What is the slope of the linear function represented in
the table?
-7
-1/7
1/7
7

Answer:

30,440 feet

Step-by-step explanation:

You simply just add 29,029 and 1411 because if you picture it on a number line, 29,029 would be to get to zero as well as 1411 going up in elevation.

Answer:

y = -2x - 8

Step-by-step explanation:

Parallel lines always have the same slope. Here, it is -2.

So, our equation so far looks like this:

y = -2x + b, where b is the y-intercept

We need to find b. We know our line passes through (-4, 0), so let's plug -4 in for x and 0 in for y:

y = -2x + b

0 = -2 * (-4) + b

0 = 8 + b

b = -8

Since b = -8, our equation is thus y = -2x - 8.

~ an aesthetics lover

The midpoint of AB is (-1, 4.5)

x-coordinates: (2-4)/2 = -2/2 = -1

y-coordinates: (3+6)/2 = 9/2 = 4.5

Solution: (-1, 4.5)

Answer:

562.9

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

-5 + 7p + 14 + 11p = 18p + 9

18p + 9 = 18p + 9

0 = 0

Pedro is correct

Answer:

f(-2) = 21

Step-by-step explanation:

Step 1: Define

f(x) = 3x² - 4x + 1

f(-2) is x = -2

Step 2: Substitute and Evaluate

f(-2) = 3(-2)² - 4(-2) + 1

f(-2) = 3(4) + 8 + 1

f(-2) = 12 + 9

f(-2) = 21

A. Noncolinear

ABE although they are in the same side, but they don't lie on the same line.

so its a noncolinear.

Answer:

ABE although they are in the same side, but they don't lie on the same line.

so its a noncolinear.

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

Hope that will help you

Greetings from Brasil...

→ Collinear points = points belonging to the same line

→ PQ is said to be equal to RS. Let’s call this distance X

→ let's call QR Y

With this information and the figure in the annex we can conclude that:

refer to attached

PQ = X

QR = Y

RS = PQ = X

then

PR = PQ + QR

16 = X + Y       i

PS = PR + RS

21 = 16 + X

X = 5       putting in i

16 = X + Y

16 = 5 + Y

Y = 11

So,

Collinear points are points on the same line.

The value of QR is 11

From the question, we have:'

This means that:

[tex]\mathbf{PR = PQ + QR}[/tex]

[tex]\mathbf{QS = QR + RS}[/tex]

[tex]\mathbf{PS = PR + RS}[/tex]

The given parameters are:

[tex]\mathbf{PS = 21}[/tex]

[tex]\mathbf{PR = 16}[/tex]

[tex]\mathbf{PQ = RS}[/tex]

Substitute the above values in [tex]\mathbf{PS = PR + RS}[/tex]

[tex]\mathbf{21= 16 + RS}[/tex]

Solve for RS

[tex]\mathbf{RS = 21- 16}[/tex]

[tex]\mathbf{RS = 5}[/tex]

This means that:

[tex]\mathbf{PQ = RS = 5}[/tex]

Substitute 5 for PQ in [tex]\mathbf{PR = PQ + QR}[/tex]

[tex]\mathbf{PR = 5+ QR}[/tex]

Substitute [tex]\mathbf{PR = 16}[/tex] in [tex]\mathbf{PR = 5+ QR}[/tex]

[tex]\mathbf{16 = 5+ QR}[/tex]

Solve for QR

[tex]\mathbf{QR = 16 - 5 }[/tex]

[tex]\mathbf{QR = 11}[/tex]

Hence, the value of QR is 11

Read more about collinear points at:

https://brainly.com/question/1593959

Multiply both sides by negative four to get rid of the fraction

j+18=-32

subtract 18

j=-50

Step-by-step explanation:

A = wh

225 in² = (13.75 in) h

h ≈ 16.4 in

No, the mirror is too tall.

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Solution :-

Following are the population of five major cities of India according to the Census of 2011.

1) Mumbai  

a) Indian System :

1,24,42,373 - One Crore Twenty Four Lakh Forty Two Thousand Three Hundred Seventy Three.

b) International system :

12,442,373 - Twelve Million Four Hundred Forty Two Thousand Three Hundred Seventy Three.

2) Delhi  

a) Indian System :  

1,10,34,555 - One Crore Ten Lakh Thirty Four Thousand Five Hundred Fifty Five.

b) International System :

11,034,555 - Eleven Million Thirty Four Thousand Five Hundred Fifty Five.

3) Bangalore  

a) Indian System :

84,43,675 - Eighty Four Lakh Forty Three Thousand Six Hundred Seventy Five.

b) International system :

8,443,675 - Eight Million Four Hundred Forty Three Thousand Six Hundred Seventy Five.

4) Hyderabad  

a) Indian System :

67,31,790 - Sixty Seven Lakh Thirty One Thousand Seven Hundred Ninety.

b) International System :

6,731,790 - Six Million Seven Hundred Thirty One Thousand Seven Hundred Ninety.

5) Ahmedabad  

a) Indian System :  

55,77,940 - Fifty Five Lakh Seventy Seven Thousand Nine Hundred Forty.

b) International System :

5,577,940 - Five Million Five Hundred Seventy Seven Thousand Nine Hundred Forty.

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

Comment me if you want to help me find my lost love

Answer:

[tex]MP = (5,3)[/tex]

Step-by-step explanation:

[tex]MP= (\frac{x_1+x_2}{2}) (\frac{y_1+y_2}{2} )\\MP= (\frac{7+3}{2}) (\frac{11+-5}{2} )\\MP= (\frac{10}{2}) (\frac{6}{2} )\\MP= (5,3)[/tex]

Answer:

[tex]12x^{2} -5x -2[/tex]

Step-by-step explanation:

We multiply the first term 3x by 4x and then 3x multiplied by one. We proceed to multiply by -2 by 4x and multiplied by -2 +1. We finally add and get the result.

[tex]12x^{2} -5x -2[/tex]

the answer is it is function

Answer:

m = [tex]\frac{k}{q^2}[/tex]

Step-by-step explanation:

Given m varies inversely as q² then the equation relating them is

m = [tex]\frac{k}{q^2}[/tex] ← k is the constant of variation

Answer: the temperature of 76.1 degrees Fahrenheit converted to degrees Celsius

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:Aka) A

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

9/100 i believe as you would multiply 3/10 by 3/10 due to the fact the marble is being replaced so the probability of getting a red marble the second time will be more unlikely. If I'm right please thank me or give me brainly. Hope this helps :)

The probability of drawing two red marbles, if the first marble is replaced after it is drawn, is 9/100.

What is Probability?

It is a branch of mathematics that deals with the occurrence of a random event.

The probability of drawing a red marble on the first draw is 3/10, since there are 3 red marbles out of a total of 10 marbles.

Since the first marble is replaced before the second draw, the probability of drawing a red marble on the second draw is also 3/10.

To find the probability of drawing two red marbles in a row, we multiply the probabilities of the individual events, since they are independent:

P(drawing two red marbles) = P(red on first draw) × P(red on second draw)

P(drawing two red marbles) = (3/10) × (3/10)

= 9/100

Therefore, the probability of drawing two red marbles, if the first marble is replaced after it is drawn, is 9/100.

To learn more on probability click:

https://brainly.com/question/11234923

#SPJ3

Answer:

To get to the other side

Obviously

Answer:

"To get to the other side".

What is even the point of that "joke"?:

"Why did the chicken cross the road?" is a common riddle joke, with the answer being "To get to the other side". It is an example of anti-humor, in that the curious setup of the joke leads the listener to expect a traditional punchline, but they are instead given a simple statement of fact.

Answer:

10

Step-by-step explanation:

if 4 cupcakes were 2/5 of what she started out with, i divided 4/2 and got 2 so 2 cupcakes per 1/5, 2*5=10 so 5/5 is the 10 cupcakes

Answer:

a does because 5-3= 2 net force to the right and b would total out to 1 to the right

Step-by-step explanation:

Greetings from Brasil...

As we have a line, the function will be given by the expression:

F(X) = AX + B

where

A = ΔY/ΔX

B = where the line intersects the Y axis

Looking at the graph we have already concluded that

B = - 3

A = ΔY/ΔX

A = (5 - 3)/(4 - 3)     see attached picture

A = 2

So,

F(X) = AX + B

Answer:

f(x)= 3|x-3|+1

Step-by-step explanation:

Reason why it's not +3 is because it's the reverse when graphed. But that only applies for the numbers in the brackets. If it's in the brackets and it's positive, you go to the left. If it's negative, then it goes to the right. And as you see, the V isn't on the point (0 , 3), and is in fact, above it, by 1. The graph has also been stretched vertically by 3, it looks like. Hope that was helpful for you!

Answer:

y = 2|x-3| + 1

Step-by-step explanation:

The vertex of g(x) = |x| is at (0,0)

We have moved the vertex to ( 3,1)

y = f(x) + C  C > 0 moves it up

y = |x| + 1 for the shift up 1

y = f(x + C)  C < 0 moves it right

y = |x-3|  for the shift to the right 3

y = Cf(x)  C > 1 stretches it in the y-direction

y = 2|x| since  it is stretched by a factor of 2 in the y direction

Combining

y =2|x-3| + 1

Answer: 7

pounds for 3.15 is a better option

Step-by-step explanation:

Here in this question, we want to know which of the two options is a better option for buying crickets.

To know the better option, we shall be needing the unit price in whatever system to be used;

7 pounds of crickets for 3.15;

so the unit price here will be 3.15/7 = 0.45 per pound

For the second system, we have 3 pounds for 1.47 so the unit price will be 1.47/3 = 0.49 per pound

As we can see, the first option commands a cheaper price per unit, so it is the better option to buy

Hey there! I'm happy to help!

Tom has 150 already saved and for every hour he works, he will gain an extra $25. After h hours, he will have $300,

So, we multiply 25 by n, because for every hour he will have 25 added to his total, and repeated addition is multiplication, so we multiply 25 by n.

We add 150 as that is what we already have saved.

Finally, we want this to equal 300.

So, here is our equation.

25n+150=300

Now we solve. We subtract 150 from both sides.

25n=150

We divide both sides by 25.

n=6

Tom will have to work six hours to buy the iPhone.

Have a wonderful day! :D

Answer:

25(6)+150=300

Step-by-step explanation:

25x+150=300

25x=300-150

25x/25=150/25

x=6

Answer:

A

Step-by-step explanation:

2w means 2 pounds per week

you need less than or equal to because think about it like this

you want to be LESS THAN or EQUAL TO 190 pounds. on the right side is reality , what you really are. you need the right side to be LOWER or EQUAL to the left side!