Prior to the administration of Pharmaceutical treatment, the nurse must check and validate the medication order, and also apply their critical thinking skills to the ordered medication and the status and condition of the client in respect to the contraindications, pertinent lab results, pertinent data like vital signs.
Pharmaceutical treatment is the practice of using pharmaceutical medications to treat or prevent disease. Pharmaceutical therapy, also referred to as pharmacotherapy or pharmacological therapy, is the use of medications to treat sickness (drugs). Diseases can be treated to alleviate pain and other specific symptoms, and their progression can be stopped. Pharmacists and other licensed medical professionals must possess a high level of training and expertise in order to successfully provide this type of therapy.
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a client with moderately elevated lipid levels requests immediate pharmacotherapy for dyslipidemia. the nurse explains that a period of intensive diet therapy and lifestyle modification will be utilized before drug therapy is considered based on what rationale?
The nurse explains the rationale for receiving pharmacotherapy for dyslipidemia is therapeutic lifestyle changes as the preferred method for lowering blood lipids.
Dyslipidemia is characterized by a discrepancy of lipids like cholesterol, low-density lipoprotein cholesterol (LDL-C), triglycerides, and high-density lipoprotein cholesterol (HDL). This condition, which can be caused by diet, tobacco use, or genetics, could indeed result in cardiovascular disease with adverse outcomes. Dyslipidemia, particularly in smokers, increases the risk of blocked arteries (atherosclerosis) and cardiac arrest, strokes, and other circulatory problems. Obesity, an unhealthy diet, and a lack of exercise are frequently associated with it in adults.
Dyslipidemia is usually asymptomatic. A healthy diet, exercise, and lipid-lowering medications can all help to keep complications at bay.
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a nutritionist wants to determine how eating foods together affects the stomach ph. she places ten drops of fresh potato juice in a beaker containing universal indicator solution. the solution turns a yellow color. she then adds ten drops of white vinegar, which is a solution of acetic acid
Food stimulates the production of stomach acid in both humans and animals. However, the pH of a man's stomach is lowest in the early morning.
Protein meals are effective buffers that raise gastric pH right away after eating and strong stimulators of acid production, which lowers pH as the stomach empties.
Iron, zinc, and B vitamins are necessary elements for maintaining stomach acid levels. Poor food, nutritional loss through diseases, stress, smoking, drinking alcohol, or a combination of these factors can all contribute to low stomach acid. Helicobacter pylori infection
Gastric acid production is regulated by feedback mechanisms when necessary, such as after a meal. Hydrochloric acid, or HCl, is released by the stomach's walls. It contributes to the stomach's acidic pH, which ranges from 1 to 3. This very acidic pH helps the stomach convert food into chyme, an acidic material, which is then digested.
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during her treatment for alcohol addiction, tammy is given a drug that makes her vomit every time she drinks. this method is called:
When Tammy is given a drug that makes her vomit every time she drinks. this method is called disulfiram treatment
What is disulfiram?When even minute amounts of alcohol are consumed while taking the medication, people experience extremely unpleasant side effects such as headaches, nausea, and vomiting as well as weakness, confusion, and anxiety.
Chronic alcoholism is treated with the drug disulfiram. When even small amounts of alcohol are consumed, unpleasant effects result. These side effects consist of flushing, headaches, nausea, vomiting, chest pain, weakness, blurred vision, mental confusion, sweating, choking, difficulty breathing, and anxiety.
In conclusion, the treatment is disulfiram treatment.
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a patient with renal failure is scheduled for a surgical procedure. when would surgery be contraindicated for this patient due to laboratory results?
Surgery is planned for a patient with renal failure, thus the procedure should be avoided because of the patient's laboratory test results. 42 mg/dl of urea nitrogen in the blood
What is a renal organ?Humans have a renal system, which consists of the kidneys, which create urine, and the ureters, bladder, and urethra, which allow urine to pass through, be stored, and then be expelled. Renal failure is most usually brought on by high blood pressure and diabetes. Additionally, infections, diseases, or other disorders may cause them harm. The prefix nephro- comes from the Ancient Greek word nephros (v), which means kidney. The adjective renal, which means linked to the kidney, is derived from the Latin rns, which means kidneys. Nephrectomy, for instance, is the surgical removal of the kidney; renal dysfunction, on the other hand, is a decline in kidney function.
What are renal problems?Dangerous levels of wastes may build up when your kidneys lose their filtering capacity, and your blood's chemical composition may go out of balance. Acute renal failure, also known as acute kidney injury, is a sudden condition that normally develops within a few days.
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the nurse is preparing to administer a medication to a client and needs to confirm identification of the client. what may the nurse use to identify this client? (select all that apply.
Option 1,2,3 bar-coded, point-of-care, medication system, the nurse may use to identify this patient . when the nurse is preparing to administer a medication to a client and needs to confirm identification of the client.
Prior to administering the drug, the nurse must verify that the patient's identify matches the medication administration record (MAR), bar-coded point-of-care pharmaceutical system, and medication label to make sure the right patient is receiving it. The process of asking patients to identify themselves while utilizing their medical ID number is crucial to enhancing the accuracy of the patient identification procedure.
The complete question is :
the nurse is preparing to administer a medication to a client and needs to confirm identification of the client. what may the nurse use to identify this client? (select all that apply).
1. bar-coded
2. point-of-care
3. medication system
4. Face of patient
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a wound occurs when a bullet enters the body at a very shallow angle. group of answer choices keyhole concentric spall and plug round
Even during surgery, when the skin is damaged, bacteria can enter and lead to illness.Accidents and injuries are common causes of wounds.
How is wound healing accomplished?Hemostasis, inflammation, proliferation, & remodeling are the four perfectly timed steps that make up the normal biological process of wound healing in the human body.All four phases of wound healing must take place in the right order and amount of time for healing to be successful.
When does the wound contract?Wound contraction, which typically begins five days after damage, is the last symptom of the proliferation phase.With the help of newly migratory fibroblasts, the collagenous matrix is formed during the dynamic process of wound contraction.
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a child recently diagnosed with chronic aplastic anemia is being prepared for discharge. when planning support for the family, which service should the nurse plan to include in the discharge plan?
The service should the nurse plan to include in the discharge plan is suggestions for social services and support organizations.
Families need assistance as they cope with a horrible illness in a kid. They should be encouraged to join support groups for social support and counseling if necessary. Long-term support will be provided. One does not inherit aplastic anemia from their parents. Aplastic anemia may or may not require nutritional counseling, which is not the main subject of this article.
When the body ceases making enough new blood cells, aplastic anemia develops. You get worn out and more prone to infections and excessive bleeding as a result of the sickness. Aplastic anemia is a rare but deadly disorder that can affect anyone at any time. an uncommon disease where the body stops making enough red blood cells. Damage to the bone marrow leads to the development of aplastic anemia.
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Compared to sitting on the couch, when you participate in vigorous activity, at the cellular level, your very active muscle cells can burn ________ more energy compared to muscle cells at rest.
a.2 times
b.4 times
c.10 times
d.50 times
Answer: d
Very active muscle cells can burn 50 times more energy compared to muscle cells at rest.
Vigorous physical activity can result in significantly higher energy expenditure at the cellular level compared to resting or sedentary activities. During vigorous physical activity, muscle cells are required to work much harder and use more energy compared to when they are at rest. Muscle cells use energy in the form of ATP to contract and produce movement. To meet this increased demand, the body increases its rate of energy production, which can lead to a significant increase in energy expenditure at the cellular level.
In comparison, during sedentary activities such as sitting on the couch, muscle cells are not required to work as hard and use much less energy. As a result, energy expenditure at the cellular level is much lower during these types of activities. Therefore, when a person engages in vigorous activity, her active muscle cells might burn 50 times more energy compared to muscle cells at rest, as compared to resting on the couch.
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limitation of the body mass index (bmi) is that it: a. is difficult to determine without a calculator. b. does not indicate any health risks. c. does not take body composition into account. d. is not accurate when used on women.
According to the research, the correct answer is Option C. Limitation of the body mass index (bmi) is that it does not take body composition into account.
What is the body mass index (bmi)?It is a standard way to determine if an adult has the correct weight in relation to the weight and height of a person.
In this sense, it does not used body composition as a parameter and the BMI should be compared with the percentage of body fat and the ideal weight, to complement the BMI in the evaluation of nutritional status and in the diagnosis of obesity.
Therefore, we can conclude that according to the research, the Body Mass Index (BMI) is a measure that does not vary according to sex or age, being more useful in the evaluation of overweight and obesity.
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you meet a capgras syndrome patient who insists their spouse is an imposter. why do they think this?
Capgras syndrome patients feel that their partner is a cheater, they recognize their partner but feel they do not have an emotional closeness with that person.
Capgras Syndrome is a psychological condition also known as Imitator Syndrome or Capgras Delusions. Irrationally, someone with Capgras Syndrome has the belief that someone they know has been banned by impersonating impostors.
People with Capgras Syndrome can still recognize the people closest to them. Even though physically and in appearance they have the same appearance, they feel they do not have an emotional closeness with that person, giving rise to the assumption that the person is a fraud.
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a client has been diagnosed with a fungal infection and been prescribed a topical antifungal medication. what assessment question should the nurse ask when addressing the possible etiology of the fungal infection?
"Have you been prescribed any antibiotics in the recent past?" is th assessment question the nurse should ask when addressing the possible etiology of the fungal infection.
Even if the patient believes their symptoms have subsided, they should be reminded to strictly follow antibiotics dose directions and finish the medication. Any skin rash should be disclosed to the physician by the patient. Antifungal drugs are effective in treating fungal infections. They have the ability of antibiotics to either directly kill fungus or stop them from developing and prospering. The many kinds of antifungal medicines, such as creams and ointments, are accessible as over-the-counter (OTC) remedies or as prescription therapies.
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Pellagra occurs when _________ is the staple grain in the diet and the diet does not provide a mixture of different foods.
A. rice
B. barley
C. wheat
D. corn
Pellagra occurs when corn is the staple grain in the diet and the diet does not provide a mixture of different foods.
Pellagra is a disease that occurs when a person does not get enough niacin, or vitamin B-3.
There are two types of pellagra that is primary and other is secondary. Primary pellagra comes from not getting enough niacin in the diet, while secondary pellagra develops when the body is unable to absorb niacin. Niacin is found in animal proteins, fruits, and vegetables. The body can also make niacin using essential amino acids. The body gets these amino acids from other foods, such as chicken and sunflower seeds. Primary pellagra is more common in areas where people depend on corn food, because the niacin in corn is in the form of niacin, which people cannot digest and absorb.
Certain conditions, such as alcohol abuse and HIV infection, prevent the body from absorbing niacin and can lead to Reliable Source secondary pellagra.
Causes and Risk Factors
The causes of primary and secondary pellagra are different.
Primary pellagra occurs when a person's diet is low in niacin. The people most at risk of getting pellagra first are those whose diet is based on corn. It's hard to find reliable sources in developed countries, where manufacturers are constantly fortifying flour with niacin. A person who cannot absorb vitamin B-3, despite eating a diet rich in niacin, may develop secondary pellagra. The main risk factor for secondary pellagra is alcohol abuse. Another article from 2014 showed that poor consumption of alcohol can cause pellagra through poor nutrition. A person may not be eating enough foods containing niacin, and alcohol can prevent the body from absorbing it. Alcohol can also prevent some proteins from converting to niacin, increasing the risk of developing pellagra.
However, pellagra caused by alcohol is often not diagnosed because its presentation is similar to that of alcohol-withdrawal delirium.
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your patient reports pain in their ankle while squatting during the down phase. what arthrokinematic motion of the ankle would you suspect would be limited?
while squatting during the down phase. what arthrokinematic motion of the ankle would you suspect would be limited Dorsiflexion is the movement made by the ankle during a squat. When performing a squat, an ankle may appear to be dorsiflexing, but if the ankle is limited, the foot pronates instead.
Why is ankle dorsiflexion restricted?
The patient in the image for your case complains of ankle pain while squatting during the down phase. What ankle articular kinematic motion do you think would be restricted?
Numerous illnesses might restrict ankle dorsiflexion. Dorsiflexion might be hampered by tight calves and flat feet since they reduce your range of motion. Dorsiflexion can also be impeded by an ankle that is damaged in some way. This can be the result of an injury or an ankle that is overly tight.
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PASTE"" is an alternate assessment tool for ______. Select one: A. cardiac patients. B. stroke patients. C. respiratory patients. D. seizure patients.
PASTE"" is an alternate assessment tool for respiratory patients.
Lung cancer, infections like pneumonia and the flu, lung cancer, and less frequent ailments like interstitial lung disease and mesothelioma are just a few of the conditions that fall under the umbrella term of respiratory disease.
Therefore, respiratory disease plays a significant role in the growing disparity in life expectancy between both the rich and the poor. Numerous variables include increased exposure to risk factors (including smoking, air pollution, substandard housing, and workplace hazards).
As well as variations in healthcare quality and availability, contribute to this gap. Particular populations, such as those with a serious mental illness, those with learning difficulties, and those who are homeless, are substantially more likely to develop respiratory illnesses.
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Answer: PASTE"" is an alternate assessment tool for respiratory patients.
Explanation: Lung cancer, infections like pneumonia and the flu, lung cancer, and less frequent ailments like interstitial lung disease and mesothelioma are just a few of the conditions that fall under the umbrella term of respiratory disease.
Therefore, respiratory disease plays a significant role in the growing disparity in life expectancy between both the rich and the poor. Numerous variables include increased exposure to risk factors (including smoking, air pollution, substandard housing, and workplace hazards).
As well as variations in healthcare quality and availability, contribute to this gap. Particular populations, such as those with a serious mental illness, those with learning difficulties, and those who are homeless, are substantially more likely to develop respiratory illnesses.
what should be told to the patient who has been found to have a genetic mutation that increases the risk for colon cancer and says he does not want any of his family to know about this result?
It is understandable that the patient may not want to share this information with his family, and it is ultimately up to him to decide how and when to share this result.
However, it is important to consider that his family may have the same genetic mutation and also be at risk for developing colon cancer. It is important for the patient to discuss with his doctor the benefits and risks of disclosing this information to his family, and to consider the potential impact of this genetic mutation on other family members.
The patient may want to consider genetic counseling to help him make an informed decision. A genetic counselor can provide information on the risks associated with the mutation and potential screening and preventive measures that could be taken. They can also help the patient understand the implications of disclosing this information to his family and provide support as he makes his decision. Additionally, the patient should be informed that genetic information is protected by law and cannot be shared without his permission.
Ultimately, it is up to the patient to decide how and when to disclose this result to his family, and his doctor can provide additional resources to help him make an informed decision.
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Recent research suggests that ______ in childhood is associated with increased risk later in life for nearly all classes of psychological disorders.
Trauma in childhood can develop into psychological disorders later in life.
What is trauma?An emotional reaction to a stressful incident or set of events, such as accidents, or natural disasters, is known as mental trauma, or psychodrama.
Longer-term effects can include erratic emotions, flashbacks, relationship problems, and even physical symptoms like headaches or nausea.
Mental distress or suffering, which are both common human experiences, is not the same as trauma. Similar situations will elicit diverse responses from people.
To put it another way, not everyone encountering a potentially traumatic situation will experience psychological trauma. After experiencing severe trauma, some people will acquire post-traumatic stress disorder.
This difference in risk rate can be ascribed to protective qualities that certain people may possess and that help them deal with traumatic occurrences.
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which activities would be taught by the nurse as methods of relieving back pain in pregnancy? select all that apply. one, some, or all responses may be correct.
Pelvic rocking and Squatting activities would be taught by the nurse as methods of relieving back pain in pregnancy.
Both pelvic rocking and squatting can help to relieve backache during pregnancy by stretching and strengthening the muscles of the lower back pain and pelvis. Pelvic rocking involves gently rocking the pelvis forward and backward, while squatting involves standing with the feet shoulder-width apart and lowering the body down as if sitting back into a chair. These exercises can help to improve circulation, reduce muscle tension, and alleviate discomfort. It is important to perform these exercises under the guidance of a healthcare provider or trained fitness instructor to ensure proper form and to avoid injury.
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Question- A pregnant woman is taught many different types of exercises during pregnancy to help relieve pain, prevent complications, and facilitate an easier delivery. Which of the following exercises is taught to relieve backache during pregnancy?
1. pelvic rocking
2. abdominal muscle contractions
3. pelvic floor exercises
4. squatting
nurse mark is caring for ms. hall, who is taking furosemide (lasix) and spironolactone (aldactone). mark would be most concerned that the medications were not working if he noted
This combination promotes diuresis but decreases the risk of hypokalemia. correct option(2)
Spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic; furosemide is a potassium-losing diuretic. Giving these together minimizes electrolyte imbalance.
Spironolactone is a diuretic that reduces potassium levels (water pill). It maintains your potassium levels from falling too low and prevents your body from absorbing too much salt. This medication is also employed in the treatment and prevention of hypokalemia (low potassium levels in the blood).
If you have a sluggish or irregular heartbeat, tingling sensations, muscular weakness, or shortness of breath, your potassium levels may be too high. If you're urinating less than usual or have black, strong-smelling pee, are thirsty, or feel dizzy or light-headed, you may be dehydrated.
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Full Question: The nurse is providing education to a patient on why spironolactone (Aldactone) and furosemide (Lasix) are prescribed together. What information does the nurse provide to the patient?
1) Moderate doses of two different types of diuretics are more effective than a large dose of one type.
2) This combination promotes diuresis but decreases the risk of hypokalemia.
3) This combination prevents dehydration and hypovolemia.
4) Using two drugs increases osmolality of plasma and the glomerular filtration rate.
while the school nurse is providing health education to a group of children on the dangers of illicit drug use, a child asks the nurse what sniffing gasoline or glue does to the body. what response is most effective in addressing this question?
Answer:
The clinical picture of gas sniffing includes visual hallucinations, changes in consciousness, euphoria, nystagmus, dizziness, weakness and tremors . There is the possibility of rapid recovery,
sudden death or brain damage with chronic abuse.
a patient is to receive 4.00 grams of a cephalosporin antibiotic by iv per day. the 0.500 l iv bag is labeled as containing 500.0 mg cephalosporin per 100.0 ml normal saline solution. what should the flow rate of the iv drip be in ml/min?
A patient must have 4 grammes of a cephalosporin antibiotic intravenously each day. According to the label on the 0.500 l IV bag, there are 500.0 mg of cephalosporin in every 100.0 ml of ordinary saline solution. The IV drip should have a flow rate of 556 ML/MIN.
Skin and skin-structure infections, bone infections, genitourinary infections, otitis media, and community-acquired respiratory tract infections are all treated with cephalosporins.Third-generation cephalosporins are antibiotics that are used to control and treat both gram-positive and gram-negative bacteria. They are within the category of medications known as beta-lactams. Third-generation cephalosporins are an effective tool in the treatment of gram-negative bacteria, and this activity explains their indications, mode of action, and contrain.
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recall the sequence of decisions a bystander must make before he or she will intervene in an emergency. which of the following is not one of the specific steps?
Because no options are provided, the answer simply explain the sequence of decisions made by a bystander before intervention in an emergency by Darley and Latane in order for you to easily figure out the correct solution.
In bystander scenarios, Latane and Darley outline a five-step process: the possible emergency draws the person's attention; the person then assesses the situation and determines their level of responsibility and ability; and last, they decide whether or not to assist.
What was the bystander experiment result by Darley and Latane?Research was done on the dissemination of responsibility by Darley and Latane. The results imply that people are less inclined or move more slowly to assist a victim in an emergency when they think there are other people nearby because they think someone else will shoulder the responsibility.
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the nurse is conducting an ongoing assessment of a client who is prescribed loxapine. which finding is most likely attributable to this medication?
A client who is prescribed loxapine. Take this drug by mouth as suggested by your doctor, often 2 to 4 times per day, with or without food.
What impacts the body does loxapine have?Schizophrenia symptoms are treated with loxapine (a mental illness that causes disturbed or unusual thinking, loss of interest in life, and strong or inappropriate emotions). The drug loxapine belongs to a class of drugs known as conventional antipsychotics. It functions by reducing excessive cerebral type of excitation.
Can loxapine reduce anxiety?Certain mental/mood problems are treated with loxapine (such as schizophrenia). You can now participate in daily life and think more clearly ,thanks to this medication. Aggression and the urge to harm oneself or others can be diminished by it.
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3. a client diagnosed with major depression spends most of the day lying in bed the sheets pulled over his head which approach by the nurse is most therapeutic:
A client diagnosed with major depression spends most of the day lying in bed the sheets pulled over his head which approach by the nurse is most therapeutic: Initiate contact with the client frequently. Correct option( 2)
Depression is a very frequent mental illness. It is believed that 5% of individuals worldwide suffer from the illness. It is distinguished by continuous unhappiness and a loss of interest or pleasure in formerly rewarding or pleasurable activities. It can also interfere with sleep and appetite.
Medications and psychotherapy are effective for most people with depression. Your primary care doctor or psychiatrist can prescribe medications to relieve symptoms. However, many people with depression also benefit from seeing a psychiatrist, psychologist or other mental health professional.
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Full Question: A client diagnosed with major depression spends most of the day lying in bed with the sheet pulled over his head. Which of the following approaches by the nurse is most therapeutic?
1. Wait for the client to begin the conversation.
2. Initiate contact with the client frequently.
3. Sit outside the client's room.
4. Question the client until he responds.
the nurse is teaching the paraplegic client measures to promote skin integrity. which instructions would be helpful to the client? select all that apply.
The instructions to help clients include Consume a balanced diet, while in a wheelchair, apply a pressure-relieving pad, Inspect the bottom sheet for wrinkling and moisture.
what is pressure sore?
Other names for pressure ulcers include bedsores and pressure sores. They may develop as a result of extended pressure from your skin and soft tissue against a firmer surface, like a chair or bed. The area's blood supply is decreased by this pressure. The skin tissue in this location may deteriorate or even die if there is insufficient blood flow. A pressure ulcer may develop as a result.
Use a seat cushion made of foam or gel that suits your wheelchair to sit. To relieve strain on the skin, natural sheepskin pads are very beneficial. Never sit on a cushion that resembles a donut.
Every 15 to 20 minutes, you or your career should change where you are seated in your wheelchair. This will keep blood flowing and relieve pressure on some regions.
Use a mattress made of foam or one that is filled with air or gel.
Using pads under your bottom will help keep your skin dry by absorbing moisture.
To stay healthy, consume adequate calories and protein.
Every day, consume a lot of water.
Use a soft pillow or a piece of soft foam between body areas that press against your mattress or each other.
Laying on your side, place a pillow or piece of foam between your knees and ankles.
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a nurse is teaching a client with herpes zoster to apply acyclovir ointment. what guidance should the nurse include in the instructions?
Wear gloves when applying the ointment with Herpes Zoster.
What is Ointment?
One of the various semisolid medicines is an ointment, along with creams, pastes, and jellies. Pills, tablets, lozenges, and suppositories are examples of solid medications. The chemicals are more stable, less likely to undergo chemical reactions, and dosage calculation is simpler in this form.
Many medicines are made into solutions by mixing them with water, alcohol, or another solvent. These could include tinctures, elixirs, and spirits. One of the various semisolid medicines is an ointment, along with creams, pastes, and jellies. Pills, tablets, lozenges, and suppositories are examples of solid medications. The substances are more stable in this form, there is less chance of a chemical reaction, and dosage calculation is simpler. Additionally, solid forms are easier to store and package, and they are easier to manufacture.To Know more about Ointment, Check out:
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paul took benzodiazepines for the last six months as treatment for anxiety and has recently stopped taking his medication. what does it mean if paul experiences a rebound effect?
A rebound effect is a return of symptoms that were previously relieved by the medication, usually worse than they were before.
In Paul's case, it would mean that he is experiencing a return of his anxiety symptoms, which may be more intense than before he started taking the benzodiazepines.Understanding the Rebound Effect of Benzodiazepines for Anxiety TreatmentPaul has been taking benzodiazepines to treat his anxiety for the last six months, but has recently stopped taking the medication. If Paul experiences a rebound effect, it means that he is now experiencing a return of the anxiety symptoms he had before he started taking the medication.
This return of symptoms is usually worse than before, as the body is trying to readjust to being without the medication. The rebound effect can occur for both physical and mental symptoms, and can cause discomfort and distress to the person experiencing it.
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the nurse notes that a newborn who is 5 minutes old, exhibits the following characteristics: heart rate 108 beats/minute, respiratory rate 48 breaths/minute, with a good cry, pink body with bluish hands and feet, some flexion of extremities. what does the nurse determine the newborns apgar score is at 5 minutes?
the nurse determines that the new born Apgar score is 8 at 5 minutes.
what is Apgar score?The Apgar score is a quick technique for medical professionals to assess each newborn's health at 1, 5, and following resuscitation. Virginia Apgar, an anesthesiologist at Columbia University, created it in 1952 in response to the necessity for a systematic method of assessing newborns soon after birth.
Although the methods used to administer and use the Apgar categories to evaluate a newborn's health have changed over time, they are still basically the same today as they were in 1952. The newborn is assessed using five factors to establish the score: activity (tone), pulse, grimace, appearance, and respiration. Newborns can obtain scores ranging from 0 to 2 for each criterion.
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when the nurse cares for a client receiving an antibiotic, what instructions should the nurse provide no matter what medication is prescribed? select all that apply.
Drink plenty of water to protect your kidneys. Take all prescribed drugs exactly as prescribed, up to and including the last drop should be prescribed by the nurse.
Report breathing problems, intense headaches, or modifications in urine output. Prior to the first dose, culture/sensitivity testing is required (may give before results are obtained). Evaluation of WBC results, temperature, pulse, and respiration. Evaluation and Intervention: Keep an eye on the lab results, especially the WBC and the culture/sensitivity reports. Check for negative effects. It is often taken with or without food every 12 hours (twice per day) or every 8 hours (thrice per day). The sort of infection you have will determine how long your therapy will last.
Antibiotics frequently cause nausea, diarrhea, and stomach pain as side effects. These signs can occasionally cause dehydration and other issues.
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the nurse is caring for patient with an addictive disorder who is currently drug-free. the patient is experiencing repeated occurrences of vivid, frightening images and thoughts. which term would the nurse use to document this finding?
Common disorders that entail excessive alcohol and drug usage include addictive illnesses including substance abuse and dependency. Addiction is a chronic, recurrent disorder that develops over time.
Multiple factors & disorders, such as genetic predisposition, environmental stresses, societal pressures, unique personality traits, and psychiatric issues can lead to addictive diseases.
The nurse should asses the following for documentation:
ToleranceFlashbacksWithdrawalPhysical dependencyAddiction illnesses develop when a substance alters the way the user's brain experiences pleasure. The ability of the brain to transmit and receive the neurotransmitters that are responsible for pleasure is altered by addictive substances. Addicts rely on the drug rather than their own naturally occurring brain chemicals for pleasure since addictive substances can stop the brain's neurons, or nerve cells, from receiving these neurotransmitters.
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a nurse is assessing a pregnant woman who says she drinks 5 to 7 alcoholic drinks per week. what action by the nurse is best?
The nurse should explain to the pregnant woman that during pregnancy, alcohol in any amount can harm the fetus.
Through the umbilical cord, alcohol from the mother's blood can enter the newborn. Alcohol consumption during pregnancy can result in stillbirth, and miscarriage, as well as a number of physical, behavioral, and cognitive problems that can last a lifetime. Fetal alcohol spectrum disorders are the term for these impairments (FASDs). It is never advisable to consume alcohol when expecting. Even before a woman is aware that she is pregnant, drinking alcohol has the potential to be harmful to the fetus. During the first three months of pregnancy, alcohol usage increases the chance that the baby may be born with unusual facial traits. Drinking during pregnancy might affect the neurological system and growth at any stage (such as behavioral problems, low birth weight, etc.). Alcohol usage can have an impact at any moment during pregnancy since the baby's brain continues to develop. The newborn's health and well-being will increase if drinking is halted.
The complete question is:
A nurse is assessing a pregnant woman who says she drinks 5 to 7 alcoholic drinks per week. What action by the nurse is best?
A. Advise the woman to decrease her drinking to 3 to 4 drinks per week.
B. Explain that during pregnancy, alcohol in any amount can harm the fetus.
C. Teach her that for women, the safe alcohol limit is 1 drink in an hour.
D. Tell the woman to substitute caffeinated beverages for alcohol.
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