What is the principal reason that appetite is turned off immediately after a person finishes an intense workout

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Answer 1

The question is incomplete. Please read below to find the missing content.

Ghrelin is a hunger hormone that stimulates appetite and promotes fat storage. An intense workout may suppress the release of ghrelin and hence turn off the appetite 5) The elevated blood lactate level antagonizes ghrelin.

Your belly releases ghrelin when it is empty to signal your mind that it is time to devour. Ghrelin is often called the starvation hormone, but it does extra than manage starvation. It also signals your pituitary gland to launch boom hormones, plays a position in insulin release, and protects your cardiovascular health.

Exposing your frame to chill and even bloodless temperatures may additionally help recruit extra brown fat cells. a few research shows that just 2 hours of publicity each day to temperatures around 66°F (19°C) can be sufficient to turn recruitable fat brown. You may remember taking a chilly bath or ice bathtub.

The important thing neurotransmitters controlling the urge for food, at the least in vertebrates, are serotonin (5-HT) and catecholamine. these neurotransmitters act to reduce feeding behavior and therefore meal consumption.

What is the principal reason that appetite is turned off immediately after a person finishes an intense workout

1) The sense of smell and taste are suppressed for at least one hour.

2) Glucose and Fatty acid are abundant in the blood.

3) Leptin secretion is markedly increased.

4) The feeling of thirst overpowers the desire for food.

5) The elevated blood lactate level antagonizes ghrelin.

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Related Questions

Term birth, living male, cesarean delivery, with hemolytic disease due to ABO incompatibility. Code the baby’s record.
ICD-10-CM:
ICD-10-CM:

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Full-term, live male, cesarean delivery(ICD 10 - O82), with hemolytic disease due to ABO incompatibility(ICD 10 - P55). Code in the baby registry.

ICD 10 - O82 Single delivery by cesarean sectionICD 10 - P55 Hemolytic disease of the fetus and newborn

What does the ICD mean?

The International Classification of Diseases and Related Health Problems, better known as the ICD, is one of the main epidemiological tools in everyday medical practice. The main function of the ICD is to monitor the incidence and prevalence of diseases, through universal standardization.

With this information, we can conclude that ICD-10 is the 10th revision of the International Statistical Classification of Diseases and Related Health Problems

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At the close of a presurgical examination, it is your responsibility to bring the client written instructions related to hospital admission and pre-surgery preparations. As you present the information to Mia Trong, you sense that she may still have some questions. She seems hesitant to leave. What will you say? What will you do? What steps do you take to make certain Mia's questions have all been addressed?

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Mia Trong feels hesitant before leaving the hospital because this behavior of the patient is commonly seen in the healthcare system before or after any major operation on any serious illness or disease.

What is the responsibility of the healthcare provider in this case?

Healthcare providers have the responsibility to confirm the patient and illustrate everything in detail related to the patient's disease and treatment.

It is also seen that sometimes patients do not ask some questions or queries associated with gender differences, feel stress, or any other reason, it is the duty of the healthcare provider to depict all of the patient's doubts based on their experiences.

The steps that should be taken to make certain Mia's questions have all been addressed include asking the patient some questions and letting him answer them all by own. This would assist the healthcare providers in further clearing the doubts that are running in the mind of the patient.

Therefore, it is well described above.

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Answer:

Explanation:

At the close of a presurgical examination, it is your responsibility to bring the client written instructions related to hospital admission and pre-surgery preparations. As you present the information to Mia Trong, you sense that she may still have some questions. She seems hesitant to leave. What will you say? What will you do? What steps do you take to make certain Mia's questions have all been addressed?

When insulin is administered in excess, blood glucose level ______________, producing early signs of hypoglycemia, which, if left untreated, results in a dangerous state called insulin shock.

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When insulin is administered in excess, blood glucose level decreases producing early signs of hypoglycemia, which, if left untreated, results in a dangerous state called insulin shock.

What is Insulin Shock?Low blood sugar, often known as hypoglycemia, is frequently referred to as "insulin shock." It may also be known as an insulin response. Although the precise blood sugar level that causes symptoms varies, it is typically less than 70 mg/dL.The body releases the hormone epinephrine, often known as adrenaline, in response to a low blood sugar level.The body goes into insulin shock when it is so depleted of fuel that it starts to malfunction.If one has diabetes and uses insulin to help control the blood sugar, if he/she injects too much insulin or skip a meal after injecting insulin, then he/she may end up with excess quantities in the blood.

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Mrs. Peňa is 66 years old, has coverage under an employer plan, and will retire next year. She heard she must enroll in Part B at the beginning of the year to ensure no gap in coverage. What can you tell her?

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Mrs. Pena needs to enroll at any time while she is shielded under her employer plan, but she will have a remarkable eight-month registration duration that disputes from the ordinary general enrollment period, during which she may enroll in Medicare Part B without facing the issues of coverage.

What is an Employer plan?

An employer plan may be defined as a type of plan that offers various benefits to employees at no or relatively low cost during their job durations.

Therefore, it is well described above.

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The word obese is generally used to describe people who are dangerously (for their own health) overweight. Growing obesity is definitely an American environmental trend. According to the book, ___ of Americans are obese.

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The word obese is generally used to describe people who are dangerously (for their own health) overweight. Growing obesity is definitely an American environmental trend. According to the book, more than 1/3 of Americans are obese.

Eco-products, Sustainable investing, Renewable power, and, internet-zero emissions are key sustainable business developments for 2021. they'll create sufficient risks and opportunities to shake the manner corporations operate not in 2050 but in 2021.

The notion is the sensory revel in of the arena. It includes each recognizing environmental stimuli and actions in reaction to those stimuli. through the perceptual procedure, we advantage information about the properties and elements of the surroundings that are vital to our survival.

Environmental traits that are breaking favorably for the fulfillment potentialities of marketers' modern strategic marketing plans or the ones they could expand in the destiny.

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A newborn has chronic sustained hypertension but otherwise appears healthy. What diagnostic testing does the APN facilitate as the priority

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The following test can be done by APN to diagnose chronic sustained hypertension in a newborn is renal function studies.

Chronic hypertension in infants can be due to kidney and heart diseases. Causes of hypertension in newborns and infants include renal vascular thrombosis, renal artery stenosis, coarctation of the aorta, renal dysplasia, bronchopulmonary dysplasia, acute kidney injury, and intracranial blood flow.

In newborns, high blood pressure is often caused by the formation of a thrombus in the blood vessels of the kidneys. Kidney diseases involve renal tissues and artery stenosis (narrowing of the kidney's main blood vessel) that increase the blood pressure and cause hypertension in infants.

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A woman has been diagnosed with compartment II primary amenorrhea. The healthcare professional helps prepare the woman for what type of diagnostic testing

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The diagnostic testing for ovarian dysfunction illnesses using genetic testing.

A form of medical examination known as genetic testing looks for changes in genes, chromosomes, or proteins. An individual's likelihood of getting or passing on a genetic ailment can be determined using the results of a genetic test, which can also confirm or rule out a suspected genetic condition. There are already more than 77,000 genetic tests in use, and more are being created.Ovarian illnesses that affect compartment II are frequently related to hereditary conditions. The expert would assist the woman in getting ready for genetic testing. The anterior pituitary gland's malfunction leads to diseases of compartment III. Primary compartment IV amenorrhea is frequently caused by hypothalamic problems. Congenital vaginal absence is one of the compartment I illnesses, which are anatomical flaws of the outflow tract linked to primary amenorrhea.

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Question 19 options: The guidance for having infant sleep on their back to reduce the incidence of SIDS has a grade of A. The Back-to-Sleep campaign directed information at parents and care-givers with the involvement of clinicians, crib manufacturers, and the media. The mortality from SIDS fell by approximately 50% within several years of the beginning of the Back-to-Sleep campaign Case-control studies were important in establishing a cause and effect relationship between having infants sleep prone and Sudden Infant Death Syndrome. Sudden infant death syndrome (SIDS) is the most common cause of death between age 1 month and one year. Twenty years ago it resulted in over 5,000 deaths per year.

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Back to Sleep campaign, which urges parents to put their infants to sleep on their backs (supine position) to lower the risk of Sudden Infant Death Syndrome, or SIDS.

The US National Institute of Child Health and Human Development (NICHD) at the US National Institutes of Health is supporting the Safe to Sleep campaign, formerly known as the Back to Sleep campaign, which urges parents to put their infants to sleep on their backs (supine position) to lower the risk of Sudden Infant Death Syndrome, or SIDS. Since infants are most at danger of SIDS between the ages of 0 and 1, this age range is the campaign's focus. The incidence of SIDS has decreased by more than 50% since the 1994 launch of "Safe to Sleep." However, incidents of newborn asphyxia while sleeping have increased. As a result, the campaign's objective has been expanded to emphasize safe sleep.

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The HPV vaccine is nearly 100% effective in preventing ___ strains of HPV that cause warts and cervical cancer

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The HPV vaccine primarily protects against strains #16 and #18.

Answer: #16 or #18

How many miles a week of jogging is sufficient to reach an excellent level of cardiorespiratory fitness

Answers

Answer:

About 10

Explanation:

It depends on the person, and how many miles you run each day.

A newborn is being monitored for retinopathy of prematurity. Which condition predisposes an infant to this condition

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Respiratory distress syndrome is a condition that predisposes an infant to this condition.

What is Respiratory distress syndrome?

A respiratory condition that affects breathing in neonates. One of the most frequent issues with premature neonates is respiratory distress syndrome (RDS), formerly known as hyaline membrane disease.

A deficiency in pulmonary surfactant is the root cause of RDS. After the 26th week of pregnancy, in the third trimester, a fetus's lungs begin to produce surfactant. A frothy material called surfactant maintains the lungs' complete expansion so that neonates can breathe in air as soon as they are born.

The majority of ARDS cases, however, are caused by a small number of prevalent conditions; among patients in medical intensive care units, these conditions are pneumonia, sepsis, and aspiration.

Acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS) symptoms are:

severe dyspnea or shortness of breath.hurried and difficult breathing.muscular soreness and extreme exhaustion.Confusion.quick heartbeat.Due to low blood oxygen levels, fingernails and lips have a bluish appearance.chest discomfort and coughing.

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During the initial assessment of a preterm infant, it is noted that the infant has a heart murmur. Which shunt from fetal life most likely remains open

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Ductus Arteriosis shunt from fetal life most likely remains open.

What about ductus arteriosis?The foramen ovale, ductus venosus, and ductus arteriosus are the three shunts in the fetal circulation. Two umbilical artery and one umbilical vein are also present.These blood vessels close after birth and develop into ligaments. A murmur heard in a preterm newborn soon after birth would be considered to be a ductal murmur since there is a larger possibility that the ductus arteriosus will remain open in a preterm infant.Some organ systems, such as the central nervous system, are teratogen-sensitive throughout the whole pregnancy. The baby's brain and spine make up its central nervous system. Alcohol is one teratogen that has an impact on the central nervous system.

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A sedentary adult client is consuming an average of 1,326 kcal from carbohydrate, 969 kcal from lipid and 263 kcal from protein. There are NO kcal coming from ethanol. What are the respective percentages of each nutrient

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The respective percentages of each nutrient are 52 %, 38 %, and 10 %

Total calori consumed by the cleint

= 1326 kcal + 96 9kcal + 263 kcal

= 2558 Kcal

Now,

percentage of carbohydrate = 1326 / 2558 - * 100 % = 51. 83 %

percentage of Lipid = 969 / 2558 *  100 % = 37. 8%

percentage of protein = 263/2558 x 100 %

= 10. 28 %

If we around up on down the values then

the

Respective % will be 52 %, 38 %,10 %

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If intakes of saturated fat, trans fatty acids, and/or cholesterol are above the recommendations, the MOST LIKELY risk would be

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If intakes of saturated fat, trans fatty acids, and/or cholesterol are above the recommendations, the MOST LIKELY risk would be heart disease.

What is heart disease?

Coronary artery disease is mistakenly and narrowly referred to as "heart disease".

Cardiovascular disease, which refers to any condition of the heart or blood arteries, is not the same as heart disease.

The four types of heart disease.

Coronary artery diseaseArrhythmiaHeart valve diseaseHeart failure

The most typical cause of coronary artery disease is atherosclerosis, which is a buildup of fatty plaques in your arteries.

Coronary artery disease (CAD), heart arrhythmias, heart failure, heart valve disease, pericardial disease, cardiomyopathy (Heart Muscle Disease), congenital heart disease are the symptoms of heart disease.

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Is it possible to have organ rejection even with a perfect match?

Answers

Answer:

No, it is not possible

Explanation:

Yes it is possible to have organ rejection even with a perfect match.

The more similarities of antigens between donor and recipient, less chance of organ to reject.

Causes of organ rejection.Rejection is caused by the immune system which identifying the transplant as foreign.

What is antigens?An antigens are term of immunology.An antigens are foreign matter that can bind with specific antibody or receptor.

What is recipient?The persons who receives blood, cells, tissue or organs from another person.It is also known as receiver.

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What types of exercises are recommended to be done 2-3 times a week to strengthen and stretch your muscles

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Types of exercises that are recommended to be done 2-3 times a week to strengthen and stretch your muscles include bodyweight exercises like squats, push-ups, sit-ups, and lunges.

Stretching the muscles is an important part of your daily exercise schedule because it improves muscle flexibility, greases the motion of your joints, increases blood flow, and decreases the risk of injuries.

Strengthening muscle exercises not only makes a person stronger, but it stimulates bone growth, lowers blood sugar levels, assists with weight control, improves balance and posture, and reduces stress and pain in the lower back and joints making a person fitter for your daily routine activities like house-hold work, carrying groceries, lifting heavy weight, etc,  

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A comprehensive weight-control program should include a balanced, reduced-kcal diet and _________.

Answers

Answer:
Aerobic exercise and resistance training.

Explanation:
Any half-decent weight control program will consist of a reduced calorie diet plan and to some extent of physical activity.
The World Health Organization (WHO), recommends at least 300 minutes of moderate activity on a weekly basis for the average adult.

The Occupational Safety and Health Act (OSHA) made it a ______ to cause the death of a worker by willfully violation safety laws.

Answers

The Occupational Safety and Health Act (OSHA) made it a criminal punishment to cause the death of a worker by willfully violating safety laws.

The Occupational Safety and Health Act of 1970 (OSHA) was made by congress to guarantee protected and healthy working circumstances for workers by establishing and implementing principles and by giving training, education, assistance, and outreach.

OSHA was made due to public clamor against increasing injuries, damages, and death rates at work. The organization has spent years researching and has focused their knowledge and resources on where they can have the best effect in lessening wounds, diseases, and deaths in the working environment.

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Hi, I am trying to calculate the dosage of mg i should be taking per night. I am 135 pounds 5’7.

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So you are ok one this

a researcher is conducting written surey- which of the following is the most important issue thast a researcher addressed in planning the research?

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The most important issue that a researcher addresses in planning the research is the confidentiality of the individual subject's responses.

What is Research?

Research may be defined as the process of methodical examination into and investigation of materials and references in order to demonstrate attributes and acquire unexplored conclusions.

Confidentiality in research is when a researcher preserves the attributes of his subject's personal and secret and permits no one to have credentials to it.

Anonymous details are usually the most reasonable and leisurely method to glorify and brag about confidentiality in the research investigation.

The complete question is as follows:

A researcher is conducting a written survey about people's attitudes toward walking as an exercise option at the local shopping mall that supports a walking program. The survey is anonymous (without codes, names, or other information) and subjects may complete the survey and place it in a box at the shopping mall exits. Which of the following is the most important issue that the researcher addressed in planning the research?

Confidentiality of the individual subject's responsesBreach of confidentialityLess predictable

Therefore, the correct option is A, i.e. Confidentiality of the individual subject's responses.

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The fluid produced by the mammary glands during the first few days after giving birth is.

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[tex]\huge\underline{\red{A}\green{n}\blue{s}\purple{w}\pink{e}\orange{r} →}[/tex]

The fluid produced by the mammary glands during the first few days after giving birth is Colostrum.

Explanation:

Hope it helps you !!

What is the appropriate cardiorespiratory endurance guideline set by the American College of Sports Medicine for the Frequency of a workout

Answers

The appropriate cardiorespiratory endurance guideline set by the American College of Sports Medicine for the Frequency of a workout is 20-60 minutes.

All healthy adults between the ages of 17 and 65 are advised to engage in vigorous-intensity aerobic activity for at least 20 minutes three days a week, or moderate-intensity aerobic activity for at least 30 minutes five days a week, according to the American College of Sports Medicine's cardiorespiratory endurance guidelines. According to the most recent edition of physical activity guidelines for Americans, to get the maximum health advantages from physical exercise, children and adolescents aged 6 to 17 must engage in at least 60 minutes of moderate-intensity movement each day. Thus, the duration of 20-60 minutes is considered best for aerobic exercise.

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Because of a heart condition, you decide to try transcendental meditation to improve your health. The benefit that you are most likely to experience is

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Because of a heart condition, you decide to try transcendental meditation to improve your health. The benefit is that you are most likely to experience lowered blood sugar.

What is transcendental meditation?The Transcendental Meditation program is taught one-on-one by instructors trained and licensed by Maharishi Foundation in a personalized and individual manner.It is a simple and effective form of meditation that is shown by research to be quite effective at minimizing anxiety, helping people manage stress, and even lowering blood pressure and carrying other benefits. Those who practice transcendental meditation may experience a decrease in stress and anxiety within minutes.As with other forms of meditation, long-term practice can lead to even more positive changes, including resilience to stress, lower overall anxiety, and even greater life satisfaction.

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Which person within a fire and emergency services organization is responsible for providing subordinates within formation on the organization's safety, health, and wellness programs

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A company officer within a fire and emergency services organization is responsible for providing subordinates with the formation of the organization's safety, health, and wellness programs.

What is a company officer?

The term "Company Officer" refers to any individual who has been given permission by the Company's board of directors to sign documents that are legally binding on the Company, either directly or through their position as an officer of a general partner, manager, or other business entity that has the exclusive right to run the Company.

They are in charge of overseeing the corporation's daily operations. This can involve keeping records, selecting and dismissing employees, controlling finances, assigning responsibilities, and more. Corporate executives frequently hold the most important positions inside an organization.

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The complete question is:

Which person within a fire and emergency services organization is responsible for providing subordinates with information on the organization's safety, health, and wellness programs?

Select one:

a.Health officer

b.emergency officer

c.Company officer

d.physician

Which of the following is a risk factor for developing hypertension? Consuming carbohydrates Being underweight Dehydration Having diabetes

Answers

Having diabetes is a risk factor for developing hypertension.

Hypertension

It is another name for high blood pressure. It can lead to serious health complications and increase the risk of heart disease, stroke, and sometimes death. Blood pressure is the force that a person's blood exerts on the walls of his blood vessels.

Diabetes damages the small blood vessels in your body, causing the blood vessel walls to stiffen that increase blood pressure. High blood pressure and type 2 diabetes together can significantly increase the risk of heart attack or stroke and also cause hypertension.

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In the United States approximately ______ percent of births occur in hospitals, with sterile procedures, electronic monitoring, and drugs to dull pain.

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In the United States approximately 98 percent of births occur in hospitals, with sterile procedures, electronic monitoring, and drugs to dull pain.

Which are the natural childbirth methods attempt to reduce the pain?The Leboyer technique, hypnosis, psychoanalgesia (natural childbirth and psychoprophylaxis), acupuncture, transcutaneous electrical nerve stimulation (TENS), aromatherapy, touch and massage, mother movement and postural changes throughout labor, and water birthing are some of these methods.Because the majority of CPMs work in homes and birthing facilities, they must have experience giving birth there.The umbilical cord, placenta, and other membranes are cut loose and ejected. It is the stage of childbirth that lasts the longest.

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The ________________ releases hormones directly into the blood and the ________________ receives hormones from the hypothalamus cells which in turn causes the release of more hormones.

Answers

The neurohypophysis releases hormones directly into the blood and the adenohypophysis receives hormones from the hypothalamus cells which in turn causes the release of more hormones.

What are neurohypophysis and adenohypophysis?

The hormones produced by the posterior pituitary are released into the bloodstream directly from the axonal terminals of their source neurons, this region of the pituitary is frequently referred to as neurohypophysis. Two peptide hormones, vasopressin, and oxytocin act as the structural base of a neuro-humoral system that coordinates fluid balance and reproductive function.

The anterior pituitary (or adenohypophysis), controls a number of physiological processes (including stress, growth, reproduction, and lactation). Melanocyte stimulating hormone is produced and secreted by the intermediate lobe.

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Women with decreased numbers or function of a certain type of immune system cell experience pregnancy complications including implantation failure and miscarriage. A deficiency of which cell type might cause such pregnancy outcomes

Answers

Option C - T cells (Tregs) stand for regulatory T cells

Recent systematic studies have shown that Treg levels are significantly decreased in peripheral blood and decidua of pregnant and non-pregnant women with recurrent miscarriages (RM).

This underlines the hypothesis that Tregs play a role in the pathogenesis of RM. To ensure a robust placenta and sustainable pregnancy, an active state of tolerance on the level of immunity by Tregs is essential.  

Survival of the allogeneic embryo in the uterus depends on the maintenance of immune tolerance at the maternal-fetal interface. The pregnant uterus is replete with activated maternal immune cells. How this immune tolerance is acquired and maintained has been a topic of intense investigation. The key immune cells that predominantly populate the pregnant uterus are natural killer (NK) cells.

In normal pregnancy, these cells are not killers, but rather provide a microenvironment that is pregnancy compatible and supports healthy placentation. In placental mammals, an array of highly orchestrated immune elements to support successful pregnancy outcomes has been incorporated. This includes active cooperation between maternal immune cells, particularly NK cells, and trophoblast cells.

Please check the attached file for the complete question.

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When did John Nash actually realize that his hallucinations were not real?( a beautiful mind)

Answers

Answer:

When he realized that Marcee, the imaginary niece of his imaginary roommate never gets any older.

Hippocrates, an ancient greek philosopher, is often referred to as the ______________ of medicine.

Answers

Answer:

Hippocrates is know as the father of medicine.

Explanation:

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