The kind of activity that uses cas9 to cleave target dna is (b) nuclease.
With the use of the straightforward-yet-effective CRISPR/Cas9 genome editing technique, researchers may precisely delete, reorder, add, or modify nucleotides, among other genomic or epigenomic alterations in cells. With the help of these technologies, it is now possible to create animal models for lung disorders and study the consequences of mutations in lung cells made from human iPSCs. Teams are experimenting with the technique to modify disease mutations in iPSCs obtained from patients, differentiate them into different lung cell types, then engraft these cells into the original patient. In a related work, lung cells in animal models were successfully edited using CRISPR technology in utero, paving the way for in vivo editing of disease mutations.
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the autonomic nervous system may cause activation or inhibition, depending on the division that is active and the target that is affected.
True, the autonomic nervous system may cause activation or inhibition, depending on the division that is active and the target that is affected.
There are two parts that make up the autonomic nervous system: the sympathetic nervous system and the parasympathetic nervous system. Based on the target tissue, both the sympathetic and the parasympathetic nervous systems can act in either an excitatory or an inhibitory manner.
The excitatory effects of the sympathetic nervous system lead to a faster heart rate, but at the expense of decreased digestion (inhibitory). Inhibitory effects are exerted by the parasympathetic neural system, which also prompts an increase in digestive activity (excitatory). So the statement is true.
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Tsunamis begin when some kind of trigger, such as an earthquake, landslide, or volcano, causes a large part of the surface of the water to rise or fall. after this sudden displacement of water, _____ acts to balance the water levels back, resulting in a tsunami. question 18 options: gravity the tides the after affects of a hurricane an earthquake
The force that seeks to balances the water levels is the force of gravity.
What is a Tsunami?The term Tsunami has to do a sudden disturbance that occurs in the water. The hurricane does begin when there is a rise of the warm water an this causes a convection current to have been set up in the water and then the water is pushed up towards the land and begin to flow in a forceful manner in the tides.
We know that the Tsunami is able to cause a lot of damage such as earthquake when it is moving in the full force of it and can even lead to the death of so many people.
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Kepler’s first law states that the orbits of planets are ellipses with the Sun at one
.
Answer:
Kepler's First Law: each planet's orbit about the Sun is an ellipse. The Sun's center is always located at one focus of the orbital ellipse. The Sun is at one focus. The planet follows the ellipse in its orbit, meaning that the planet to Sun distance is constantly changing as the planet goes around its orbit
1 how did there get to be such a wide variety of life
2 what does the statement extinction and speciation are both part of evolution
3 why do scientists who study evolution think of 20 milllion years as a short time
100 points if you answer!!!
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The modern definition of evolution in biology often refers to changes in the proportions of biological kinds through time in a population.
What is Evolution?This entry's main objective is to provide a general summary of current evolution-related topics with connections to entries with more in-depth discussion because the subject of evolution is too vast to be covered in detail in one post.
An overview of evolution definitions is given at the start of the article, which is followed by a discussion of the many modes of evolution and associated philosophical questions.
There are more specific definitions of evolution in the literature, some of which do not suit this basic description; the one provided at the beginning of this section is quite general.
Even though Charles Darwin's writings (see the section on Darwinism) are typically the starting point for modern understandings of evolution, it's significant to note that in the first edition of On the Origin of Species, he refers to "descent with modification" rather than evolution.
Therefore, The modern definition of evolution in biology often refers to changes in the proportions of biological kinds through time in a population.
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two identical daughter cells results from mitosis and cytokinesis. in what ways are they “identical”
Two daughter cells produced from mitosis and cytokinesis are "identical" in the sense that they have the same genetic makeup as the parent cell from which they were produced. This means that they have the same number of chromosomes and the same genetic material (DNA) as the parent cell. As a result, the two daughter cells are genetically identical to each other and to the parent cell from which they were produced. This is different from meiosis, in which the daughter cells produced are not genetically identical to each other or to the parent cell.
At an archeological site, you discover a bone that is cylindrical in shape, about one inch long and a quarter of an inch wide. Choose the correct classification.
a. Short
b. Irregular
c. Long
d. Sesamoid
The cylindrical-shaped bone is about one inch long and a quarter of an inch wide is a short bone.
Bones are made from calcium, phosphorus, sodium, and different minerals, as well as the protein collagen. Bones function as the skeleton of the human body, permitting frame elements to move and protective organs from effect harm. they also produce pink and white blood cells.
Bones offer support for our bodies and assist form our shape. Even though they may be very light, bones are sturdy enough to help our entire weight. Bones also shield the frame's organs. The skull protects the mind and paperwork the shape of the face.
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What might happen to an organism that uses asexual reproduction if the average temperature of its habitat changes?.
In asexual reproduction, if habitat temperature changes, the species may become extinct because it cannot adapt to change.
Asexual reproduction refers to a type of reproduction where a child is born to a single parent. The newly created people share the same genetic makeup and physical characteristics. There is little variation between parent and offspring when asexual reproduction occurs, such as in budding, because identical copies of the parent cell are produced. While asexual reproduction has the benefit of quick reproduction, it also has a significant drawback.
Natural selection uses variability to aid in population adaptation to environmental change. When the environment changes, it is easier for organisms whose genes are better adapted to the new environment to pass those genes on. As a result, the population changes throughout time to include more of these alleles. A population with little variability finds it harder to adjust to environmental changes. and thus the species may become extinct because it cannot adapt to change.
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Imagine an audience/group of peers, parents, community members. What questions
would you ask them to get them talking to each other and sharing ideas about the
ethics of your case?
Answer:
Ask questions like...
What would you do if you were in this situation?
What should be the consequences of this person's (someone involved in the case) actions? And is this justified/were there actions justified?
How could someone's background influence their positions in the case and do you share any of these qualities?
Explanation:
Ask questions that cause the audience to take a personal approach in an ethics case in order to help them become more engaged.
between which two genes would you expect the highest frequency of recombination?
We can deduce from the list of chromosomes and the aforementioned question that we should expect 15% recombination between the W and G genes since the map distance between them is equivalent to 15 centimorgans. It's a choice (B).
What is centimorgan?The unit for describing a 1% recombination frequency used to measure map distance is the centimorgan (cM). The lowest frequency of recombination, or 3%, is predicted to occur between W and E based on this criterion, we can deduce. Assume P is the epistatic gene in charge of regulating the development of the tail.
The male lacks a tail and is recessive homozygous for the tail length gene, so the genotype of the male is PPtt, in accordance with the question, and the genotype of the female is ppTT. The dominant epistatic allele P specifies that there is no tail formation in the female, who has a long tail. The genotype PpTt and phenotype "no tails" are present in the offspring that is born following mating. Two springs with the same PpTt genotype are being crossed right now. In order to determine the resulting ratio, Punnett square can be used.
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Complete question is " The following is a map of four genes on a chromosome. A---5--W--3--E------12------G. Between which two genes would you expect the highest frequency of recombination?
a. A and G
b. W and G
c. W and E
d. A and W
e. E and G".
It i now poible to have your peronal dna equenced and analyzed. In addition to ancetry reearch ,people often ue thi information to make deciion regarding their health. Ome ay we can now predict which potential health concern a peron may face in their life. I thi an accurate prediction?
No, it is not an accurate prediction that we can now predict which potential health concern a person may face in their life.
While it is possible to sequence and analyze personal DNA and use the results to gain some insight into potential health concerns, it is not possible to accurately predict which health concerns a person may face in their life.
The sequencing and analysis of personal DNA can provide an indication of genetic predisposition to certain health conditions, such as certain types of cancer, heart disease, diabetes, and other conditions. However, these genetic predispositions are only one factor in a person's health and do not accurately predict whether a person will actually develop a certain health condition.
Other factors, such as lifestyle, environment, and access to healthcare, can play a much larger role in a person's health than genetics. For example, a person may have a genetic predisposition to heart disease, but if they live a healthy lifestyle, exercise regularly, and have access to quality healthcare, they may still never develop the condition. Conversely, another person may live an unhealthy lifestyle, have no access to healthcare, and still never develop heart disease.
Therefore, while the sequencing and analysis of personal DNA can provide some insight into a person's potential health concerns, it is not an accurate prediction of which health concerns a person may face in their life.
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the total number of individuals of the same species that occupy a given area at a given time is the
The total number of individuals of the same species that occupy a given area at a given time is the population.
The word population is defined as the amount of individuals from the same species that inhabit a specific geographic area at any given time. Organisms of the same species may form multiple populations in different geographical areas. A population is made up of all the frogs in a given pond. Frogs but also water hyacinth plants ended up finding in a pond, a Murray, a stream, and a lake, for example, are different populations of a single organism.
According to the United Nations, the world's population will surpass 8 billion on November 15, 2022, and 7 billion on March 12, 2012. According to a separate UN estimate, the Earth's population surpassed seven billion through October 2011, presenting unprecedented challenges and possibilities for all of human civilization, according to UNFPA.
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which size forest fragment would be most affected by habitat fragmentation over a given period of time?
The smaller the forest fragment, the more likely it is to be affected by habitat fragmentation over a given period of time. Fragments less than 500 hectares (about 1,250 acres) are particularly vulnerable to fragmentation, as they lack the diversity and resilience of larger fragments.
Step 1: Habitat fragmentation is the process of breaking up large, continuous habitats into smaller, isolated patches. Fragmentation of large forest fragments can significantly reduce the amount of suitable habitat available to species, leading to decreased diversity, decreased abundance of certain species, and increased isolation.
Step 2: The size of the forest fragment that is most affected by fragmentation over a given period of time depends on the type of species that inhabit the forest. Some species, such as large mammals, may require large areas of habitat in order to survive, while other species may be able to survive in smaller fragments.
Step 3: To determine which size forest fragment would be most affected by habitat fragmentation, it is important to consider the type of species that inhabit the forest, as well as the amount of fragmentation that has already occurred. For example, a forest fragment that is already highly fragmented may be more affected by further fragmentation than a larger, less fragmented fragment.
Step 4: In general, the smaller the forest fragment, the more likely it is to be affected by fragmentation over a given period of time. This is because smaller fragments are more vulnerable to edge effects, such as changes in temperature, wind, and water levels, which can lead to changes in the species.
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in a genome-wide expression study using a dna microarray assay, what is each spot used to detect?a. location of a protein produced by a cellb. location of a gene within a cellc. expression of a specific gene by a celld. fate of proteins produced by a celle. type of chemical modification of proteins produced by a cell
Answer: epressi
Explanation: In a genome-wide expression study using a DNA microarray assay, each well is used to detect the
location of a protein produced by a cell.
location of a gene within a cell.
expression of a specific gene by a cell.
fate of proteins produced by a cell.
type of chemical modification of proteins produced by a cell.
large air tubes leading from the trachea to the lungs which convey air to and from the lungs; consist of primary, secondary or tertiary and right and left bronchioles
Answer:
Explanation:
Further down, the trachea divides into two tubes (left and right) called bronchi (BRAHN-kye). The bronchi connect the trachea to the lungs.
7. When a bacterium releases inter-species chemical molecules used for quorum sensing, what other bacteria can
detect and respond to that signal?
all bacteria in the area
only bacteria that are from the same family
only the exact same type of bacteria
all virulent bacteria in the host organism
Answer: only the same bloof cell type
Explanation:
it say in the book
which is more likely to result in a nonfunctional protein insertion of one base or insertion of 3 base
A frameshift mutation is more likely to cause a protein to become dysfunctional. A point mutation might preserve the original amino acid sequence and the resulting protein, acting as a quiet mutation.
A frameshift mutation changes the base sequence in codons by causing the insertion and deletion of nucleotide bases. This alters the AA (amino acid) sequence and the proteins that follow. A silent mutation, which is a component of a point mutation, preserves the AA sequence and the protein that follows.
A frameshift mutation is a genetic change brought on by an insertion or deletion that changes how the DNA sequence is read. A chain of numerous smaller molecules known as nucleotides makes up a DNA sequence. Codons are units of reading that consist of three nucleotides and are used to represent specific amino acids or stop signals in DNA (or RNA) nucleotide sequences. To create a chain of amino acids and a protein, the codon sequence is read sequentially from the nucleotide sequence during translation.
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classify each phrase as applying to the lytic cycle, the lysogenic cycle, or both types of reproductive cycles of phages. drag the descriptions into the appropriate bins.
Lytic: New phages are assembled from viral DNA and Proteins, cell is lysed, and the host is destroyed.
Lysogenic: Cell reproduces normally, and the viral DNA integrates into the chromosome of the host cell.
Both: Viral genes are being replicated.
A gene is the fundamental physical and purposeful unit of heredity. Some genes act as instructions to make molecules referred to as proteins.
Our genes incorporate instructions that inform your cells to make molecules referred to as proteins. Proteins perform various features on our body to keep us healthy. Every gene includes commands that determine your functions, together with eye color, hair shade, and height. Few genes act as commands to make molecules referred to as proteins.
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describe a potential way for bacteria to determine how many other bacteria are nearby, using signal transduction
Bacteria release multiple quorum-sensing autoinducers, some of which only one particular species can sense and some of which can be detected by a few or many bacterial species. The blend of autoinducers perceived by a bacterium corresponds to how many and what bacterial species are nearby.
Instead of using words to communicate, bacteria use substances called autoinducers. The bacteria start to demonstrate novel behaviors that can only be successful when many cells cooperate when autoinducer levels start to rise because they become aware that there are many other cells nearby. Numerous processes, including disease, symbiosis, and the production of biofilms (bacterial populations attached to surfaces), include quorum sensing. Quorum sensing was initially discovered in marine bacteria that produce bioluminescence and bacteria that could absorb DNA from the environment (make light) in a single transduction.
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which complexes in the electron transport chain do not contribute to the pumping of protons in to the intermembrane space?
(A) The majority of the energy in mitochondria is NOT directly influenced by Complex II. Instead, this protein oxidizes FADH2 and transfers the electron to coenzyme.
In contrast to complex burn, complex second does not transport protons to the intermembrane space, hence it contributes less energy to the total electron transport chain. Complex seconds is a parallel electron carriers pathway to complex burn. The majority of the energy in mitochondria is NOT directly influenced by Complex II. Instead, this protein oxidizes FADH2 and transfers the electron to coenzyme Q. In order to move hydrogen atoms from the matrices into the intermembrane gap, the other complex all employ electron energy.Contrary to Complex I, Complex II does not transport protons to the intermembrane gap, making it a parallel electron carriers channel to Complex 1. Coenzyme Q, which takes proton from the matrix at complexes I or II & releases them into the inner membrane at complex III, carries protons across the membrane.
(Which complexes in the electron transport chain do NOT contribute to the pumping of protons in to the intermembrane space?
I and V
III and IV
II and V
I and II)
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he diagram shows a charge moving into an electric field.
Two horizontal parallel plates have equally spaced vectors going from the bottom plate to the top plate. A negatively charged sphere labeled Z in traveling horizontally in between the plates. A vector is pointing right. The top plate is labeled W. There is an X at the far end of the top plate and a Y at the far end of the bottom plate.
The charge will most likely leave the electric field near which letter?
W
X
Y
Z
The charge will most likely leave the electric field near letter Z.
In the diagram, the electric field lines are shown as uniformly spaced vectors extending from the bottom plate to the top plate. This indicates that the electric field is uniform, with the same strength and direction at all points between the plates. The negatively charged sphere labeled Z is moving horizontally between the plates, with a vector pointing right. This indicates that the sphere is moving in the same direction as the electric field, and will therefore be pushed by the field as it travels between the plates.
Since the electric field is uniform and the sphere is moving in the direction of the field, the sphere will continue moving in the same direction until it reaches the end of the plates, at which point it will leave the electric field. This means that the sphere will most likely leave the electric field near letter Z, which is located at the end of the plates.
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Why does the United States have so many Superfund sites compared with other nations?
The "Superfund" law, also known as CERCLA or the Comprehensive Environmental Response, Compensation, and Liability Act, was enacted in 1980.
What are Superfund sites?The federal superfund program was established in December 1980 in response to the grave dangers that hazardous waste dumps.
The iconic Love Canal landfill in Niagara Falls, New York, posed throughout the nation.
Therefore, as of October 2022, New Jersey had 115 hazardous waste sites, which is the highest in the whole US. California and Pennsylvania came next, with 96 and 90 sites, respectively.
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neuron serving as part of the conduction pathway between sensory and motor neurons
Answer: Interneurons
Explanation:
for an enzyme-catalyzed reaction, when the enzyme is denatured and loses its shape, what is affected?
a photoreceptor is exposed to a flash of darkness. how does the membrane potential of the photoreceptor and its corresponding on-center bipolar and on-center ganglion cells change?
Instead of an action potential, photoreceptors show a graded change in membrane potential in response to light.
Additionally, they have a resting membrane potential of about -40 mV and hyperpolarize when exposed to light.
In the absence of light, an influx of sodium and calcium through open ion channels that are controlled by cGMP causes the photoreceptor to become depolarized. When it is dark, the photoreceptor has high quantities of cGMP. The G-protein transducin, phosphodiesterase (PDE), and the opsin proteins are also deactivated. Darkness causes photoreceptors to become depolarized (dark gray in color), which causes them to release more glutamate than usual.
These photodetectors get hyperpolarized by light, which reduces their glutamate release (light blue color).
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FILL IN THE BLANK. a spinal reflex requires the participation of each of the following, except __________.
A spinal reflex requires the participation of each of the following, except cerebral cortex.
Spinal cord reflexes are basic actions that are induced by central nervous system (CNS) circuits that are totally contained inside the spinal cord. The sensory afferent fibres that elicit these reflexes reach the spinal cord and directly or indirectly trigger spinal motor neurons via a chain of one or more spinal interneurons.
The stretch reflex, Golgi tendon reflex, crossed extensor reflex, and withdrawal reflex are all examples of spinal reflexes. The monosynaptic reflex arc is the most basic type of spinal reflex, including four components: The receptor (in this case, the muscle spindle). The withdrawal reaction (reflex), also known as the nociceptive flexion reflex, is a spinal cord natural response that is important in shielding the body from damaging stimuli.
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the release of insulin from the pancreatic beta cells can inhibit further release of insulin from the same cells. this is an example of which type of hormone action?
Insulin released from pancreatic beta cells may prevent more insulin release from the same cell. This is an illustration of how an autocrine hormone works.
Insulin is released when glucose and other carbohydrates that are digested by islets are consumed. The liver absorbs glucose & stores it as glycogen when the pancreatic B cells are activated too release insulin into to the circulation. Insulin then travels to body cells to help them absorb more glucose. Increased blood glucose levels cause insulin to be released. The – angiotensin – aldosterone system somatostatin is secreted by the delta cell, which makes up 4% of the islet cells. The islets of Langerhans' delta cells release somatostatin, which prevents the pancreas from secreting insulin. Several agonists, including prostaglandins, galanin, somatostatin, and norepinephrine
(The release of insulin from the pancreatic beta cells can inhibit its further release from the same cells. This is an example of _______ hormone action.
A)retinoid
B)autocrine
C)juxtaposed
D)arachidonic)
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orographic lifting is related to mountain barriers, and it is often associated with ________.
Orographic lifting is related to mountain barriers, and it is often associated with desert conditions on the leeward side of the mountains and excessive rainfall on the windward side.
When air masses have been forced to flow over high topography, the orographic effect occurs. Cooling occurs as air rises placed above a white mountains, and water vapour condenses. As a result, rain is commonly concentrated here on windward side of mountains and increases with elevation in the path of storm tracks.
Whenever an air mass is compelled to rise from a low elevation as it moves placed above a white rising terrain. As the air mass ascends, it rapidly cools adiabatically, raising the relative humidity to 100% and causing clouds as well as, under the right circumstances, precipitation.
Identical to orographic, when air is forced to rise as well as cool due to landscape features such as hills or mountains, this is referred to as lifting. Water vapour condenses into clouds if the temperature is low enough. Rain or snow provide additional cooling.
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The body temperature is controlled by the
Centre in the brain.
The thermoregulatory centre has
Which monitor the temperature of the blood.
We also find temperature receptors in the
.
These send electrical impulses down
neurones to the thermoregulatory centre in the brain.
The body temperature is controlled by the center in the brain. The thermoregulatory center has the receptors which monitor the temperature of the blood. We also find temperature receptors in the hypothalamus of the brain. These send electrical impulses down the neurons to the thermoregulatory center in the brain.
What is the thermoregulatory system?Thermoregulation is the mechanism by which mammals such as humans maintain their body temperature with tightly controlled self-regulation which is independent of the external temperature. These organisms are called homeotherms.
Temperature regulation is a type of homeostasis and is a means of preserving a stable internal temperature of the body in order to survive in the various environmental conditions. The thermoregulation system includes the hypothalamus in the brain, as well as the sweat glands, skin, and the circulatory system.
The human body maintains temperature at which the enzymes work best, which is around 37°C. This process is controlled by the thermoregulatory center which is present in the hypothalamus of the brain, and it contains the receptors which are sensitive to the temperature of the blood.
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check all that are true statements regarding the anatomy and structure of the sympathetic division.
a. the neuron cell bodies are located in the lateral homs of their spinal cods segments
b. the preganglonic sympathetic axons remain in the spinal cods for a large distance before leaving
c. the sympathetic trunk ganglias house sympathetic ganglionic neuron cell bodies
d. the splanchic nerves are composed preganglionic sympathetic axons that did not synapse in a symphatetic trunk ganglion
a)The neuron cell bodies are located in the lateral horns of their spinal cord segments. c)The sympathetic trunk ganglia house sympathetic ganglionic neuron cell bodies. d)The splanchnic nerves are composed of preganglionic sympathetic axons that did not synapse in a sympathetic trunk ganglion. are true statements regarding the anatomy and structure of the sympathetic division.
The sympathetic division expands (dilates) the airways to facilitate breathing and raises heart rate and the power of cardiac contraction. The body expels the energy it has been holding onto. Strengthening of the muscles. This separation also makes the palms sweat, the eyes enlarge, and the hair stand on end. The best-known function of your sympathetic nervous system is how it reacts to risky or stressful circumstances. Your sympathetic nervous system becomes active in these circumstances to assist you escape danger by increasing your heart rate, delivering more blood to your body's oxygen-depleted regions, and other actions.
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Why is it important for the oxygen that enters your bloodstream to reach your cells?