what relatively recent fossil discovery has helped us understand the transition between the lobe-finned fishes and the tetrapods?

Answers

Answer 1

Tiktaalik's recent fossil discovery has helped us understand the transition between the lobe-finned fishes and the tetrapods.

Early lobe-finned fishes are hard fish with plump, lobed, matched blades, which are joined to the body by a solitary bone.

The discovery of well-preserved pelves and a portion of the pelvic fin from Tiktaalik roseae, a 375 million-year-old transitional species between fish and the first animals with legs, indicates that improved hind fins were the actual starting point for the evolution of hind legs.

The non-tetrapod Osteichthyes (bony fish) Tiktaalik was discovered in the Arctic of Canada. It has scales and gills, but it has a triangular, flattened head and unusual, cleaver-shaped fins.

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Related Questions

ribozymes and riboswitches are portions of rna molecules that have properties commonly associated with proteins in that . a. they bind ligands b. they change conformation c. they have catalytic activity d. all of the above e. both a and b

Answers

The RNA molecules known as ribozymes and riboswitches have characteristics with proteins in that they bind ligands and undergo conformational changes.

What exactly are riboswitches and ribozymes?

Small chemicals influence the function of RNA through ribozymes and riboswitches. Numerous tiny compounds act as cofactors and substrates for catalytic RNAs (ribozymes), and gene-regulatory mRNA domains (riboswitches) that control transcription, splicing, translation, or RNA stability are able to sense their intracellular concentrations.

What use do ribozymes serve in ribosomes?

As a component of the large subunit ribosomal RNA inside the ribosome, ribozymes serve to connect amino acids during protein synthesis. Additionally, they take involved in a number of RNA processing processes, such as RNA splicing, viral replication, and transfer RNA biosynthesis.

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the most common type of regenerated fiber, which is derived from cellulose and is mostly plant in origin, is rayon. t or f

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Yes, it is true that rayon, which is made from cellulose and primarily comes from plants, is the most popular type of regenerated fiber.

The most popular kind of regenerated fiber is rayon, which is made from cellulose and is primarily plant-based. Cellulose-based fibers are synthetic polymer fibers, which all have a petroleum-based beginning. While polyester shares many characteristics with nylon, it is more easily dissolved by weak and concentrated acids.

Dietary fibers are often composed of lengthy, repetitive chains of carbohydrates and are generated from indigestible plant components. The insoluble fibers cellulose and lignin can be found in cereal and grain husks, which are where the majority of fibers come from. Cellulose makes up the majority of plant fibers, frequently in conjunction with other substances like lignin. Cotton, hemp, jute, flax, ramie, sisal, and bagasse are a few examples.

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a hormone that stimulates the opening of calcium channels and interaction with calmodulin __________.

Answers

Cytoplasmic enzymes are activated by hormones that promote calcium channel opening and interaction with calmodulin.

What hormones do the adrenal medulla release?

The inner portion of an adrenal gland called the adrenal medulla regulates the hormones that start the flight or fight response. Both epinephrine (adrenaline) and norepinephrine (noradrenaline), which have comparable roles, are the primary hormones released by the adrenal medulla.

What first-tier hormone induces the synthesis of cortisol?

Corticotropin, also known as adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH): Your adrenal glands, which are located above your kidneys, are stimulated by this hormone to make cortisol and other hormones. In reaction to low blood calcium levels, the parathyroid hormone is produced.

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a child of a parent with a mutation in collagen and displaying oi will have what probability of also having oi?

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A child of a parent with a mutation in collagen and displaying oi will have the probability of 50%  having oi. A genetic disease called osteogenesis imperfects (OI) results in recurring bone fractures with little to no obvious stress.

Another name for mutation OI is "brittle bone disease." OI can be mild or severe, and the latter might result in death either before or soon after birth. Adults with OI may experience dental issues, hearing loss, dentinogenesis imperfects, and fractures. Patients with OI may also experience skeletal anomalies, joint laxity, and muscle weakness.

One in 20,000 people have OI, including those who are diagnosed with it later in life. OI affects persons from all racial and cultural backgrounds, as well as males and women equally frequently.

The complete question is:

A child of a parent with a mutation in collagen and displaying oi will have what probability of also having oi? 25% 50% 75% 100%

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A rock has been formed by the accumulation of bits of minerals and soil that are pressurized together. How should this
rock be classified?
O organic rocks
Igneous rocks
O sedimentary rocks
O metamorphic rocks

Answers

C. Sedimentary rocks

Formed from other rocks and minerals

A rock that has been formed by the accumulation of bits of minerals and soil that are pressurized together is a sedimentary rock.

Sedimentary rocks are formed when sediment, such as bits of minerals and soil, are deposited and compacted over time. This can happen when these materials are transported by water, wind, or ice, and then settle in layers. The pressure of the overlying layers can then cause the sediment to compact and form a rock.

Sedimentary rocks can also be formed when the remains of plants and animals are buried and then fossilized over time. These rocks are called sedimentary rocks because they are made up of sediment that has been deposited and compacted over time.

In contrast, igneous rocks are formed when molten rock (magma or lava) cools and solidifies. Metamorphic rocks are formed when existing rocks are subjected to high temperatures and pressures, which cause them to change in texture and composition. And organic rocks are formed from the remains of plants or animals.

two people believe they are related. which would be the best technique to determine if they are related?

Answers

By comparing the DNA we can check whether the two people are related or not related to each other.

What is DNA ?

DNA is an abbreviation for deoxyribonucleic acid. It is a chemical composed of two long molecules spirally organised. This is known as the double-helix structure.

DNA is a genetic information carrier. It contains all of the instructions required for a live creature to develop, reproduce, and operate.

DNA profiles are used by forensic experts to assist solve crimes.

DNA is an abbreviation for deoxyribonucleic acid. It's a chemical composed of two long molecules. The molecules are organised in a spiral pattern, similar to a twisted ladder. This is known as the double helix structure.

Every cell has DNA in its nucleus. DNA is a genetic information carrier. It contains all of the instructions required for a live creature to develop, reproduce, and operate.
By comparing the DNA we can check whether the two people are related or not related to each other.

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which of the following is not a major factor in where and how air moves?

a. pressure
b. temperature
c. density
d. type of gas

Answers

C. Density. The following are the main variables influencing the global atmospheric circulation: uneven surface heating of the soil. seasonal variations in precipitation and temperature. Earth turning on its axis.

Which of the following is missing from the air response?

Air does not contain hydrogen gas; instead, it is mostly composed of trace gases including carbon dioxide and water vapor, as well as 78% nitrogen and 21% oxygen.

Which of the following is not an atmospheric component?

The quantity of water vapor present in the air is referred to as humidity. Since sunlight is not dependent on the atmosphere like the other alternatives mentioned above, it is not a component of weather.

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Solve x^3 = 27
Please help!

Answers

Answer:

x=3

Explanation:

x³=27

³√x³=³√27

x=3

At which type of plate boundary do tectonic plates slide past each other? (1 point)
O at convergent boundaries
O at transform boundaries
O at divergent boundaries
O at oceanic-oceanic boundaries

Answers

B. at transform boundaries

Tectonic plates are the massive, moving pieces of the Earth's crust. At a transform boundary, two plates slide past each other in opposite directions, with no creation or destruction of crust. This type of boundary is often marked by earthquakes, as the plates grind and rub against each other. Examples of transform boundaries include the San Andreas Fault in California and the Alpine Fault in New Zealand.

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apoptosis is a term describing the process by which cells stop dividing and die. it is a normal part of an organism’s life cycle. apoptosis is carefully controlled by enzymes within the cell. what would happen if the genes used to synthesize these enzymes were mutated?

Answers

Enzyme mutations, which are the result of inherited anomalies in the affected person's DNA, can cause serious or fatal illnesses in humans. An enzyme that is encoded by a mutant gene may only have one aberrant amino acid residue at a particular location.

Some mutations force material via the faulty metabolic pathway by increasing the expression of the enzyme upstream of the weak-link enzyme. Others promote the synthesis of a co-substrate for a downstream enzyme, moving more substance through the route. Genetic mutations, which occur as your cells divide and generate duplicates of themselves, are modifications to your DNA sequence. Your DNA teaches your body how to develop and work.

Genetic changes may result in diseases like cancer or, in the long run, may enable people to adapt to their environment more successfully. The process of programmable cell death is called apoptosis. Unwanted cells, such as those between a developing hand's fingers, are removed during the early stages of development. Adult bodies employ apoptosis to get rid of cells that can no longer be repaired.

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the hypothalamus secretes two types of neurohormones called hormones and hormones. State True or False your answer:
a. True
b. False

Answers

Answer:

b. False

Explanation:

Hypothalamus play the important role in the release of many hormones. For example when the level of growth hormone is low, the hypothalamus releases growth hormone releasing factor which stimulate the pituitary gland to release growth hormone.

Explain 3 differences between the leading strand and the lagging strand

Answers

Answer:

pls rate as brainliest

Explanation:

DIFFERENCES

the lagging strand replicates discontinuously forming short fragments, whereas the leading strand replicates continuously .The extension of the leading strand from primer by the action of DNA polymerase occurs without any interruption. lagging strand involves its formation into segments.Leading strand does not involve any activity of DNA ligase for its formation. lagging strand is formed by the activity of ligase

A vine plant brushes against a fence and wraps itself around the fence. to what stimulus is the plant responding?

Answers

Plant grows toward the direction of sunlight to stimulus is the plant responding.

Two different kinds of induced curvature motions are visible in plants. These movements are specifically tropic and nastic. Tropic movements are directional growth patterns in which the stimulus's direction determines the growth's direction. Examples include gravitropism, gravitropism, chemotropism, phototropism, and others. Positive tropism, or the movement of growing plants toward a stimulus, is distinguished from negative tropism, or the movement of growing plants or plant components away from a stimulus. Instead of downward and upward tropism, positive or negative tropism is the definition of a tropic movement.

Light, gravity, water, sun movement, and touch are a few common stimuli for plants. The stimulus is linked to the naming of the tropism. For instance, hydrotropism refers to the root movement of plants toward water.

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if a typical somatic cell has 12 chromosomes, how many chromatids and dna molecules are expected in each cell of that organism?

Answers

12 DNA molecules and the 24 chromatids will be in each cell of that organism.

How does DNA function? What is it?

The instructions required for a creature to grow, endure, and reproduce are encoded in its DNA. Dna fragments must be transformed into messages that are utilized to create proteins, that are the protein complexes that carry out the majority of the tasks in our bodies, in order to complete these activities.

Why is DNA such a big deal?

DNA is crucial for inheritance, protein coding, and supplying guidelines for life and its functions in all living organisms. DNA controls a person's or an animal's growth, reproduction, and final demise. There are 46 chromosomes in total in each of a human cell's 23 pairs of chromosomes.

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the eye has several structures to facilitate sight. which structure serves as the mucous membrane lining of the eyelids?

Answers

The mucous membrane that lines the eyelids is the conjunctiva.

The eye is a sensory organ that functions to provide vision. Based on the anatomical structure, the eye is divided into 3 layers, which consist of the outer layer of the cornea and sclera, the uvea in the middle, and the retina in the deepest layer. When looking at an object, the extraocular muscles voluntarily move the eyeball to find the object.

The conjunctiva itself is a part of the eye in the form of a thin layer which functions to protect the eyeball and contains blood vessels to provide nutrition to the membrane. The conjunctiva protects the eye by producing mucus and tears which will block bacteria or foreign objects from entering the eye. The conjunctiva also causes the eyelids to move easily.

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Suppose you start with two segments of DNA (two different genes). Each one of these two will codify for a specific set of amino acids. The two genes’ sequences are provided below, please show all the steps to get to the correct amino acids. Gene 1: GACAAGTCCACAATC – Gene 2: ATTGCAATCCGG
Hint: you need to use the Genetic Code table from lesson 5.10, Explore: The Genetic Code page 12. Make sure to follow the steps of protein synthesis: from DNA to mRNA to amino acids.
( needs to be 2 paragraphs)

Answers

Converting the genes to mRNA and using the table of genetic codes:

Gene 1: Leu   Phe   Arg   Cys   (stop codon)

Gene 2:   (stop) Arg   (stop) Ala

The genetic codes

The genetic codes, otherwise known as codons, are codes containing 3 nucleotide bases with each code specifying an amino acid. The nucleotide bases are mRNA bases.

Thus, for each gene, the mRNA bases would be the complementary bases.

GACAAGTCCACAATC = CUGUUCAGGUGUUAGATTGCAATCCGG = UAACGUUAGGCC

Using the genetic code table:

For the first mRNA sequence: CUG UUC AGG UGU UAG

                                                  Leu   Phe   Arg   Cys   (stop codon)

For the second mRNA: UAA  CGU  UAG  GCC

                                       (stop) Arg   (stop) Ala

In other words, the amino acid for the first gene would be Leucine, Phenyline, Arginine, Cysteine, and a stop codon.

For the second gene, the amino acids would be a stop codon, Arginine, a stop codon, and Alanine.

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methotrexate is a highly toxic medication that blocks dna synthesis in all cells. what medication needs to be administered after methotrexate to prevent cytotoxic effects in normal cells of the body?

Answers

Methotrexate is a highly toxic medication that is used to treat a variety of conditions, including cancer. It works by blocking DNA synthesis in all cells, which can be beneficial in treating cancer, but can also have detrimental effects on normal cells of the body. To prevent the cytotoxic effects of methotrexate on normal cells, a medication known as leucovorin or folinic acid must be administered after methotrexate.

Leucovorin or folinic acid acts as a “rescue” agent to reduce the toxicity of methotrexate, as it enables normal cells to continue their normal DNA synthesis. Unlike methotrexate, leucovorin does not block DNA synthesis, but rather helps to restore the activity of an enzyme known as dihydrofolate reductase. This enzyme is essential for normal DNA synthesis and is inhibited by methotrexate, but it can be “rescued” by leucovorin, allowing normal cells to escape the cytotoxic effects of methotrexate.

Administration of leucovorin or folinic acid is essential for reducing the cytotoxic effects of methotrexate on normal cells. It is typically administered after methotrexate to help restore the activity of dihydrofolate reductase and to prevent the cytotoxic effects of methotrexate on normal cells. If leucovorin or folinic acid is not administered, the toxic effects of methotrexate on normal cells can be significant and cause serious health complications.

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All of the following are characteristic of the cnidarians except ___________________.
muscle tissue derived from mesoderm
a motile form called the medusa
a sessile form called the polyp
a gastrovascular cavity

Answers

Answer:

a sessile form called the polyp

What i the proper term for the repeated erie of event by which rock gradually and continuouly change from one type to another

Answers

The term "rock cycle" refers to the process by which molten magma cools and transforms into an igneous rock.

What do rocks become as a result of weathering and erosion?

At or near the earth's surface, weathering (the process of breaking down rock) and erosion (the process of transferring rock material) reduce rocks to ever-tinier fragments. These more minute rock fragments, such as sand, silt, or mud, can be deposited as sediments, which then harden or lithify to form sedimentary rocks.

What kinds of weathering do rocks undergo?

Weathering can be classified as biological, chemical, or mechanical. Chemical weathering is the process by which rain gradually eats away at rocks because rain is actually somewhat acidic. Animals and plants can also degrade rocks.

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in the scientific method, after a question is made, what is the next step? responses collect data collect data make a conclusion make a conclusion experiment experiment make a hypothesis

Answers

The scientific method is a process that is used to answer questions and solve problems. It is a widely accepted process used by scientists all over the world to gain knowledge and understanding.

After a question is made, the next step in the scientific method is to make a hypothesis. A hypothesis is an educated guess about what the answer to the question could be. It is an educated guess because the guess is based on the researcher’s knowledge, observations, and research. This hypothesis is then tested in an experiment.

An experiment is a test of the hypothesis. It is used to determine if the hypothesis is correct or not. An experiment should be designed in a way that allows the researcher to answer the question in a clear and concise manner. Once the experiment is complete, the researcher collects and analyzes the data. This data helps the researcher draw a conclusion. A conclusion is the final answer to the question. It is based on the data collected during the experiment and the results of the experiment.

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I really need help on this question

Answers

don’t see a picture?

all of the following are used to detect fetal abnormalities, except: a.amniocentesis. b.chorionic villus sampling. c.colposcopy. d.karyotype.

Answers

All of the following are used to detect fetal abnormalities, except colonoscopy.

Colposcopy is a clinical indicative technique to outwardly inspect the cervix as well as the vagina and vulva utilizing a colposcope. The principal objective of colposcopy is to forestall cervical malignant growth by recognizing and treating precancerous injuries early. Amniocentesis is a test you might be presented with during pregnancy to check in the event that your child has a hereditary or chromosomal condition, like Down's disorder, Edwards' disorder, or Patau's condition. It includes eliminating and testing a little example of cells from amniotic liquid, the liquid that encompasses the child in the belly. Chorionic villus examination (CVS), or chorionic villus biopsy, is a pre-birth test that includes taking an example of tissue from the placenta to test for chromosomal irregularities and certain other hereditary issues.

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sort the statements into the appropriate bins depending on whether they represent factors that varied from participant to participant at the start of this study, factors that were consistent from the start of the study, and factors that were measured in the study.
a. smoking status (smoking vs. non smoking)
b. total food intake
c. percentage of different types of fats eaten
d. activity level
e. sex of participant
f. number of non-fatal heart attacks
g. deaths from coronary heart disease

Answers

Factors that have changed since the start of the study: Variables like smoking status, total calorie intake, percentage of different types of fat consumed, and degree of activity remained the same.

the participant's sex as a result: the number of deaths from coronary heart disease and heart attacks. Coronary artery disease affects the larger coronary arteries on the surface of the heart. Coronary microvascular disease, another form of heart disease, affects the tiny arteries in the heart muscle. Coronary microvascular disease is more common in women. The type of coronary heart disease determines its origin. Coronary artery disease is frequently brought on by cholesterol, a waxy material that builds up inside the coronary artery wall to form plaque. This deposit may entirely smoking statu.

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How do the self-pollination and cross-pollination differ in their mechanisms and genetic diversity?

Answers

Self-pollination produces plants with reduced genetic variety since the genetic material for the gametes and, finally, the zygote are made from the same plant. In contrast, because the male and female gametophytes.

What are self pollinated plants called?

In autogamy, pollen is relocated from the anther about one plant to the stigma of that other flower from the same asteraceae family, or from the microsporangium to the ovule within such a single (monoecious) angiosperm. In involves experiencing, pollen is transmitted from of the anther of one flowers to the stigma of that other bloom on the same flower.

In what ways does self-pollination matter?

Self-pollinating plants are less reliant on outside forces to stimulate pollination. These plants are dependent on the wind or other tiny insects that frequent the bloom. The anthers and stigma of self-pollinating flowers are comparable in length to aid in the transport of pollen.

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The female peacock is less colorful and has a shorter tail than the male. Explain, in evolutionary terms, the advantage that the bright coloration and elaborate tail feature give the male.

Answers

Answer:

The bright coloration and elaborate tail feature of the male peacock are thought to be examples of sexual selection. Sexual selection is a type of natural selection that occurs when certain traits are favored by members of one sex (usually females) when choosing a mate. These traits are often exaggerated or highly visible, and they serve to attract the attention of the opposite sex.

Answer:

In many species, including peacocks, males tend to have more colorful and elaborate physical features than females. This is often referred to as sexual dimorphism. One theory for the evolution of these differences is that they function as a form of sexual selection, in which the more attractive or ornamented individuals are more likely to attract mates and reproduce.

In the case of peacocks, the bright colors and elaborate tail feathers of the male may serve as a visual display that attracts females and signals the male's fitness and genetic quality. The bright colors and elaborate tail may also serve as a way for the male to advertise his presence to other males and potentially deter them from competing for the same females.

Overall, the bright coloration and elaborate tail of the male peacock may have evolved as a way for males to stand out and attract mates, which can increase their reproductive success.

Name the phase:
Prophase
Anaphase
Metaphase
Telophase

Answers

Pretty sure it is telophase.

which type of genetic testing is the most sensitive method for detecting any mutation in a specific gene?

Answers

A mutation in a specific gene can be identified by a technique called Direct DNA sequencing. This is mostly used to recognize single base pair mutation.

The most accurate way to identify any gene mutation is through direct DNA sequencing, a sort of genetic testing. The precise order of the nucleotides along the chromosomes and genomes is determined in laboratories via DNA sequencing, a crucial biological technique. This technique enables the investigation of a wide range of diseases and genetic disorders as well as the identification of gene mutations.

The complete question is:

Which type of genetic testing is the most sensitive method for detecting any mutation in a specific gene? Select one:

a. Direct DNA sequencing

b. Immunohistochemistry

c. Fluorescence in situ hybridization

d. Banded chromosomal analysis

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what is the probability that a mating between two carriers will produce an offspring with a recessively inherited disorder

Answers

There is a 25% probability that a mating between two carriers will produce an offspring with a recessively inherited disorder.

Inorder to understand the probability of mating between two carriers, we need to form a punnet square. In the field of biology, a punnet square is a diagram that shows the probability of outcomes when mating is done between two prospect parents.

Consider two carrier mates to be Hh and Hh. The punnet square will be drawn as:

             H         h

H        HH        Hh

h         Hh         hh

The results of the punnet square show that there is 25% probability for the recessively inherited disorder to occur. 50% probability is there for the offspring being carriers like the parents and 25% probability is that there will be no disorder in the offspring.

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which structure is correctly paired with its function? question 38 options: urethra: transport of urine bladder: concentration of urine nephron: storage of urine ureter: formation of urine

Answers

Urine is carried by the urethra.

Urine travels from the kidneys to the bladder through the ureters. Prior to passing through the urethra and leaving the body, the urine is stored in the bladder. the pipe connecting the kidney to the bladder to transport pee.

Urethra. Urine can travel through this tube and leave the body. Urine leaks from the bladder as a result of the brain's tightening signal to the bladder muscles. In order to allow urine to pass from the bladder through the urethra, the brain sends a signal to the sphincter muscles to loosen up.

The urinary bladder serves as a temporary reservoir for the pee and is reached by the ureters, which transport urine from the kidneys. The urinary bladder's urine is transported to the outside by the urethra, a tubular organ.

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What is deposition?
A the formation of precipitation with lower pH
B
when moisture is evaporated off the leaves of plants
C
when moisture mixes with the dust particles in the atmosphere

D when heavier chemicals fall to Earth after the burning of fossil fuels

Answers

Answer:

B) when moisture is evaporated off the leaves of plants

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