The nurse should teach the client to splint the area when engaging in activity to support the underlying tissues and decrease discomfort after removal of surgical staples.
What are tissues?Tissue is described as a group of cells that have similar structure and that function together as a unit.
There are four basic tissue types defined by their morphology and function and they include:
epithelial tissue, connective tissue, muscle tissue, and nervous tissueNurses assist patients to recover when they undergosurgery.
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a woman with a progressively enlarging neck comes into the clinic. she mentions that she has been in a foreign country for the previous 3 months and that she didn't eat much while she was there because she didn't like the food. she also mentions that she becomes dizzy when lifting her arms to do normal household chores or when dressing. what endocrine condition should the nurse expect the health care provider to diagnose?
The correct answer is Goiter
What is Goiter?
Your thyroid gland will expand if you have a goitre. That is the gland at the base of your Adam's apple, toward the front of your neck.
It might be be a short-term issue that gets better on its own. Or it can be a sign of a different thyroid disease that needs medical attention and could be more serious.
A goitre may develop from an abnormal cell proliferation that causes one or more lumps (nodules) in the thyroid or it may be an overall enlargement of the thyroid. Thyroid hormone levels may rise or fall, or there may be no change in thyroid function in the case of a goitre.
Other than a swelling at the base of the neck, most persons with goitres don't exhibit any other symptoms or indicators. The goitre is frequently so little that it is only ever found through a regular medical examination or imaging test for another condition.
Other indications or symptoms depend on the state of the thyroid, the rate of growth, and whether breathing is obstructed by the goitre.
Fatigue
Higher sensitivity to the cold
Increased somnolence
Arid skin
Constipation
Muscle tremor
memory or concentration issues
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an older, emaciated client is brought to an emergency department by the client's caregiver. the client has bruises and abrasions on shoulders and back in multiple stages of healing. when directly asked about these symptoms, which type of client response should a nurse anticipate?
The nurse should anticipate that the client may decline or avoid such questions and may be unwilling to answer and to disclose any information
The adults who are often caught in an abusive and fighting situation are not likely to say what is happening to due to fear of reprisal or because of diminished cognitive abilities
The older people also have fear of retaliation, fear and embarrassment about the existence of abuse in the family,
Some do not tell the nurse due to the protectiveness toward a family member and unwillingness to bring about legal action that may cause their children troubles. This could be also due to the family caregiver torture that he avoids the nurse telling the whole situation.
Nurse should ask a family member/caregiver about the problem rather asking the adult.
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Why are microdeletions and microinsertions difficult to diagnose with karyotyping.
You can only see the chromosomes when you are diagnose with karyotyping.
What are the constraints on karyotyping for detecting chromosomal abnormalities?The need for a sample to have live, fresh cells and the low sensitivity of karyotype analysis for the detection of abnormalities—at least 5–10% of the cells must have the abnormality for the analysis to be effective—are some of its drawbacks.
A change in the reading phase of the gene might result in a mutation that entirely alters how a gene is translated into a particular protein. These mutations typically involve a pair of nitrogenous nucleotides.
A nucleotide is added to the DNA sequence by microinsertions, whereas a nucleotide is removed by microdeletions.You can only see the chromosomes when you kyrotype.
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both the underfed/underweight and the overfed/overweight face similar health problems, potentially including all of the following except:
Both the underweight and the overweight people face similar health problems. It includes all of the following, except: an overabundance of energy.
What are the common similar health problems that underweight and overweight people face?Being underweight is a condition when someone’s BMI is under 18.5. Whereas a person is called overweight when their BMI is over 25. Both underweight and overweight people more than likely face similar health problems in their everyday life such as:
A distorted body imageCaloric imbalanceWeak immune systemDepression and anxietyOsteoarthritisSleep apneaSome types of cancerLower quality of life.Learn more about bulimia nervosa here https://brainly.com/question/29376422
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a client with bipolar disorder has been taking lithium, and today the client's serum lithium level is 2.0 meq/l. what effects would the nurse expect to see?
Increased serum lithium level in the client are seen. The effects which would the nurse expect to see due to the increased serum lithium level is nausea, diarrhea, and confusion.
What is Bipolar disorder?
Bipolar disorder was formerly called as manic-depressive illness. It is a mental illness which results in unusual shifts in mood, energy, activity levels, concentration, and the ability to carry out the day-to-day tasks.
Lithium helps in reducing the severity and frequency of mania. Mania is the elevated, euphoric end of the mood scale and lithium may help to treat bipolar depression. Lithium may help in reducing the feelings of hurting self. Lithium helps in the prevention of manic and depressive episodes which occur in the future.
Some of the most common side effects of lithium are the feeling of sickness, diarrhea, a dry mouth and a metallic taste in the mouth.
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which sign/symptom would the nurse expect when assessing a client diagnosed with aortic valve stenosis?
An abnormal coronary heart sound (coronary heart murmur) heard via a stethoscope is the sign/symptom might the nurse count on whilst assessing a purchaser recognized with aortic valve stenosis.
Aortic valve stenosis — or aortic stenosis — is a kind of coronary heart valve disease (valvular coronary heart disease). The valve among the decrease left coronary heart chamber and the body's predominant artery (aorta) is narrowed and does not open fully. This reduces or blocks blood waft from the coronary heart to the aorta and to the relaxation of the body.
Treatment of aortic stenosis relies upon at the severity of the condition. You can also additionally want surgical procedure to restore or update the valve. Without treatment, extreme aortic valve stenosis can result in death. Aortic valve stenosis degrees from moderate to extreme. Symptoms commonly arise whilst narrowing of the valve is extreme. Some humans with aortic valve stenosis might not have signs and symptoms for plenty years.
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an informatics nurse is part of a team working on developing a clinical information system for a facility. the team is working on ensuring that the system supports usability. during which phase of the system development lifecycle would the team integrate the principles of usability as a priority?
During design phase of the system development lifecycle would the team integrate the principles of usability as a priority.
The analysis of patient data, which can originate from a variety of sources and modalities, including electronic health records, the results of diagnostic tests, and medical scans, is the goal of the science and engineering field known as health informatics.
A nurse informaticist gives care teams the best chance for effective care delivery by disseminating knowledge about new workflows, assisting with the deployment of new technology and procedures, and evaluating the quality of data.
A Bachelor of Science in Nursing (BSN) is necessary in order to work as a Nurse Informatics Specialist. Additionally, getting a license is necessary. By passing the NCLEX-RN exam, this is possible. Technology and the nursing profession frequently interact.
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which antihypertensive medication is used to treat pulmonary artery hypertension related to severe heart failure
The antihypertensive medications used to treat pulmonary artery hypertension related to severe heart failure include the following:
amlodipine (Norvasc), diltiazem (Cardizem, Tiazac, others) and nifedipine (Procardia). What is pulmonary artery hypertension?Pulmonary artery hypertension is described as a type of high blood pressure that affects the arteries in the lungs and the right side of the heart.
There are some common underlying causes of pulmonary artery hypertension which ranges from high blood pressure in the lungs' arteries due to some types of congenital heart disease, connective tissue disease, coronary artery disease, high blood pressure, liver disease and many more.
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management of care the first action of the charge nurse for the day shift in the emergent care clinic is to prepare the assignments for the day shift. in addition to the charge nurse, three registered nurses (rn), one licensed practical nurse (lpn), and two unlicenced assistive personnel (uap) are scheduled from 7:00 a.m. to 7:00 p.m. 1. which client should the charge nurse assign to the lpn?
A 20-year-old girl who trips on the sidewalk and complains of discomfort and edema in her right lower leg. This customer is the most suitable assignment for the PN since she is the least acute.
What is a Licensed vocational nurse (LVN)?An LPN/LVN should be assigned tasks for stable patients with predictable results, such as suctioning.
Reiterating the RN's patient education, doing sterile and nonsterile dressing changes, and administering non-parenteral medications.
Therefore, nursing assistants are regarded as unlicensed assistance employees, the most suitable assignment for the PN since she is the least acute.
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which parent education would the nurs give about why the mmr vaccine is administered at 12 to 15 months of age
A nurse plans to train the symptoms and symptoms of rejection to figure training this will supply records approximately why the MMR vaccine is run at 12 to fifteen months of age.
Rubella vaccine evoked suitable seroresponse (> 92%) at 9, 12 and 15 months, each via way of means of HI take a look at and ELISA. Thus a higher reaction to the MMR vaccine become acquired at or after three hundred and sixty five days of age than earlier. Hence, a dose of MMR can be given optimally at three hundred and sixty five days for youngsters now no longer formerly immunized with measles vaccine.
Measles-containing vaccines aren't mechanically encouraged for babies much less than three hundred and sixty five days of age. This is due to the fact maternal antibodies to measles persist in lots of babies till about eleven months of age. These may also intrude with lively immunisation earlier than three hundred and sixty five days of age.
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immediately after giving birth to a full-term infant, a client develops dyspnea and cyanosis. her blood pressure decreases to 60/40 mm hg, and she becomes unresponsive. what does the nurse suspect is happening with this client?
When the patient's blood pressure drops to 60/40 mm Hg and she loses consciousness, the nurse realizes that the patient is experiencing an amniotic fluid embolism.
An indication of amniotic fluid embolism is a rapid decrease in blood pressure in pregnant individuals.
Pregnancy complications like amniotic fluid embolization syndrome are rare, unexpected, and dangerous. Which individuals are at risk for AFE cannot be predicted with any degree of certainty. A range of clinical signs & symptoms must be used to make the diagnosis, along with the elimination of other potential causes.
An uncommon, frequently dangerous complication of labor & delivery is amniotic fluid embolism. The clinical symptoms of hypoxia, hypotension, & coagulopathy suddenly appearing is the typical presentation.
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the nurse is providing preoperative instruction for a patient who will be having an excisional breast biopsy. the patient asks the nurse what type of bra should be used after the procedure. what should the nurse inform the patient?
The nurse should inform the patient that ''the patient should wear a supportive bra after the procedure''.
How do you explain breast biopsy ?Breast tissue is sampled during a breast biopsy in order to be tested. The tissue sample is delivered to a lab, where pathologists—doctors with expertise in examining blood and bodily tissue—examine it and offer a diagnosis.If you have a suspicious spot in your breast, such as a breast lump or other indications of breast cancer, a breast biopsy may be advised. Additionally, it can be utilized to look into odd results from a mammography, ultrasound, or other breast exam.The results of a breast biopsy can determine whether or not the suspected area is cancerous. Your doctor can decide whether you require additional surgery or other treatments based on the pathology report from the breast biopsy.Learn more about Breast biopsy refer :
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expressing a persistent desire to cut down or regulate substance use is a symptom of substance dependence. True or False
Expressing a persistent desire to cut down or regulate substance use is a symptom of substance dependence is a true statement.
What is substance dependence?Substance dependence is a term to describe drug or alcohol abuse that continues even after serious problems have developed as a result of their use. It can lead to tolerance, which causes a desire for more dose levels resulting in increased resistance to the drug's effects. This also could lead to a drug addiction that is hard to control.
There are several symptoms of substance dependence:• Expressing a persistent desire to cut down or regulate substance use
• Tolerance to or the need for increased drug consumption
• Withdrawal symptoms that occur when you reduce or stop using the drug that you are attempting to reduce or quit
• Spending a significant amount of time acquiring, using, and recovering from the effects of the drug use
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low carbohydrate intake is a key feature of many fad diets. why do you think cutting down on carbohydrate consumption is such a popular weight loss strategy based on your understanding of this macronutrient?
The main theory behind low-carb strategies is that reducing insulin, a crucial hormone that causes an anabolic, fat-storing state, can enhance cardiometabolic performance and promote weight loss.
Recently, this strategy has been referred to as the carbohydrate-insulin model. According to studies, low-carb diets produce faster weight loss over the first 6 to 12 months than other dietary approaches. While weight reduction diets result in a calorie deficit, the mechanism behind low-carb diets is still up for debate. To make up for the decreased intake of carbohydrates, people typically increase their intake of the macronutrients fat and protein.
It is important to discuss the low-carb ketogenic (keto) diet. To promote nutritional ketosis, keto diets restrict carbohydrates, usually capping them at 20 to 50 grams daily.
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a client with liver and renal failure has severe ascites. on initial shift rounds, his primary nurse finds his indwelling urinary catheter collection bag too full to store more urine. the nurse empties more than 2,000 ml from the collection bag. one hour later, she finds the collection bag full again. the nurse notifies the physician, who suspects that a bladder rupture is allowing the drainage of peritoneal fluid. the physician orders a urinalysis to be obtained immediately. the presence of which substance is considered abnormal?
The presence of albumin is considered abnormal.
Why is albumin's presence considered abnormal?
An aberrant finding in a typical urine sample is albumin. If the bladder broke, albumin-containing ascites that are prevalent in liver failure would leak from the indwelling urine catheter since the catheter is no longer confined in the bladder. Urine typically contains creatinine, urobilinogen, and chloride.The blood potassium level of a patient with chronic renal failure is 6.8 mEq/L. What should the nurse evaluate initially?
PulseThe nurse can promptly identify a life-threatening cardiac arrhythmia by palpating the pulse if there is a high blood potassium level. Only the arrhythmia can cause a change in the client's blood pressure. The nurse should thus check the patient's blood pressure afterwards. Because the serum potassium level has little impact on respirations or temperature, the nurse can also postpone taking these measurement.To know more about albumin, checkout this link:
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the nurse is assessing the neurovascular status of a client who returned to the surgical nursing unit 4 hours ago after undergoing aortoiliac bypass graft. the affected leg is warm, and the nurse notes redness and edema. the pedal pulse is palpable and unchanged from admission. how should the nurse correctly interpret the client's neurovascular status?
The neurovascular status is normal because of increased blood flow through the leg.
What is an aortoiliac bypass graft?
In order to bypass a blocked or diseased vessel, an incision is made down the middle of the abdomen to access the aorta and place a graft, connecting it to one or both of the femoral arteries (which extend from the iliac artery into the leg).
Warmth, redness, and edema in the surgical extremity are anticipated side effects of aortoiliac bypass graft surgery due to increased blood flow. All of the other possibilities are incorrect interpretations.
Hence, the affected leg is warm because of increased blood flow.
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the nurse is performing an assessment of a client with psychiatric illness. the nurse documents that the client has a restricted affect. which behavior of the client is indicative of restricted affect? choose the best answer.
The behavior of the client that is indicative of restricted affect is that the client displays only one type of facial expression.
What is psychiatric illness?Psychiatric illness is defined as the type of illness that affects the psychology and the neurology of an individual.
Examples of psychiatric illness include the following:
DepressionAnxiety disorders,Bipolar disorders.schizophrenia andDementia.Some of the general symptoms of psychiatric illness include the following:
Restricted effectsConfused thinkingReduced ability to concentrateDeep, ongoing sadness, or feeling “down”Inability to manage day-to-day stress and problemsTrouble understanding situations and other peopleWithdrawal from others and from activities you used to enjoy.Restricted effects are those expressions that are being restrained to a particular style.
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the incidence of tuberculosis in the year 2000 in the united states was 12.43/100,000 cases. this means
If the incidence of tuberculosis in the year 2000 in the US was 12.43/100,000 cases, this means that there are 12.43 new cases in a population of 100,000 people.
What is incidence in epidemiology?Incidence in epidemiology refers to the refers to the occurrence of new cases of disease or injury in a population over a specified period of time.
Simply put, incidence rate is the number of new cases within a time period (the numerator) as a proportion of the number of people at risk for the disease (the denominator). This measure is commonly used in epidemiology as a way to denote the occurrence of disease, illness, or accident.
According to this question, the incidence of tuberculosis in the year 2000 in the US was 12.43/100,000 cases, this denotes that the number of new cases is 12.43 in a population of 100,000 people in the region or country.
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the student nurse is preparing a presentation on sensory perception. what symptoms of sensory deprivation should the student include? select all that apply.
Perceptional, cognitive, and emotional disorders can result from sensory deprivation. Perceptual responses are the result of incorrect perception of body location, noises, tastes, and scents.
What symptoms indicate sensory deprivation?Restricted environmental stimulation therapy (REST) is one of them. REST is separated into two types: floating REST and chamber REST. On the other hand, prolonged or forced sensory deprivation can cause anxiety, hallucinations, odd ideas, and depression.
What is a scenario when sensory deprivation occurs?Simple ways to experience sensory deprivation include donning a blindfold (which would impair vision) or earplugs (that would eliminate the ability to hear sound). In isolation tanks, where the majority or all of the senses are shut off, more severe sensory deprivation can be felt.
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The dermis sits on the
Answer:
what?
Explanation:
can you explain the question
the nurse understands that for abo incompatibility to be present, the mother must have which blood type?
In most cases, ABO incompatibility is limited to type O mothers with a type A or B foetus
When people who have one blood type receive blood from someone with a different blood kind, it is able to cause their immune machine to react. This is known as ABO incompatibility.
Because of current testing techniques, this problem is very rare.
reasons
The different blood typed are:
type A
type B
type AB
type O
Human beings who have one blood kind may additionally shape proteins (antibodies) that purpose their immune machine to react in opposition to one or extra of the alternative blood kinds.
Being exposed to some other type of blood can propose a reaction. this is crucial while a person needs to receive a blood transfusion or have an organ transplant. The blood kinds have to be compatible to keep away from an ABO incompatibility response.
for instance:
Human beings with type A blood will react against type B or type AB blood.
Humans with type B blood will react against type A or type AB blood.
People with kind O blood will react against type A, type B, or kind AB blood.
People with kind AB blood will now not react against type A, kind B, type AB, or kind O blood.
Kind O blood does not motive an immune reaction while it is given to people with kind A, kind B, or type AB blood. That is why kind O blood cells can be given to humans of any blood type. Humans with kind O blood are called generic donors. however human beings with type O can best obtain kind O blood.
Each blood and plasma transfusion needs to be matched to keep away from an immune response. before anybody gets blood, each blood and the individual receiving it are tested cautiously to avoid a reaction. commonly, a reaction occurs due to clerical mistakes causing a person to obtain incompatible blood.
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one hour after receiving pyridostigmine bromide for myasthenia gravis, a client reports difficulty swallowing and excessive respiratory secretions. what medication would the nurse anticipate to reverse the effects of pyridostigmine bromide?
Medication to reverse effect of pyridostigmine bromide is atropine sulfate.
Cholinergic CrisisMyasthenia gravis is a disease caused by antibodies to acetylcholine receptors. Patients with myasthenia gravis will receive anticholinesterase drugs such as pyridostigmine to treat symptoms of muscle weakness. When the patient experiences an overdose of anticholinesterase drugs, the acetylcholine bound to the acetylcholine receptors increases and is overstimulated. This is called a cholinergic crisis.
Symptoms of a cholinergic crisis include:
Salivationlacrimationurinary frequency increasediarrheagastrointestinal crampingmiosisdiaphoresisdifficulty of swallowingbronchospasm (spasm of bronchi)bronchorrhea (increase secretion of bronchi)emesis (vomiting).When this occurs, atropine sulphate can be given at a dose of 2 mg in adults and 0.03-0.05 mg/kg in children. Administer until atropinization occurs (tachycardia, warm skin, mydriasis).
Additionally provide support:
Airway: suction excessive secretions in the airway, if necessary use devices to ensure airway patency (ET, LMA, etc)Breathing: provide oxygenation if neededCirculation: provide fluids or support with inotropic agents if needed.Learn more about myasthenia gravis here: https://brainly.com/question/28286170
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a client diagnosed with a terminal illness appoints her oldest son as the authorized individual to make medical decisions on her behalf when she is no longer able to speak for herself. which proxy directive is the patient using?
Power of attorney for healthcare is being used by the proxy directive patient.
Healthcare powers of attorney and proxy directives are other names for durable powers of attorney for healthcare. It enables someone else to make medical choices for the client.
If you are incapable to speak for yourself, a healthcare proxy designates a trusted individual as your agent, proxy, or representative to communicate your intentions and make healthcare choices on your behalf.
It is not necessary to get the document notarized. However, if at all feasible, get it notarized. Make many copies of the power of attorney after it has been signed. One copy should be given to your main care physician.
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a nurse is providing education to the family of a client beginning peritoneal dialysis. the family ask questions concerning catheter placement and stabilization. which information will the nurse provide about the cuffs? select all that apply.
The Information which nurse should provide about the cuffs are:
A. The cuffs are constructed of Dacron polyester material.
B. The cuffs will help stabilize the catheter .
C. The cuffs helps in preventing the dialysate from leaking.
D. The cuffs provide the barrier against microorganisms.
So, the correct options are A,B,C,D.
Most of catheters used for peritoneal dialysis have two cuffs, which are made of the Dacron polyester. The cuffs stabilize the catheter, limit movement, prevent leaks, and provide the barrier against microorganisms. They do not absorb dialysate.
Hence, the information listed in options A,B,C,D will the nurse should provide.
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(Complete question) is:
a nurse is providing education to the family of a client beginning peritoneal dialysis. the family ask questions concerning catheter placement and stabilization. which information will the nurse provide about the cuffs? select all that apply.
A. The cuffs are constructed of Dacron polyester material.
B. The cuffs will help stabilize the catheter .
C. The cuffs helps in preventing the dialysate from leaking.
D. The cuffs provide a barrier against microorganisms.
E. The cuffs will absorb the dialysate.
a 27-year-old policewoman comes to your clinic, complaining of severe left-sided back pain radiating down into her groin. it began in the middle of the night and woke her up suddenly. it hurts in her bladder to urinate but she has no burning on the outside. she has had no frequency or urgency with urination but she has seen blood in her urine. she has had nausea with the pain but no vomiting or fever. she denies any other recent illness or injuries. her past medical history is unremarkable. she denies tobacco or drug use and drinks alcohol rarely. her mother has high blood pressure and her father is healthy. on examination she looks her stated age and is in obvious pain. she is lying on her left side trying to remain very still. her cardiac, pulmonary, and abdominal examinations are unremarkable. she has tenderness just inferior to the left costovertebral angle. her urine pregnancy test is negative and her urine analysis shows red blood cells. what type of urinary tract pain is she most likely to have?
The 27 year-old policewomen is most likely to have ureteral pain (from a kidney stone).
Why does ureteral pain occur?
A kidney stone that becomes stuck in the ureters can restrict the urine's flow, inflame the kidney, and cause the ureter to spasm, all of which can be extremely painful.The lower abdomen or groin and areas below the ribcage, on one side of the body are the most typical areas to experience this pain.What are stones?
A calculus (plural calculi), often known as a stone, is a concretion of substance that develops in a biological organ or duct and is typically made up of mineral salts.The process of forming calculi is called lithiasis.
Therefore, ureteral pain is the correct answer.
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a 28-year-old client who has just conceived arrives at a health care facility for her first prenatal visit to undergo a physical examination. which intervention should the nurse perform to prepare the client for the physical examination?
The nurse instruct the client to empty her bladder for the physical examination.
What is physical examination?Your primary care practitioner (PCP) will likely conduct a physical examination as part of routine testing to assess your general health. A PCP can be either a physician or a physician assistant.Exams are frequently referred to as wellness checks. To request an exam, you are not required to be ill.Asking your PCP about your health or discussing any changes or issues you have seen during the physical exam can be beneficial.Various tests may be carried out during your physical checkup. Your PCP might suggest additional tests based on your age, health, and family history.Your PCP can assess your general health state thanks to a physical exam. Additionally, the examination allows you the chance to discuss any persistent discomfort, symptoms, or other health issues with the doctor.It's advised to be checked out at least once a year, especially if you're over 50. These tests are employed to:check for possible diseases so they can be treated earlyidentify any issues that may become medical concerns in the futureupdate necessary immunizationsensure that you are maintaining a healthy diet and exercise routinebuild a relationship with your PCPTo learn more about physical examination, refer to
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a client in her third trimester of pregnancy is undergoing a physical assessment. her nurse explains that she is about to estimate what position the fetus is presently in by palpating the uterine fundus to see whether the head or buttocks is presenting. what is this procedure called?
The procedure is called Leopold's maneuver.
The gravid uterus is palpated methodically using the Leopold procedures. This abdominal palpation technique is inexpensive, simple to use, and non-invasive. It is employed to ascertain the fetus's engagement, presentation, and position in pregnancy.
To determine your baby's position and size in pregnancy, use Leopold's maneuvers. 1 The fundal grasp, umbilical grip, Pawlik's grip, and pelvic grip are the four movements. Late in pregnancy, these procedures are carried out by qualified medical professionals.
The maneuvers are crucial because they assist evaluate the fetus's position and lying, which, when combined with an accurate evaluation of the shape of the mother's pelvis, can indicate whether the delivery would be difficult or require a caesarean section.
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hydration status is being monitored for a patient being treated for dehydration. which statements made by the nurse to the patient accurately reflect the assessment of fluid intake and output? (select all that apply.)
Drinking a lot of fluids is better than drinking too little, because it is much easier for the body to excrete excess water than to conserve it. However, when the kidneys function normally, the body can accept wide variations in fluid intake.
When is the person dehydrated?In light degrees, a classic sign that the body is dehydrated is constant thirst, even on days with the lowest temperature. Drinking juices or soft drinks, for example, will not quench your thirst.
Dehydration is a lack of water. Vomiting, diarrhea, excessive sweating, burns, kidney failure and use of diuretics can cause dehydration. People feel thirsty, and as dehydration worsens, they may sweat less and excrete less urine.
What happens if you drink too much water?Drinking too much water can cause an imbalance in the concentration of electrolytes in the blood, especially sodium. The problem is called hyponatremia, which means a drop in the blood sodium level and can lead, in very serious situations, to water intoxication.
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which hypertensive disorder would the nurse suspect this patient has based upon the information provided?
Chronic hypertension , Preeclampsia-eclampsia & Gestational hypertension.
When a patient is pregnant, chronic hypertension is defined as hypertension that started before 20 weeks of pregnancy. Proteinuria and hypertension that appear 20 weeks after conception are referred to as preeclampsia. Eclampsia is the beginning of seizure activity in a preeclamptic pregnant patient. After 20 weeks of pregnancy, hypertension begins to manifest as gestational hypertension. Hyperemesis gravidarum and gestational trophoblastic illness are not hypertensive conditions.
A illness without a viable fetus known as gestational trophoblastic disease is brought on by improper fertilization. Extreme vomiting, or hyperemesis gravidarum, can cause electrolyte imbalance and weight loss in pregnant women.
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which of the following definitions is incorrect? a. endemic: a disease that is constantly present in a population b. epidemic: a disease that is sporadic across the world c. pandemic: a disease that affects a large number of people in the world in a short time d. sporadic: a disease that affects a population occasionally e. incidence: number of new cases of a disease in a specific time period
The incorrect definition among the given options is sporadic: a disease that affects a population occasionally (option D).
What is epidemic and endemic disease?Endemic diseases are diseases that are native particular area or culture, usually originating where it occurs.
Epidemic disease is a widespread disease that affects many individuals in a population.
Pandemic is a disease that affects a wide geographical area and a large proportion of the population.
Sporadic disease is a disease occurring in isolated instances i.e. not widespread or scattered in occurrence.
Incidence is a measure of the rate of new occurrence of a given medical condition in a population within a specified period of time.
Based on the above explanation of epidemiologic terms, it can be observed that the sporadic disease definition is incorrect.
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