their customers trust their product or services, their whole, and their client support. customer Satisfaction Score (CSAT) is that the most typically used mensuration for client satisfaction.
A data analyst reviews data to spot key insights into a business's customers and ways that the info will be wont to solve issues. They additionally communicate this info to company leadership and alternative stakeholders.
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which activity would a general registered nurse be expected to perform as part of genomic care?
The activity that a general registered nurse would be expected to perform as part of genomic care is "obtaining an accurate family history and physical assessment data". The correct answer is C.
All health professionals should be able to create a pedigree, and registered nurses with a baccalaureate in nursing, or BSN degree, are expected to be able to do so. According to the American Association of Colleges of Nursing's publication "Essentials of Baccalaureate Education for Professional Nursing Practice 2008," every BSN degree recipient should be capable of:
"Generate a pedigree from a three-generation family history using standardized symbols and terminology".Although a general registered nurse may not directly refer patients to genetic professionals, it is important that the nurse understand when a referral should be taken into consideration. Genetic counseling is outside the scope of the nurse's practice, so it is crucial that nurses not trying to deliver it.
This question should be provided with answer choices, which are:
A. Calculating recurrence risk for parents who have just had a child with nondisjunction Down syndrome.B. Informing a patient that his test results are positive for a genetic disorder.C. Obtaining an accurate family history and physical assessment data.D. Requesting a consultation visit from a clinical geneticist.The correct answer is C.
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a nurse is caring for an older client who is prescribed an antianxiety agent parenterally. which activity should the nurse prioritize?
Caring for an older client who is prescribed an antianxiety agent parenterally, nurse should prioritize to have ave resuscitative equipment ready.
Resuscitative equipments include Oxygen mask with reservoir bag, Automated External Defibrillator (AED) with electrodes and razor, Oxygen mask with reservoir bag, Syringe and needles.
Antianxiety agents are drugs which are used to treat symptoms of anxiety, such as feelings of fear, dread, uneasiness, and muscle tightness, that may occur as a reaction to stress. It also helps to an evast extent to reduce anxiety.Most antianxiety agents block the action of certain chemicals in the nervous system. Also called anxiolytic and anxiolytic agent.
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a nature photographer will be embarking on a trip overseas and is beginning a protocol for malaria prophylaxis involving 500 mg of chloroquine phosphate. what instruction should the nurse include in this client's health education?
a protocol for malaria prophylaxis involving 500 mg of chloroquine phosphate. "Make sure you take your pill on the same day each week." the nurse should include in this client's health education.
An antimalarial drug called chloroquine phosphate, usually referred to as chloroquine, has been licensed in the United States for the prevention or treatment of specific kinds of malaria as well as the management of extraintestinal parasites. All parasites that are susceptible to chloroquine should be treated with it. To be swallowed whole, chloroquine phosphate is available as a tablet. Adults typically take one dosage once each week on the same day of the week to avoid malaria. pills you should take for each dose will be specified by your doctor.
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