"You sound upset about not being able to have an erection."
Diabetes type 2 is also known as type 2 diabetes mellitus and adult-onset diabetes. This is because it used to occur almost exclusively in middle and late adulthood. However, this condition is becoming more common in children and teenagers.
The primary distinction between type 1 and type 2 diabetes is that type 1 is a genetic condition that often manifests early in life, whereas type 2 is primarily lifestyle-related and develops over time. When you have type 1 diabetes, your immune system attacks and destroys insulin-producing cells in your pancreas.
Type 2 diabetes is caused primarily by two interconnected problems: cells in muscle, fat, and the liver become insulin resistant. These cells do not take in enough sugar because they do not interact normally with insulin. The pancreas is unable to produce enough insulin to keep blood sugar levels under control.
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a woman arrives at the emergency department complaining of abdominal pain of 4 on a scale of 1 to 10. she states that she thinks she is about 10 weeks pregnant. her vital signs are pulse, 86 beats per minute; respirations, 16 breaths per minute; and blood pressure, 112/78 mm hg. which signs/symptoms would the nurse report to the primary health care provider immediately? select all that apply.
A woman who is experiencing abdominal pain arrives there at emergency room. Pulse: 112 per minute, pain: 8 out of 10, & statement: "I feel like I'm going to pass out."
What causes abdominal pain?Any discomfort you have between the sternum and groin is considered abdominal pain. This is frequently referred to simply as the belly or stomach area. The abdominal region is divided into smaller regions because it houses a variety of different organs.
When was the abdominal pain a major issue?In the event that you have: soreness in the abdomen that lasts for a week or more. abdominal discomfort that worsens or persists for more than 24 to 48 hours while also accompanied by nausea and vomiting.
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coumadin is an anticoagulant that is administered to prevent blood clots from forming or growing larger.
coumadin is an anticoagulant that is administered to prevent blood clots from forming or growing larger. The statement is true.
Warfarin is an anticoagulant that is marketed under several brand names, including Coumadin. When someone has atrial fibrillation, valvular heart disease, or artificial heart valves, it is frequently used to avoid blood clots including deep vein thrombosis and pulmonary embolism as well as to prevent stroke. A prescription drug called coumadin is used to treat blood clots and reduce the likelihood that they will develop in the body again. If blood clots develop in the legs or lungs, they can result in a heart attack, stroke, or other dangerous illnesses. Coumadin does not directly affect a thrombus that has already formed, nor does it repair ischemic tissue damage. However, the purpose of anticoagulant therapy is to stop additional thrombus formation once it has already happened.
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a client uses the alternative therapy of cascara sagrada, known as californian buckthorn, for ongoing management of chronic constipation. the nurse would monitor the client's laboratory results for which electrolyte imbalance specifically related to long-term use of this medication?
Hypokalemia electrolyte imbalance specifically related to long-term use of this medication.
Hypokalemia refers to a decrease than ordinary potassium level for your bloodstream. Potassium enables convey electric alerts to cells to your frame. it's far crucial to the right functioning of nerve and muscle tissue cells, specifically coronary heart muscle cells.
The most common purpose is excessive potassium loss in urine because of prescription medicinal drugs that boom urination. additionally called water tablets or diuretics, these forms of medications are often prescribed for people who've excessive blood strain or heart sickness.
Hypokalemia is treated with oral or intravenous potassium.
To prevent cardiac conduction disturbances, intravenous calcium is run to patients with hyperkalemic electrocardiography changes.
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Which of the following is false?
Each unique ICD-10-CM diagnosis code may be reported only once for
an encounter.
The guidelines for reporting inpatient and outpatient services are
identical.
Ruled-out conditions can be reported in the inpatient setting.
Category codes can be reported if there is no further subdivision
provided.
The false statement is: The guidelines for reporting inpatient and outpatient services are identical.
What are outpatient services?
Outpatient services are described as those services offered to people with health problems who visit the hospital for diagnosis or treatment, but do not at the time require a bed or to be admitted for overnight care.
An example could be "An annual exam with your primary care physician and a consultation with your neurologist".
So, Category codes can be reported if there is no further subdivision provided is a true statement.
Each unique ICD-10-CM diagnosis code may be reported only once for an encounter is a true statement.
Ruled-out conditions can be reported in the inpatient setting is a true statement.
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the parent of an adolescent who is going to be a foreign exchange student asks the nurse why the child must have a tetanus toxoid immunization. the nurse provides which information?
The parent of an adolescent who is going to be a foreign exchange student, for providing child with tetanus toxoid immunization, nurse gives information as long lasting active immunity.
Tetanus is prevented using tetanus toxoid. Tetanus is a fatal disease that causes convulsions (seizures) and violent muscular spasms that can be powerful enough to cause spine-related bone fractures. Tetanus causes death in 30 to 40 percent of cases. Immunization against tetanus is indicated for all neonates 6 to 8 weeks of age and older, all children, and all adults. Immunization against tetanus contains first of a series of either 3 or 4 shots, depending on which type of tetanus toxoid you receive. Additionally, you must receive a booster shot every ten years for the remainder of your life. Additionally, if it has been longer than five years since your last booster, you might require an emergency booster injection if your wound is filthy or difficult to treat. Two-thirds of all tetanus cases in recent years have involved people 50 years of age and older. A tetanus infection in the past does not make you immune to tetanus in the future.
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Is a combination of nutrition, medicinal supplements and herbs, water therapy, homeopathy, and lifestyle modifications used to identify and treat the root causes of symptoms and disease.
Naturopathy is a combination of nutrition, medicinal supplements and herbs, water therapy, homeopathy, and lifestyle modifications used to identify and treat the root causes of symptoms and disease.
What is nutrition?Nutrition is the biological or biochemical process used by organism to take there food to support their life.
Herbs:These are simply wide spread group of plants.They consist aromatic properties that are used for garnishing and flavoring of food .They have a major use of medicinal purposes.Homeopathy:It is scientific alternative of medicine.it is founded by German physician Samuel Hahnemann in 1796.Homeopathy is safe, its medicines doesn't have much side effects.To know more about Naturopathy visit
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Ken has schizophrenia, and his major symptoms are marked social withdrawal and apathy. Which medication would be most effective at treating these symptoms?.
Ken has schizophrenia ,In such problem of major symptoms are marked social withdrawal and apathy the medication would be most effective at treating these symptoms is antidepressants.
What is antidepressants?Antidepressants is a type of pharmaceutical medicine used for treating or curing depression or anxiety.
Apathy:It is the condition where you lack in interestIt just that you don't get motivation of doing any thing or just don't care about anything. To cure apathy one should give himself compassion and understanding with empathy.Hence, In such problem of major symptoms are marked social withdrawal and apathy the medication would be most effective at treating these symptoms is antidepressants.
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the nurse is caring for a client who was admitted for alcohol detoxification 2 days ago. which finding is most critical for the nurse to report to the healthcare provider?
Global confusion and the inability to recognize family members are most critical for the nurse to report to the healthcare provider.
Alcohol detoxification, commonly referred to as detox, is the rapid discontinuation of alcohol consumption by those who are alcohol dependent. In order to avoid alcohol withdrawal, this procedure is frequently combined with the substitution of medications that have effects that are comparable to those of alcohol. When withdrawal does happen, it produces symptoms of varying degrees of severity.
As a result, the term "detoxification" may be a bit misleading because the process may not mainly include the body's elimination of poisonous substances. Detoxification may or may not be recommended based on an individual's age, health, and past alcohol consumption.
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an ulcer is a break or discontinuity in a cutaneous or mucous membrane in the body. there are many types of ulcers. __________ is a type of ulcer in which there is an erosion of the gastrointestinal lining deep enough to penetrate the muscularis mucosa.
A peptic ulcer is a type of ulcer in which there is an erosion of the gastrointestinal lining deep enough to penetrate the muscularized mucosa.
What are ulcers?
Open sores known as peptic ulcers form on the inner lining of the stomach and the upper small intestine. Stomach pain is a peptic ulcer's most typical symptom.
Peptic ulcers consist of:
Gastrointestinal ulcers that develop internallyDuodenal ulcers that develop on the inside of your small intestine's upper portionSymptoms
a sharp stomach acheBelching, bloating, or a sense of fullness Intolerance to fatty foodsHeartburnNauseaStomach discomfort that burns is the most typical sign of peptic ulcer disease. Both stomach acid and an empty stomach exacerbate the agony. Eat some meals that buffer stomach acid or use an acid-reducing medication to alleviate the pain; nevertheless, the pain may return.Therefore, A peptic ulcer is a type of ulcer in which there is an erosion of the gastrointestinal lining deep enough to penetrate the muscularized mucosa.
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a client with the diagnosis of primary hypertension is started on a regimen of hydrochlorothiazide. which information will the nurse include when providing instructions regarding this medication?
The nurse given information is an antihypertensive medication will likely be required for the remainder of life.
What is hypertension?
A blood pressure reading of 140/90 or greater. The majority of the time, hypertension goes unnoticed. It can damage the arteries and raise the risk of stroke, heart attack, kidney failure, and blindness. also known as high blood pressure.
What is diagnosis?
The process of determining an illness, condition, or injury based on its indications and symptoms. To aid with the diagnosis, tests like blood tests, imaging tests, and biopsies may be utilized together with a physical examination and health history.
Therefore, the nurse given information is an antihypertensive medication will likely be required for the remainder of life.
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a pta presents an in-service to members of a rehabilitation team on a spinal cord unit. the pta is discussing the most common cause of autonomic dysreflexia, which should be:
When discussing autonomic dysreflexia, the PTA should identify bladder distension as the most common cause. The correct answer is D.
An aberrant, overreaction of the involuntary (parasympathetic) nervous system to stimulation is referred to as autonomic dysreflexia. Changes in heart rate may occur as a result of this response, as well as excessive sweating and high blood pressure.
Autonomic dysreflexia might happen all the time and can be caused by triggers such as bladder distension (most frequent), bladder or kidney stones, a kink in a urinary catheter, UTI, fecal impaction, bed sores, an abscess toenail, fractures, menstruating, hemorrhoids, etc.
This question should be provided with answer choices, which are as follows:
A. Pounding headacheB. Change in positionC. Large increases in BPD. Bladder distensionThe correct answer is D.
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which of the following is a second-generation antihistamine that is preferred for use in a pregnant patient
Loratadine is a second-generation antihistamine that is preferred for use in a pregnant patient.
Hay fever and other allergies are treated with loratadine to temporarily reduce their symptoms. These signs consist of sneezing, runny nose, and itchy eyes, nose, or throat. The itching and redness brought on by hives are also treated with loratadine. A drug used to treat allergies is loratadine, which is marketed under the trade names Claritin and others. Hives and allergic rhinitis are examples of this. The decongestant pseudoephedrine is also a component of loratadine, which is sold together as loratadine/pseudoephedrine. It is ingested orally. Do not use the pills or capsules in children under the age of 6 unless a doctor has prescribed them. Avoid giving liquid or chewable tablets to children under the age of 2 unless your doctor specifically instructs you to.
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a nurse, working in a rural county public health department, has been alerted that there is an outbreak of tuberculosis (tb) in the area. which client is at highest risk for developing tb?
Groups at High Risk for Developing TB Disease, People living with HIV. Children younger than 5 years of age., People with a history of untreated or inadequately treated TB disease.
What is tuberculosis?
A potentially serious infectious bacterial disease that mainly affects the lungs. The bacteria that cause TB are spread when an infected person coughs or sneezes. Most people infected with the bacteria that cause tuberculosis don't have symptoms.
The general symptoms of TB disease include feelings of sickness or weakness, weight loss, fever, and night sweats.
Tuberculosis (TB) is caused by a type of bacterium called Mycobacterium tuberculosis.
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this part of the middle ear vibrates and stimulates the bones of the ossicles when it perceives sounds waves.
Incoming sound waves cause the eardrum to vibrate, and these vibrations are then sent to three small bones in the middle ear.
What is Eardrum?
The tympanic membrane, also referred to as the eardrum, is a thin layer of skin that is tightly stretched inside the ear like a drum. In response to sound waves, the eardrum, which divides the middle ear from the outer ear, vibrates.
The eardrum is a component of the intricate system responsible for hearing. Additionally, it shields the middle ear from dirt and germs.
An infection can occasionally burst the eardrum. Hearing loss, ear pain, itching, and fluid pouring from the ear are all signs of an eardrum rupture. Ruptured eardrums typically recover on their own.
The middle layer, inner layer, and outer layer make up the eardrum. The eardrum's flexibility and rigidity are provided by the fibres in the intermediate layer. The eardrum is held in place by cartilage.
The eardrum, which resembles a flattened cone with its tip pointing inward toward the middle ear, covers the end of the external ear canal. It is about the size of a dime, transparent, and clear. 1
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Select the individuals who are more vulnerable to developing an active infection.- Elderly patients- Newborns- Patients taking immunosuppressive medications
Patients taking immunosuppressive medications and elderly patients are more vulnerable to developing an active infection.
One of the most significant issues with immunosuppressive medications is the increased risk of infections because these drugs severely impair the immune systems of their users.
Due to a number of circumstances, elderly persons are more prone to infections. As people age, comorbid illnesses like diabetes, renal failure, and arthritis become increasingly prevalent. People are more susceptible to infections due to the large number and variety of comorbid disorders.
The general vulnerability of a person exposed to a virus is influenced by a variety of innate factors (such as age, nutritional state, heredity, immunological competence, and pre-existing chronic conditions) and external ones (such as concurrent medication therapy).
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the parent of a 6-year-old calls the nurse and reports that the child was playing outside in the snow and the child's feet now appear red and swollen. what is the best response by the nurse?
Place the child's feet in warm water immediately is the best response by the nurse.
Why does feet appear red and swollen after coming from cold regions?
Small blood vessels close to your skin's surface may constrict in cold conditions. These tiny vessels could enlarge too soon once you warm up. This could result in blood leaking into the adjacent tissue and Edema. The discomfort is then brought on by the swelling irritating the nearby nerves.
The cause of this is unknown to doctors, however it may be connected to an odd response to exposure to cold and rewarming.
Does ice cause skin damage?
Ice burns or frostbite are terms used to describe skin damage brought on by extremely cold temperatures. Ice burns can result from prolonged exposure to freezing temperatures or coming into contact with something very cold, like ice cubes or an ice pack.
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the nurse is checking the informed consent for an older adult client who requires surgery and who has recently been diagnosed with alzheimer disease. when obtaining informed consent, who is legally responsible for signing?
The client is legally responsible for signing.
What is Alzheimer's disease?The brain shrinks and the brain cells die as a result of Alzheimer's disease, a neurologic degenerative illness. Alzheimer's disease is the most common form of dementia, which is defined by a continuous decline in mental, behavioral, and social abilities and reduces a person's ability to operate independently.
Early signs of this illness includes forgetting previous interactions or events. As Alzheimer's disease progresses, a person will have severe memory loss and lose their ability to perform fundamental tasks.
With medicines, symptoms may temporarily improve or develop more slowly. These treatments can occasionally help people with Alzheimer's disease preserve their independence and perform at their best. The people who have Alzheimer's disease and those who care for them can access a wide range of services and programmes.
There is currently no medication for Alzheimer's disease that can stop the illness's progression in the brain. In extreme stages of illness, significant loss of brain function-related problems, such as dehydration, hunger, or infection, lead to death.
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a nurse is teaching a group of adults on the risks of obesity on neurological health. what statement will the nurse include in the teaching regarding obesity and the risk for developing alzheimer disease?
"Individuals with obesity are twice as likely to develop Alzheimer disease than those who do not have obesity."
Obesity-related increases in FFA levels result in decreased neurotrophic support and increased neurodegeneration in peripheral nerves. DRG neurons, C-fiber cutaneous nerve endings, and the blood-nerve barrier are all directly damaged by long-chain fatty acids and inflammatory mediators.
Obesity can result in a clear and distinct reduction in brain size without any other factors. Obese people have a 2.4 percent decrease in brain parenchymal volume compared to those with a normal BMI.
Alzheimer's disease is thought to be caused by an abnormal protein buildup in and around brain cells. Amyloid is one of the proteins involved, and deposits of it form plaques around brain cells. Tau is the other protein, and deposits of it form tangles within brain cells.
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a patient with a poor diet shows fatigue, muscle weakness and pain, and emotional disturbances, suggesting a possible:
A patient with a poor diet shows fatigue, muscle weakness and pain, and emotional disturbances, suggesting a possible thiamin deficiency.
What is thiamin?Thiamin is defined as the micronutrient that is essential for the normal functioning of the body systems which is also called vitamin B1.
The functions of thiamin in the body include the following:
It helps in the maintenance of the nervous system.it helps the body's cells change carbohydrates into energy.it is essential for the metabolism of pyruvate, which is an important molecule in several chemical reactions in the body.Therefore, the patient with a poor diet shows fatigue, muscle weakness and pain, and emotional disturbances, suggesting a possible thiamin deficiency.
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Which action would the nurse take first after noting a flat line a client cardiac monitor
A cardiac activity monitor is a tool that you can use to monitor your heart's electrical activity (ECG). The size of this gadget is comparable to a pager. It captures the rhythm and beat of your heart.
What flat line, a client cardiac monitor?A bedside monitor is a gadget that resembles a television or computer monitor that shows vital physiological activities. The number of body functions to be tracked is decided by the doctor and nurse. The wires that connect the monitor are called leads.
Therefore, When symptoms that occur less frequently than daily require long-term monitoring, cardiac event monitors are employed.
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a nurse is accompanying a client to the mall to do some shopping. a neighbor of the nurse approaches and tries to engage the nurse in conversation. what would be the most appropriate response by the nurse to the neighbor?
Now is not good time to talk, I will telephone you. This should be the response of the Nurse.
What are the basic responsibility of Nurse?
Duties in nursing
One of a nurse's primary work duties is to:
Maintaining patient care throughout their shift for all patients.
Identifying any changes in a patient's health and acting appropriately.
Keeping track of and recording a patient's vital signs.
Having discussions with medical professionals to choose the best course of action.
Administering non-intravenous and over-the-counter medicines.
Changing dressings of the wounds.
Fostering a compassionate atmosphere by offering the patient and their family members emotional and psychological support.
Accurate use of medical equipment.
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a client has developed an abscess following abdominal surgery, and the client's food intake has been decreasing over the past 2 weeks. which laboratory finding may suggest the need for nutritional support?
Low serum albumin levels findings may suggest the need for nutritional support.
Serum albumin levels play an important role in preventing blood fluid from leaking into tissues. This test can determine whether you have liver or kidney disease, or whether your body is not absorbing enough protein. Low albumin levels are less than 3.4 grams per deciliter (g/dL). Hypoalbuminemia can be caused by a variety of medical conditions.
Serum albumin, also known as blood albumin, is an albumin found in vertebrate blood. The ALB gene encodes human serum albumin. Serum albumin (SA), the most abundant circulatory protein, is involved in a variety of critical physiological functions, including maintaining oncotic pressure and microvascular integrity, regulating metabolic and vascular functions, providing binding ligands for substances, antioxidant activities, and anticoagulant effects.
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the presence of prerenal azotemia is a probable indicator for hospitalization for cap. which of the following is an initial laboratory result that would alert a nurse to this condition? serum creatinine of 1.2 mg/dl. glomerular filtration rate (gfr) of 100 ml/min. blood urea nitrogen (bun)-to-creatinine ratio (bun:cr) >20. bun of 18 mg/dl.
The blood urea nitrogen-to-creatinine ratio (BUN:Cr) of more than 20 is the first test result that would alert a nurse to this problem. Therefore, the answer that you should select is C.
What is the BUN/Cr ratio?The blood urea nitrogen level and the serum creatinine level are the two serum laboratory measurements that are used to calculate the BUN-to-creatinine ratio. This ratio is also known as the blood urea nitrogen:creatinine ratio. This is used to determine whether or not the kidneys are functioning properly.
A healthy adult should have a BUN:Cr ratio that is not greater than 15 (or less than 15). The condition known as prerenal azotemia is brought on by hypoperfusion of the kidneys as a result of something other than renal disease. After a period of time, the body will generate blood levels of urea or other nitrogen-containing molecules that are higher than what is considered normal.
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a nurse has custody of a client's daily kardex and care plan so in order to give a change-of-shift report. after reporting to the next shift, what steps should the nurse implement to maintain client confidentiality?
To maintain patient confidentiality, shred the documents or put them in a container.
define patient confidentiality ?
Patient confidentiality implies that a patient's personal and medical information won't be released to other parties unless they have the patient's express permission to do so.
To maintain patient confidentiality, shred the documents or put them in a container.
Care plans, kandexes, and other client papers may include private client data. For appropriate disposal, the nurse should shred them or put them in a designated confidential receptacle. Documents holding a client's name and information shouldn't be disposed of in regular rubbish since it isn't safe or appropriate to do so. The documents could be seen by others if they are left at the nurses' station. When the nurse is done with them, there is no need to enter the nursing Kardex and care plan into the client's chart.
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the nurse administered neostigmine to a client with myasthenia gravis. the nurse is doubling the dose that the client was taking at home. three hours later, the nurse is assessing the client and notes the following symptoms: nausea with vomiting, diarrhea, and sweating. what does the nurse interpret these symptoms to be?
The nurse should interpret these symptoms as cholinergic crisis, and the provider needs to be notified immediately.
What is myasthenia gravis?Myasthenia gravis is a critical medical condition that occurs when there is an interruption between the communication existing in muscles and nerves.
The medication that can be used for the treatment of myasthenia gravis is neostigmine.
The side effects that has been reported while using neostigmine include the following:
nausea,vomiting,drowsiness, headache, dysarthria, miosis,visual changes.diarrhea, and sweating.When two or more of these side effects are seen the same time in the patient it is termed cholinergic crisis and should be reported.
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a client is admitted for further testing to confirm sarcoidosis. which diagnostic test provides definitive information that the nurse should report to the healthcare provider?
Diagnostic tests performed to confirm sarcoidosis in health services include blood tests, pulmonary function tests, and CT scans or MRI examinations.
What is sarcoidosis?Sarcoidosis is a disease characterized by the growth of body cells that experience inflammation. This condition generally affects the lungs and lymph nodes, but can also occur in the eyes, skin, or heart.
Sarcoidosis occurs when the body's immune system attacks foreign substances excessively. This condition makes the body's cells form lumps or granulomas.
Over time, granulomas can form scar tissue (fibrosis). If not treated immediately, the scar tissue is at risk of causing interference with organ function.
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The electronic health record (EHR) allows patient information to be created at different locations according to a unique patient identifier or identification number, which is called
The technician needs to make 25 mL of a 1. 0% fluconazole ointment. How much fluconazole should be weighed out for this ointment?
(blank) g
Please show your work!
Explain your answer!
No spam answer!
No incorrect answer!
No nonsense answer!
Thanks!
150 grams of fluconazole should be weighed out for this ointment.
Fluconazole is an antifungal medication. It is used in the treatment of fungal infections, including yeast infections in different parts of our body. It kills fungi by destroying the fungal cell membrane.Some side effects are signs of an allergic reaction (hives, difficult breathing, swelling in your face or throat) or a severe skin reaction (fever, sore throat, burning eyes, skin pain, red or purple skin rash with blistering and peeling).You may take fluconazole oral with or without food.Shake the oral suspension (liquid) before you measure a dose. Use the dosing syringe provided, or use a medicine dose-measuring device (not a kitchen spoon).To know more about medicines visit:
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a nurse in the maternity triage unit is caring for a client with a suspected ectopic pregnancy. which nursing intervention should the nurse perform first?
The nursing intervention that the nurse should perform first is assess the client's vital signs.
What is ectopic pregnancy?
pregnancy where the fertilized egg implants outside the uterus
Outside of the uterus, the fertilized egg cannot live. If allowed to continue growing, it could harm adjacent organs and result in a blood loss that is fatal.
The most typical ectopic pregnancy, known as a tubal pregnancy, occurs when a fertilized egg becomes impaled on its journey to the uterus. This commonly occurs when the fallopian tube is inflamed or malformed, which can cause damage to the tube. Unbalanced hormone levels or irregular follicle growth could possibly be at play.
other pregnancy-related symptoms, such as a missing menstruation. low-level abdominal ache on one side. either uterine hemorrhage or a dark, runny discharge. a sharp discomfort at the shoulder's point.
Therefore, The nursing intervention that the nurse should perform first is assess the client's vital signs.
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a young child with a history of bronchial asthma is brought to the emergency department for the second time in a month with symptoms of audible expiratory wheezing and intercostal retractions. the parents voice frustration about repeated hospital visits. what teaching intervention is most important for the nurse to address with the parents?
providing a variety of resources to help parents quit smoking
How does smoking cause bronchial asthma?
Smoking is a primary allergen that can begin the inflammatory response in children with bronchial asthma. Few children with bronchial asthma will remain asymptomatic for the remainder of their lives. As many as one in two children who had childhood asthma and who are asymptomatic at 18 years of age are likely to have the recurrent, symptomatic disease by age 26 years. Asthma usually persists as a low-grade, subclinical condition. All age groups may experience life-threatening asthmatic episodes.
Hence, the answer is providing a variety of resources to help parents quit smoking
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