Which of the following is a geological feature which is created by deposition?

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Answer 1

The landform is a geological feature that is created by deposition.

The deposition is the act of depositing sediment that has been carried by the wind, water, sea, or ice. Pebbles, sand, mud, and salts that have been dissolved in water can all be used to convey sediment.

The deposition is the process of adding substance to a surface, typically in the form of sediment, rock, or soil particles. When the particles leave their suspension and land on the surface, they are frequently deposited from a fluid.

Deposition may take place as a result of wind or water currents, as well as when they are transported with other moving solids. Usually, erosion in one location leads to deposition in another; materials are worn, eroded, or knocked loose before settling elsewhere.

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Related Questions

Which tatement bet decribe the tep in mucle contraction when the arcomere i the hortet?
The arcomere i contracted, and the actin and myoin filament are partially overlapped. The arcomere i relaxed, and the actin and myoin filament are partially overlapped. The arcomere i contracted, and the actin and myoin filament are completely overlapped. The arcomere i relaxed, and the actin and myoin filament are completely overlapped

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The myosin head bends, pulling the skinny filament towards the muscle of the sarcomere statement guess describes the step in muscle contraction whilst the sarcomere I the hotel.

Whilst (a) a sarcomere (b) contracts, the Z strains pass nearer together and the I band receives smaller. The A band remains the equal width and, at full contraction, the thin filaments overlap. when a sarcomere shortens, some regions shorten while others stay the same length.

Upon muscle contraction, the A-bands do not exchange their duration, while the I-bands and the H-quarter shorten. This reasons the Z traces to come back closer collectively.

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When growing cultures, the agar is ________ to separate pathogenic colonies of organisms from colonies of normal flora.

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When growing cultures, the agar is inoculated to separate pathogenic colonies of organisms from colonies of normal flora.

Antibiotic susceptibility testing (AST) specifies effective antibiotic dosage and helps in therapy and proper management of an individual patient's health against deadly infections. Antibiotic susceptibility testing is often essential in order to determine which antibiotics to use against a specific strain of bacterium.

Hence, Agar is an ideal solidifying agent for microbiological media because of its melting properties and because it has nutritive value for the vast species of bacteria.

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which of the following describes fat-soluble vitamins? multiple choice they are absorbed directly from the gi tract into the blood via the hepatic portal vein. they form coenzymes that participate in the metabolism of carbohydrates, fat, and protein. they are readily stored in the body. excesses are excreted in the urine.

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The description of fat-soluble vitamins is: they are readily stored in the body.

Vitamins are the food components that are essential for body's growth and good health. Vitamins are of two types: water soluble and fat soluble. Vitamins are micronutrient which means that they are required in very less amounts to fulfil body's requirement.

Fat-soluble vitamins are four. These are: vitamins A, D, E and K. They are fat soluble because they get dissolved in organic solvents and their transportation and absorption in the body is similar to that of fats. The storage of these vitamin in the body is: liver, fatty tissue, and muscles.

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when a round fruit plant is crossed with a long fruit plant their offspring are oval. what is the best explanation for this?

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If you cross a round-fruited plant with a long-fruited plant, the offspring will be oval. What is the best explanation for this incomplete dominance

Incomplete dominance results from matin-gs in which each parent's contribution is genetically unique and which produces offspring that are phenotypically intermediate. Incomplete dominance is also called as the semi-dominance and the partial dominance. Mendel described dominance, but not imperfect dominance. Imperfect dominance is a form of gene interaction in which both alleles of a gene are partially expressed at one her locus, often resulting in intermediate or dissimilar phenotypes. Also known as partial dominance. For example, in roses, the red allele is dominant over the white allele.

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Explain how cold symptoms show that the body is using both lines of nonspecific defenses to fight pathogens.

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The innate immune system provides this kind of nonspecific protection through a number of defense mechanisms, which include physical barriers such as the skin, chemical barriers such as antimicrobial proteins that harm or destroy invaders, and cells that attack foreign cells and body cells harbouring infectious agents.

What do you mean by pathogens?

A pathogen in the oldest and broadest sense, is any organism or agent that can produce disease. A pathogen may also be referred to as an infectious agent, or simply a germ.

Moreover, pathogens cause illness to their hosts through a variety of ways. The most obvious means is through direct damage of tissues or cells during replication, generally through the production of toxins, which allows the pathogen to reach new tissues or exit the cells inside which it replicated.

Therefore, pathogenic organisms are of five main types: viruses, bacteria, fungi, protozoa, and worms.

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Garrod hypothesized that inherited diseases such as alkaptonuria, the inability to metabolize the chemical alkapton, occur because.

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Genes control the generation of particular enzymes, and persons with the condition have genetic flaws that prevent them from producing some of those enzymes.

What is Garrod's theory regarding inherited metabolic mistakes?

Sir Archibald Garrod, a British physician, coined the phrase "inborn error of metabolism" in 1908. He theorized that inherited conditions like alkaptonuria and albinism are caused by enzymes that are either inactive or completely absent from specific metabolic pathways.

Which theory did Garrod put out regarding alkaptonuria?

Alkaptonuria was referred to as a "inborn mistake of metabolism" by Archibald Garrod in 1902. He suggested that a specific flaw in the biochemical process for getting rid of liquid wastes results from gene mutation. This mistake is reflected in the disease's phenotype, which is dark urine.

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how did these factors affect evolution in this population? (i.e. selection, mutation, genetic drift, migration.)

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Mutation, gene flow, and genetic drift are random tactics with respect to variation they exchange gene frequencies without regard for the outcomes that such modifications may have inside the potential of the organisms to survive and reproduce.

Random genetic drift describes the stochastic fluctuations of allele frequencies due to random sampling in finite populations. over the years, genetic glide can lead to fixation or loss of genetic variants, thereby systematically putting off range from a population.

Migration will exchange gene frequencies by bringing in greater copies of an allele already within the populace or by bringing in a new allele that has arisen by means of mutation. due to the fact mutations do not occur in every population, migration might be required for that allele to spread for the duration of that species.

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At a gaba-ergic synapse, the postsynaptic receptor for the gaba neurotransmitter is which type of channel?.

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One of the most often prescribed classes of psychoactive medicines is benzodiazepines, which are positive allosteric modulators of GABAA receptors.

Gamma-aminobutyric acid, or GABA, is the main inhibitory neurotransmitter in the central nervous system of developmentally mature mammals. Reduced neuronal excitability across the nervous system must be its main goal. GABA is offered as a dietary supplement in various nations.

When GABA activates GABAA receptors, chloride ions are able to cross the cell membrane through ligand-activated chloride channels. Whether the chloride flow is depolarizing, shunting, or inhibitory/hyperpolarizing depends on the direction of the flow.

Benzodiazepines are thus positive allosteric modulators of GABAA receptors and one of the most often prescribed classes of psychotropic medications.

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Organic material derived from living organisms, including plants and animals, is called
organic fuel.
biomass.
herbage.
fossil fuel.

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Answer:

Biomass is renewable organic material that comes from plants and animals.

Biomass is a right answer.

The dna content of a diploid cell in g1 is y. The dna content of this same cell at metaphase of meiosis i is?.

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The DNA content of this same cell at metaphase of meiosis will be 2y.

In sexually reproducing organisms, meiosis is a kind of cell division that results in a reduction in the number of chromosomes in gametes (the sex cells, or egg and sperm). Body (or somatic) cells in humans are diploid, meaning they have two sets of chromosomes (one from each parent).

Each bivalent's two chromosomes separate from one another and migrate to the spindle's opposite pole during anaphase-1. Each pole has a haploid number of chromosomes after anaphase I. Therefore, at metaphase-1, the cell's DNA content will have doubled.

Therefore, each chromosome (or chromatid pair) will contain two double-stranded DNA molecules during mitosis' metaphase.

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Which characteristics are present in a crustacean?

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Characteristics of crustacean are as follows:

a segmented body with two pairs of antennae, jointed limbs, and usually two branches on each limb (referred to as biramous),gills.

The crustacean group, which contains all species in the clade Pancrustacea with the exception of hexapods, can be thought of as a subphylum of the clade Mandibulata, according to new molecular studies. Few crustaceans are more closely related to other hexapods and insects than other crustaceans.

Crustaceans are typically marine aquatic animals. Some residents have settled there permanently. Land-based crustaceans include, for example, crabs and woodlice.

Crustaceans are almost universally dioecious. Numerous methods can be used to fertilize an organism. While some crustaceans develop into tiny adults, others go through a nauplius stage as larvae.They are related to insects.

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The site within a chromosome where dna replication begins is known as the of replication.

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At precise locations where the DNA double helix is unwound, known as origins, DNA replication begins. The subsequent synthesis of a short RNA fragment known as a primer serves as the initial step in the synthesis of fresh DNA.

Origins in DNA replication are what?

Typically, the genomic areas at which DNA replication begins are referred to as DNA replication origins. They do, however, include at least two separate components: the DNA region that is identified and bound by particular proteins and that will form the pre-replication complex (pre-RC).

Is the origin of replication where DNA replication begins?

One origin of replication serves as the starting point for DNA replication, and the two replication forks that are formed there travel in opposite directions until they eventually converge approximately halfway around the chromosome.

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What is the purpose of microtubules during Mitosis

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Answer:

During mitosis, microtubules similarly extend outward from duplicated centrosomes to form the mitotic spindle, which is responsible for the separation and distribution of chromosomes to daughter cells.

responsible for the separation and distribution of chromosomes to daughter cells

The matter that is composed of myelinated and unmyelinated axons and is superficial to the gray matter of the spinal cord is called matter.

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White matter in the brain and spinal cord consists mostly of myelinated nerve fibers along with some unmyelinated fibers and neuroglial cells.

What is white matter?

It refers to the areas of the central nervous system (CNS) that are mainly made up of myelinated axons, also called tracts. It affects learning and brain functions, modulating the distribution of action potentials, acting as a relay, and coordinating communication between different brain regions.

Difference between myelinated and unmyelinated nerve fibers?

The main difference between myelinated and unmyelinated nerve fibers is that myelinated nerve fibers contain myelin insulation whereas unmyelinated nerve fibers do not contain myeline insulation.

Myelin sheath prevents the loss of the impulse during conduction and mostly includes peripheral nerves.

The myelin covering the axons of these fibers gives the white brain matter its white appearance and these axons protected by myelin sheath are not easily damaged by the external environment and the rate of nerve impulse is also high in comparison to unmyelinated axons.

Hence white matter is composed of myelinated and unmyelinated axons and is superficial to the grey matter.

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List the end products of digestion for carbohydrates, fats, proteins.

There are enzymes secreted in the saliva, stomach, duodenum, and from the pancreas.

What are the names of these enzymes what do they act on?

Answers

The end products of digestion for carbohydrates, fats, proteins are as follows:

Carbohydrates: Glucose

Fats: Fatty acids and glycerol

Proteins: Amino acids

The digestive enzymes secreted in the saliva, stomach, duodenum, and from the pancreas and their respective substrates are as follows:

Saliva: Salivary amylase (acts on starch), lingual lipase ( acts on fats) and lysozymes (kills pathogenic particles which might have entered the oral cavity via food intake).

Stomach: Pepsin (acts on proteins) and gastric lipase (acts on triglycerides).

Duodenum: Duodenal enterokinase ( acts on trypsinogen and chymotrypsinogen) Maltase (acts on maltose), Lipase (acts on lactose) and Sucrase ( acts on sucrose).

Pancreas: Trypsinogen (inactive form of trypsin), chymotrypsinogen (inactive form of chymotrypsin), elastases (acts on elastin), Lipase ( acts on dietary fat molecules), protease (acts on dietary proteins) and pancreatic amylase (acts on starch molecules).

How do the digestive enzymes secreted in saliva work?

Salivary amylase: Digestion of carbohydrates also starts in the mouth. The amylase produced by the salivary glands, breaks down complex carbohydrates i.e, primarily cooked starch into shorter chains or even simple sugars. It's also known as ptyalin at times.

Lingual lipase: The mouth is where lipid digestion begins. Lingual lipase initiates the breakdown of lipids and fats.

Lysozyme: Because food contains microorganisms like bacteria and viruses in addition to important nutrients, it has a limited but nevertheless useful antiseptic function during digestion.

How do the digestive enzymes secreted in stomach work?

Pepsin: The primary stomach enzyme is pepsin. It is created by the principal cells of the stomach, which are zymogens that manufacture pepsinogen, an inactive form of the digestive enzyme. The stomach acid then converts pepsinogen into its active form, pepsin. Pepsin breaks down the protein in the diet into more manageable pieces like amino acids and fragments of peptides. As a result, protein digestion primarily begins in the stomach, as opposed to carbohydrate and lipid digestion, which begins in the mouth.

Gastric lipase: It is an acidic lipase that is released by the gastric main cells of the stomach's fundic mucosa. Its pH ranges from 3-6. Gastrointestinal lipase and lingual lipase are the two acidic lipases namely. These lipases do not require bile acid or colipase for effective enzymatic action, in contrast to alkaline lipases (like pancreatic lipase). Gastric lipases act on triglyceride molecules to produce fatty acids and glycerol.

How do the digestive enzymes secreted in duodenum work?

Duodenal enterokinase: Trypsinogen is activated into its active i.e, trypsin by the duodenal enzyme enterokinase.

Maltase: Helps in conversion of maltose into glucose.

Lactase: Helps in breaking down of lactose into glucose and galactose.

Sucrase: Breaks down sucrose to produce glucose and fructose.

How do the digestive enzymes secreted in pancreas work?

Trypsinogen: Produced as an inactive (zymogenic) protease which is turned into trypsin in the duodenum. Trypsin breaks down proteins at their fundamental amino acids. The duodenal enzyme enterokinase converts trypsinogen into its active form, trypsin.

Chymotrypsinogen: When duodenal enterokinase activates the inactive (zymogenic) protease chymotrypsinogen, it transforms into the enzyme chymotrypsin, which degrades proteins at their aromatic amino acids.

Carboxypeptidase: A protease which removes the protein's terminal amino acid group.

Elastases: Break down various proteins, including elastin.

Pancreatic lipase: Triglycerides are broken down by pancreatic lipase into two fatty acids and a monoglyceride.

Several nucleases, such as DNAase and RNAase, break down nucleic acids.

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The end products of the digestion of carbohydrates are monosaccharides like glucose, fats are fatty acids and glycerol, and proteins are amino acids.

What are the enzymes that help in the digestion process?

Salivary amylase (ptyalin) is a cleavage enzyme produced by the salivary glands that help in the digestion of carbohydrates and converts them into glucose.

Pepsin is an enzyme secreted by the stomach that serves to digest proteins found in the ingested food.

Gastric lipase is an acidic lipase secreted by the gastric chief cells in the fundic mucosa of the cells that helps in the breakdown of fats into fatty acids and glycerol.

Pancreatic enzymes include trypsin and chymotrypsin in the digestion of proteins, amylase in the digestion of carbohydrates, and lipase to break down fats.

Hence, Digestive enzymes are a group of enzymes that break down polymeric macromolecules into smaller building blocks, in order to facilitate their absorption into the cells of the body.

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The spinal cord is partitioned into a ______ gray matter region and a ______ white matter region.

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The spinal cord is partitioned into an inner gray matter region, and an outer white matter region.

The most crucial element joining the body and the brain is the spinal cord. The first or second lumbar vertebral level is where the spinal cord joins the medulla, which is where it extends from the foramen magnum. It is a crucial link that connects the body and the brain in both directions. The spinal cord measures 1 to 1.5 cm in diameter and 40 to 50 cm in length. On each of its sides, two rows of nerve roots follow one another. 31 pairs of spinal nerves are created as a result of the distal fusion of these nerve roots. The spinal cord is a cylinder-shaped mass of evenly distributed white and gray matter in the neurological system.

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Making good decisions with our natural resources will presumably lead to?

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Presumably, making good decisions with our natural resources will lead to a sustainability of things that are scarce, future creations, and beneficial uses of those products.

An example of a scarce natural resource is coal. If we make good decisions with coal, we would be able to conserve it for future uses to aid in the longer lifespan of humans.

The atomic number is the number of

Question 13 options:

protons


neutrons


electrons


protons and neutrons

Answers

The answer is protons.

Protons = atomic #

Where is the dorsal root ganglion found?

Answers

The dorsal root ganglion is located in under the vertebral pedicle at the thoracic and lumbar levels.

What Is dorsal root ganglion?

The dorsal root ganglion, also known as the spinal ganglion more recently, is made up of sensory neurons' neuronal cell bodies. This is the most prevalent kind of sensory ganglion in the human body.

The dorsal root ganglion, as its name suggests, is connected to the spinal nerve's posterior or dorsal root. It is situated near to where the spinal cord is. The ganglion is formed as the dorsal root of the spinal nerve enlarges as it exits the intervertebral neural foramen. Before the dorsal and ventral roots combine to produce a single spinal nerve, it is present.

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which of the following describe characteristics of cancer cells? check all that apply. group of answer choices altered gene expression increased dna repair long telomeres invasive highly specialized apoptotic

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Characteristics of cancer cells includes long telomeres, invasive and  altered gene expression.

Select all that apply. What are some traits of cancer cells?

In addition to having aberrant membranes, cytoskeletal proteins, and shape, cancer cells also grow and divide at an excessively fast rate. As benign tumors give way to malignant tumors throughout time, the anomaly in cells can grow gradually from normal cells.

While some DNA mutations are unharmful, others can result in disease. When DNA is altered abnormally, cancerous cells are "born" because they grow more quickly and act differently than they should. These tumor-forming cancer cells keep evolving and diverging from one another as they grow in number.

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Differentiate between spores and gametes. (at least in 4 points each) ​

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Answer:

Spores are used in asexual AND sexual reproduction Gametes are used in sexual reproduction only

Spores are produced by bacteria, fungi, algae, and plants.

Gametes are formed through meiosis (reduction division)

Animals don't produce spores

Animals only produce gametes

spores are capable of surviving in harsh environments

gametes are not adapted for harsh environments

In osmosis water always moves toward the what solution that is toward the solution with the what solute concentrate

Answers

Osmosis is the transport of water molecules by simple diffusion. In osmosis water always moves toward the hypertonic solution that is toward the solution with the greater solute concentration. Option B is correct.

What is osmosis?

Osmosis is one type of passive transport that occurs by simple diffusion. This means it does not need energy and occurs in favor of an electrochemical osmotic gradient.

When lipids move in the membrane, they leave open spaces through which water molecules can move. This transport occurs very slowly.

Since it follows its electrochemical gradient, we can say water moves

From the most diluted side to the less diluted one

Water moves from the less concentrated side to the more concentrated one, concerning solute concentration.

From the hypotonic solution to the hypertonic solution.

⇒ A solution is hypertonic to another solution when its solute concentration is higher than the other solution.

⇒ A solution is hypotonic to another solution when its solute concentration is lower than the other solution.

⇒ Solutions are isotonic when their solute concentrations are the same.

In osmosis water always moves toward the hypertonic solution that is toward the solution with the greater solute concentration. Option B is correct.

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Complete question

1. In osmosis, water always moves toward the ____ solution: that is, toward the solution with the ____ solute concentration.

a. Isotonic, greater

b. Hypertonic, greater

c. Hypertonic, lesser

d. Hypotonic, greater

e. Hypotonic, lesser

Explain the role of water potential in the movement of water from soil through the plant and into the air.

Answers

Water potential, which determines the potential energy present in waters and controls how water flows through plants, For photosynthesis to occur, plant use water uptake to move water to the leaves.

What is water potential?

The energy needed to move an infinitesimally small amount of water first from sample to a comparative pool or pure free water is known as the water potential. Controlling the blood's water potential is referred to as osmoregulation. The blood is difficult because it contains so many ions, proteins, and other things.

Why does water potential exist?

Pressure, gravity, and zeta potentials are a few variables that have an impact on water potential. A system's maximum potential energy grows with increasing pressure potential (p); a system's maximum possible energy falls with decreasing p. Cells constantly use up different substances, some more frequently than others depending on the time of day, night, sweat, tears, etc.

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Using a pedigree autosomal recessive traits, such a cystic fibrosis, are easy to follow through the generations. Explain the inheritance of cystic fibrosis in two children of the third generation in

Answers

Cystic fibrosis in the two children of the third generation is inherited in an autosomal recessive inheritance pattern.

Autosomal refers to the 46 chromosomes are present. Among them, 44 are the non-sex chromosome & 2 are the sex chromosomes. Chromosomes are the untangled phase of DNA before cell division.

   The 22 pairs of chromosomes don’t play a role in determining the sex of the human body. They are responsible for the structure of the body. They provide some unique patterns to the body.

       On the other hand, the sex chromosomes are responsible for determining the sex of a human. There are two types of sex chromosomes. One is the X chromosome & another is the Y chromosome.

      The chromosomes are referred to as genes when they are about to get divided. The genes can be either dominant or recessive on one generation. Therefore, in the given condition, it is referred to as autosomal recessive inheritance pattern.

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Which chemical can be used to test for the presence of starch?

Answers

The answer to the question you asked is Lodine solution

what stimulates chemoreceptors to increase breathing rate and depth? group of answer choices excess co2 needs to be removed po2 was too high blood ph was too alkaline more o2 is required

Answers

Excess [tex]CO_{2}[/tex] needs to be removed as it stimulates chemoreceptors to increase breathing rate and depth.

So, the correct option is A.

The rate and depth of breathing are both augmented by hypoxia-induced increased chemoreceptor activity or an increase in carbon dioxide partial pressure, which returns oxygen and carbon dioxide partial pressures to normal levels. When the chemical makeup of their immediate environment changes, chemoreceptors are stimulated. Chemoreceptors come in a variety of forms and are found all over the body. They aid in controlling functions such as taste, smell, and breathing.

The strongest stimulus to take deeper breaths more frequently typically occurs when the concentration of carbon dioxide rises. In contrast, the brain reduces the number of breaths taken and their depth when the blood's carbon dioxide concentration is low.

 

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If flower color exhibits incomplete dominance, a cross between red and white flowers will give what color offspring?.

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A cross between red and white flowers will give pink color offspring.

Partial dominance is the term used to describe the inheritance pattern that arises when both alleles are present because neither allele is dominant over the other. Only somewhat more dominant than the white bloom allele is the red flower allele. Red and white are combined to make pink. Similar to complete dominant and recessive crosses, the results of a hybrid with partially dominant alleles can still be predicted. Due to the white background of the flower petals, the anthocyanin pigment produced by the red allele appears pink in the heterozygote. This is the only explanation that makes sense for the heterozygote's intermediate color.

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The side by side pairing of homologous maternal and paternal chromosomes at the start of meiosis.

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The side-by-side pairing of homologous maternal and paternal chromosomes at the start of meiosis is called Synapsis.

In meiosis I, there are 4 subphases: Homologous chromosomes align themselves side by side during prophase I. They are touching each other on a physical level. Synapsis is the term for this procedure. Crossing over takes place at synapsis. Synaptonemal complex formation takes place during the meiotic prophase along with the pairing of homologous (maternal and paternal) chromosomes, physical contact, and DNA exchange through reciprocal sites of crossing over (chiasmata) between homologs.

Homologous chromosomes pair with their counterparts during meiosis and remain connected as a result of the exchange of genetic material. This process is known as synaptic plasticity. To lessen the genetic makeup of the final gamete cells, homologous chromosomes are coupled and then separated during meiosis.

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The given question is incomplete. The complete question is:

The side-by-side pairing of homologous maternal and paternal chromosomes at the start of meiosis is called____________.

What are the characteristics of Weberian bureaucratic?

Answers

Answer:

no they are not live

Explanation:

Characteristics of Weberian bureaucratic are:

specialization and division of laborformal written recordscompetence for job appointmentsstandard operating proceduresimpersonality in bureaucracy.

What is Weber's theory of bureaucracy?

Max Weber's theory of bureaucracy is an approach that proposes a specific way to manage an organization. It proposes that the most appropriate way to run an organization is to structure it into a rigid hierarchy of individuals governed by strict rules and regulations.

What is an example of bureaucratic theory?

An Army division is broken down into brigades. The brigades are broken down further into battalions. Battalions are divided into companies, and companies are broken down into platoons.

Thus, these are the 5 characteristics of Weberian bureaucracy.

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true or false: vancomycin is more widely used to treat gram-positive bacteria that have become resistant to methicillin, a problem especially in hospitals and the community at large.

Answers

It is true that Vancomycin is a widely used glycopeptide antibiotic that is effective against most Gram-positive bacteria including Streptococcus, Staphylococcus, and Bacillus species.

What is gram-positive bacteria?

Bacteria having thick cell walls are classified as Gram-positive bacteria. These organisms show positive in a Gram stain test. The chemical dye used in the test colours the bacterium's cell wall purple. Staphylococcus (catalase-positive), which grows in clusters, and Streptococcus (catalase-negative), which grows in chains, are examples of Gram-positive cocci. Staphylococci are further classified as coagulase-positive (S. aureus) and coagulase-negative (S. epidermidis and S. aureus). Gram-negative bacteria have a thin peptidoglycan cell wall that is surrounded by an outer lipopolysaccharide-containing membrane. Gram-positive bacteria lack an outer membrane but are surrounded by peptidoglycan layers that are many times thicker than those found in Gram-negative bacteria.

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"The Effects of the Declaration of Independence"Which of the following is a question that could be made from the sectionheading above?A. What were the effects of the Declaration of Independence?B. When was the Declaration of Independence signed?C. Why was the Declaration of Independence signed?OD. What was the Declaration of Independence? During the past five months, Ellespent $3.25 on candy, $12.09 oncupcakes, and $9.88 on chips. ABOUThow much did Elle spend? Harley has been diagnosed with borderline personality disorder and is seeing a therapist who is focused on reducing her radical behaviors, discussing her past traumatic experiences, and helping her to develop a sense of independence and self-respect. Harleys therapist is most likely using. Review for Features of Functions AssessmentSuppose that the function f(x) = 20 + 5.5x represents the cost of making x t-shirts.a. What is f(12)?b. What does your answer to part a mean in context? whatis a cell? i said seek frienda ? hi Which equation illustrates the identity property of multiplication? (x yi) z = (xz yzi) (x yi) 0 = 0 (x yi) (z wi) = (z wi) (x yi) (x yi) 1 = (x yi) which of the following choices list the correct order of structures through which urine passes on its way out of the body? Traditional healers use plants. They generally grow wild. join these statements using relative pronoun Use the quadratic formula to solve for x.8x-8x-1=0 according to the video lectures, a key difference between the ethical positions of cultural relativity vs. cultural universality is.. Suppose that the coding region of a gene contains 1,800 base pairs, with 570 in exon 1, with 420 in exon 2, and with 810 in exon 3 (not counting the stop codon). A protein in a splice variant of this gene in which exon 2 was spliced out would be composed of _________ amino acids. a random sample of 362 california residents responded to a municipal water district poll about how often they water the garden or lawn. the response choices were: daily, every other day, 2-3 times per week, once per week, less than once. the municipal water district wants to know if there is a difference between watering habits in northern california and southern california. a municipal water district employee conducted a chi-square test of independence. in this results table, the observed count appears above the expected count in each cell. daily every other day 2-3 times per week once per week less than once per week totals northern 17 19.2 24 33.1 62 160.0 48 37.6 11 12.1 162 southern 26 23.8 50 40.9 72 74.0 36 46.4 16 14.9 200 totals 43 55 153 84 27 362 which hypothesis is appropriate for a test of independence? check all that apply. group of answer choices : living in northern or southern california is not associated with watering habits. : living in northern or southern california is associated with watering habits. : the proportion of northern california residents watering daily is equal to the proportion of southern california residents watering daily. : the proportion of northern california residents watering daily is less than the proportion of southern california residents watering daily. You jog 2 kilometers in 12 minutes. Your friend jogs3 kilometers in 16.5 minutes. Who jogs faster? How much sooner will the fasterjogger finish a five-kilometer race? What are the three essential elements of African culture retained in the American colonies Choose the correct term to complete the sentence A ____ has function that allow you to appendleft and pop left.O DeckO amplified listO dequeO list Which expression has the value of 7?(3)+4(3+4) Find the slope of this line.make it a fraction. a client with a brain tumor recently stopped radiation and chemotherapy for treatment of the cancer. the client recently reported dry mouth. which intervention by the hospice nurse demonstrates that the nurse understands treatment measures for dry mouth? A 500 kg roller coaster car pauses at the top of a 40 m hill before rolling without friction to the bottom. Determine the speed of the car at the bottom of the hill An object's apparent weight is slightly less when it is at the equator than when it is at the North Pole.