What are the three different types of epidemiological nutrition studies and the three types of experimental nutrition studies

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Answer 1

The three different types of epidemiological nutrition studies: cross-sectional, case-control, and prospective cohort studies. The three basic types of nutrition research are randomized, animal and laboratory studies, and cohort studies.

Cross-sectional studies are used primarily to determine the prevalence of a problem, while cohort studies involve the study of a population that is both exposed and unexposed to the cause of the disease. Case control studies are used to study 2 groups of cases (diseased) and controls (non-diseased) and to identify risk factors between them. Randomized trials, researchers actually intervene to see how a particular behavior change or treatment, for example, will affect a health outcome. Animal and laboratory studies are studies carried out in laboratories on cells, tissues or animals. Laboratories provide tightly controlled conditions that have a broad impact on human health.

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Related Questions

How many extra reps should you be able to perform with perfect technique before increasing the weight for a particular strength training exercise

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5 - 8 reps should you be able to perform with perfect technique before increasing the weight for a particular strength training exercise.

What is reps and strength training exercise?Reps, or repetitions as they are sometimes called, are the actions of one full strength training exercise, such as one biceps curl.In between rest times, you perform sets of a certain number of reps.For muscle hypertrophy (increased growth), the American College of Sports Medicine advises 4 to 6 repetitions with greater weight, 8 to 12 repetitions for muscle strength, and 10 to 15 repetitions for muscle endurance.The National Strength and Conditioning Association (NSCA) claims that performing 2 to 6 sets of 6 or less reps (with 2 to 5 minutes of rest in between) or performing 1 to 3 sets of 8 or fewer reps are the optimal reps and sets for strength (with roughly 90 seconds to 2 minutes of rest in between).

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A coal miner comes in to pulmonary clinic complaining of SOB. Which group of diagnostic tests should be ordered to evaluate the presence of lung disease

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Pulmonary function test (PFT) group of diagnostic tests should be ordered to evaluate the presence of lung disease.

What is lung disease?Pneumoconiosis, a lung condition that can be brought on by exposure to airborne respirable dust, is a risk for miners. People can breathe in these extra-fine dust particles into their lung tissue. Lung cancer mortality can also be more common among miners.PFTs (pulmonary function tests) are noninvasive examinations that demonstrate how effectively the lungs are functioning. The tests measure gas exchange, flow rates, and lung size and function.Inhaling coal dust can cause coal workers' pneumoconiosis (CWP), also referred to as "black lung sickness."

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Karen's health plan requires her care to be managed by her primary care provider. It is a(n) ______________.

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It is an H.M.O. (Health Maintenance Organization).

What is H.M.O.?

A type of health insurance plan that typically restricts coverage to medical services from providers under contract or employed by the HMO. Except in cases of urgency, out-of-network care is typically not covered. You might need to reside or work in an HMO's service region in order to be eligible for coverage. HMOs frequently offer coordinated treatment with an emphasis on wellness and prevention.

An HMO's tendency to offer lower monthly premiums and out-of-pocket expenses (deductibles, copays, and coinsurance) than other insurance plans is one of its benefits. For those who simply require routine medical care, such as yearly exams and immunizations, an HMO is particularly cost-effective.

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In e. Coli, if rna polymerase is missing ________, then transcription initiation would not occur at the appropriate initiation sites.

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In E. coli if RNA polymerase is missing the sigma factor, then transcription initiation would not occur at the appropriate initiation sites.

What is a sigma factor?

Transcription is a process in which a copy of the DNA is made in the form of mRNA. The sigma factor is a very important molecule that is required for the proper functioning of the transcription process. E. coli, which is a prokaryote, needs the sigma factor to allow the RNA polymerase to bind to the DNA molecule to start the transcription process. Once the sigma factor binds to the RNA polymerase molecule, it can recognize the promoter region of the transcription unit and starts reading the DNA strand to synthesize the mRNA strand.

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2. Nursing Informatics is the specialty that integrates nursing science with multiple information and analytical sciences to ____, ______, _____ and communicate data, information, knowledge, and wisdom in nursing practice.\

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Nursing informatics is the specialty that integrates nursing science with multiple information and analytical sciences to identify, define, manage and communicate data, information, knowledge, and wisdom in nursing practice.

Nursing informatics is defined as an area that integrates the science of nursing with multiple information management and analytical sciences. According to the American Nurses Association, their purpose is to identify, define, manage, and disseminate data, information, knowledge, and wisdom in nursing practice.

Wisdom can be defined as the proper use of data, information, and knowledge in the implementation of decision-making and care behaviors. It includes the ability to integrate data, information, and knowledge with professional values ​​when dealing with a particular human problem.

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The Occupational Safety and Health Act (OSHA) made it a ______ to cause the death of a worker by willfully violation safety laws.

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The Occupational Safety and Health Act (OSHA) made it a criminal punishment to cause the death of a worker by willfully violating safety laws.

The Occupational Safety and Health Act of 1970 (OSHA) was made by congress to guarantee protected and healthy working circumstances for workers by establishing and implementing principles and by giving training, education, assistance, and outreach.

OSHA was made due to public clamor against increasing injuries, damages, and death rates at work. The organization has spent years researching and has focused their knowledge and resources on where they can have the best effect in lessening wounds, diseases, and deaths in the working environment.

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which type of rehabilitation is an essential component to a client's recovery from guillain barre

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Maintaining patient function as the nervous system heals is the most important aspect of GBS treatment.

What is Guillain-Barré syndrome rehabilitation?

The most frequent cause of acute neuromuscular paralysis in industrialized nations is Guillain-Barré syndrome (GBS). GBS accounts for at least 1,000 new cases of long-term impairment annually in the United States, and more internationally. It is likely that at least 25,000 and possibly 50,000 people in the US are still dealing with the aftereffects of GBS, given the young age at which it can occasionally arise and the generally long life expectancies following GBS. Inpatient rehabilitation is necessary for about 40% of GBS patients who are admitted to hospitals. The requirement of prior ventilator support most substantially predicts an extended duration of stay in inpatient rehabilitation for GBS patients who require admission to the facility. Dysautonomia and cranial nerve disorders are additional problems that impede rehabilitation.

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What occurred in his childhood that may have triggered schizophrenia? (A beautiful mind)

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John Nash having delusions and hallucinations was what triggered the schizophrenia condition he had.

What is Schizophrenia?

This is a type of mental disorder in which individuals have an abnormal interpretation about reality.

John Nash worked as a spy and felt Russians were after him which was why he experienced paranoid schizophrenia which he later overcame through the support of his wife and friends.

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What should a client with an arthritic condition avoid doing before an exercise session? A warm-up Taking pain medications Dynamic stretching Consuming food

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According to the research, a client with an arthritic condition should avoid consuming food before an exercise session.

What is an arthritic condition?

It is a condition in which the joints become inflamed, causing pain, deformity and difficulty in movement.

A client with an arthritic condition should do low-impact aerobic physical activity and avoid consuming food before an exercise session.

Therefore, we can conclude that according to the research, a client with an arthritic condition should avoid consuming food before an exercise session.

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A 25lb child was ordered for Tylenol 115mg PO every 4 hour hours as needed for pain. Is this a safe dose (standard is 10-15/kg/dose)

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A 25lb child was ordered for Tylenol 115mg PO every 4 hour hours as needed for pain. Yes, this dose is absolutely safe for the child.

Tylenol: This is the marketing name for  acetaminophen which is drug used with different dosage from children to adults. It is used to treat  mild-to-moderate pain, headache, colds and sore throats and fever.

A child who is 25lb will be around 11kgs in weight. According to standard dosage administration of acetaminophen 160mg of drug can be administered to the kinds of age 2-3 years who are around 25lb in weight. Thus, the given dosage is absolutely correct.

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To participate in the PACE program, an elderly person must A. have been certified for nursing home placement B. be a Medicaid beneficiary C. need only community-based long-term care services D. undergo preadmission screening and resident review (PASRR)

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To participate in the PACE program, an elderly person must have been certified for nursing home placement.

The answer is option A.

PACE provides complete clinical and social offerings to positive frail, aged people (individuals) nonetheless dwelling inside the network. Most of the individuals who are in pace are dually eligible for each Medicare and Medicaid.

Federal government-assisted or even free home care is furnished by the PACE program. The service is for older Americans and it could help keep them out of a nursing home or assisted residing facility.

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What type of exercise is ideal for a client who is new to strength training and learning new movement patterns? High-intensity interval training (HIIT) Plyometrics 1RM testing Bodyweight exercises

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According to the research, bodyweight exercises are ideal for a client who is new to strength training and learning new movement patterns.

What are bodyweight exercises?

They are those exercises that when executed use the bodyweight to gain muscle mass and improve your body strength.

It's considered when starting strength training and includes basic squats, lunges, balance with one leg among others.

Therefore, we can conclude that according to the research, bodyweight exercises are ideal for a client who is new to strength training and learning new movement patterns.

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During your assessment, you ask Hilda what dietary restrictions (if any) she has been following for her hypertension and diabetes. What type of historical information does this provide?

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Excessive amount of sugar and oily dietary restrictions was followed by her in the condition of hypertension and diabetes.

Hypertension : A condition in which the force of the blood against the artery walls is too high.

Usually hypertension is defined as blood pressure above 140/90, and is considered severe if the pressure is above 180/120.

Diabetes : a  disease in which the body’s ability to produce or respond to the hormone insulin is impaired, resulting in abnormal metabolism of carbohydrates and elevated levels of glucose in the blood and urine.

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7. The payment a health care provider receives from a third party payer is a
O A. co-payment.
O B. claim.
O C. group policy.
O D. reimbursement.

Answers

B: Claim

The payment a health care provider receives from a third party payer is a claim.

O B. claim.

Explanation:

The payment a health care provider receives from a third party payer is a claim.

The client diagnosed with ulcerative colitis is prescribed a low residue diet. Which meal selection indicates the client understands the diet teaching

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A low-fiber diet is one that has little residue.

What is ulcerative colitis and which type of diet is preferred for ulcerative colitis?It is advised to have roasted, baked, or broiled meats along with products prepared from refined flour or finely milled grains.Consuming too much protein and foods high in sulfur as well as red meat and alcohol can all contribute to an ulcerative colitis flare-up. Unpleasant symptoms may result and the illness may worsen as a result.It is unknown that causes ulcerative colitis. The aberrant activation of the immune system in the intestines is likely what causes ulcerative colitis, according to medical professionals and researchers. The immune system often only becomes active when the body is exposed to dangerous invaders like bacteria, viruses, and fungus.

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Mrs. Higgins believes that aliens from another planet have removed her stomach and are watching her to see how long it takes her to grow another one. Mrs. Higgins is most likely suffering from.

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In this case, Mrs. Higgins is most likely suffering from a mental disorder called schizophrenia.

What is schizophrenia?

Schizophrenia is a mental (cognitive)  disease characterized to have hallucinations and loss of memory.

Schizophrenia symptoms include delusions based on fictitious situations, hallucinations beyond the real context, speech problems and motor problems that affect the normal movement of the individual.

Schizophrenia is a degenerative progressive disease that may be alleviated with proper medical care .

In conclusion, Mrs. Higgins suffers from a mental condition called schizophrenia.

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Hi, I am trying to calculate the dosage of mg i should be taking per night. I am 135 pounds 5’7.

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So you are ok one this

Adults who are physically active are healthier and less likely to develop many chronic diseases than adults who are inactive. Adults who are physically active are healthier and less likely to develop many chronic diseases than adults who are inactive. True False

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The given statement is TRUE that, Adults who are physically active are healthier and less likely to develop many chronic diseases than adults who are inactive.

Adults who spend less time sitting and engage in any level of moderate-to-vigorous exercise reap some health benefits.

It is undeniably proven that physical inactivity increases the risk of cardiovascular disease and other illnesses:

People who are less fit and active are more likely to acquire high blood pressure.One can lower their risk of type 2 diabetes by exercising.According to studies, persons who are physically active have a lower risk of coronary heart disease than those who are inactive. This is true even after researchers took into account food, drinking, and smoking habits.Lack of exercise can make anxiety and depression symptoms worse.Lack of exercise may make some malignancies more likely.Overweight or obese adults who were physically active greatly lowered their risk of disease.Physical activity among older persons can lower their risk of falling and osteoporosis.Physical activity can strengthen the bones and muscles, help maintain a healthy weight, increase the ability to carry out daily tasks, and improve cognitive health.

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which initial outcome criterion would be appropiate for a client who is a polysubstance abuser and is mandated to seek drug

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First  initial outcome criterion that would be appropriate for a client who is a polysubstance abuser is that he acknowledges the existence of a problem with substance abuse.

First, the client must admit that a drug addiction problem exists and is causing turmoil; by verbalizing the problem, the client demonstrates that they are not in denial and are beginning the process of transformation.

Once a problem is diagnosed, it is possible to explore the many ways that drug use has affected the client's life and the problems with lifestyle that have resulted, and the nurse can assist the client in expressing and processing their negative emotions.

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which outcome is likely if direct pressure is applied to the joints of a client who has an acute episode of rheumatoid arthritis

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If pressure is applied to the joints of a client who is suffering from rheumatoid arthritis the most possible outcome would be the client feeling a sharp pain due to swelling present in the joints.

Causes and symptoms of Rheumatoid arthritis-

Rheumatoid arthritis is an autoimmune disorder. This is a condition where the cells of the immune system attack the healthy cells of the synovium. The synovium is the lining of tissue that produces a fluid that ensures the easy and proper movement of the joint. This leads to subsequent inflammation of the synovium. This makes the tissue thicker and causes tenderness and pain in the joints.

The symptoms of this condition are stiffness in joints, pain, and swelling in joints, and excessive pain in the same joint on both sides of the body.

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A distance runner is experiencing pain in the left arch. There is palpable tenderness in the left foot's aponeurosis, primarily in the epicondyle region of the calcaneus. What condition does this scenario describe, and how should it be managed

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This scenario describes planter fascial strain. It can be managed through several precautions.

Our body's strongest ligament is the plantar fascia. This is a band of connective tissue that runs from the base of the heel bone to the front of the foot and is made up of hundreds of collagen fibers. When we place our foot on the ground, this ligament, which is an elastic band, is stretched out and serves as a shock absorber. When we push our foot against the ground to quicken our pace, play, or leap, we might use the stored energy in the stretched plantar fascia.Localized soreness and pain over the plantar fascia, which runs from the heel to the forefoot under the foot, are signs of a plantar fascia strain. At the time of the injury, there may be a sudden, acute pain under the heel or arch of the foot. It's possible to feel a bump or nodule along the plantar fascia, which could be a sign of a partial rupture.Rest, ice, compression, elevation, wearing supportive shoes and orthotics constantly are all part of the treatment plan. After a full rupture, surgical tear reduction may be necessary, especially if a quick return to sport is crucial. In order to give the injury time to heal, rest is crucial.

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Respiratory Rate (RR) is defined as the number of breaths a person takes per minute. The normal respiratory rate is 12-20. Malcolm's respiratory rate is 40. _____ is the medical term for an abnormally rapid rate of respiration, usually more than 20 breaths per minute.

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Tachypnea is the medical term for an abnormally rapid rate of respiration, usually more than 20 breaths per minute.

A person breathing too rapidly is referred to as tachypnea. An average adult should breathe between 12 and 20 times each minute. Children's resting respirations might occur at a higher rate than those of adults.Patients may complain of having trouble breathing when they first arrive. They might also claim that they can't seem to breathe in enough air. Patients may exhibit blue-tinged fingers or lips during a physical examination, as well as the utilization of auxiliary or chest muscles for breathing. Patients, on the other hand, may show up with no apparent symptoms.Within the first 24 hours of delivery, fluid retention in the lungs of infants may cause tachypnea. Infants can present with a blue

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Erin is pregnant with her second child and she is currently 37 weeks pregnant. What could you tell her about the current brain development of her developing baby

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At 37 weeks pregnancy the brain of the baby is fully developed and is almost ready to be delivered.

If Erin is having a second child, labor will probably be shorter. It is especially likely that contractions will start off weaker and accelerate in strength during the early stages (latent labor).When this occurs, Erin will might feel more at ease and your lower abdomen will undoubtedly feel greater pressure. Hearing, smell, and touch senses have developed and are usable.Deep grooves form in the cerebrum and the brain triples in size, providing extra surface area for neurons. Along some neuronal connections, myelin begins to form.

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A _______________ is a group of exercises done to prepare for a specific workout or competition. A _______________ is done to increase range of motion g

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A warmup is a group of exercises done to prepare for a specific workout or competition. Regular stretching is done to increase the range of motion.

Stretching is an important part of being energetic. Its advantages beautify muscle characteristics, allowing you to move with more ease and luxury all through your everyday and athletic activities. Ordinary stretching reduces your chance of injury, enhances flexibility, and increases your variety of motion.

increasing range of motion may be achieved via mobility paintings. Mobility physical games pass beyond easy stretching to growth the safe levels your frame can move.

Variety of motion is essential for proper mobility of the entire body. in case your variety of motion is inhibited, you may enjoy ache or discomfort, or no longer be able to use your body parts such as you used to. it could even reason repayment patterns which can lead to greater dysfunction.

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It would be appropriate as you increase the time of an exercise to decrease the _____________ of that exercise.

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It would be appropriate as we increase the time of an exercise to decrease the number of sets of that exercise because duration is more important for effective exercise.

How to make exercise more effective?

We should increase the difficulty and duration of an exercise to make it more effective because it produces overload. As an individual exercises at a higher level, the body adapts to the increased demand and this higher level leads to new form of your body.

So we can conclude that it would be appropriate as we increase the time of an exercise to decrease the number of sets of that exercise because duration is more important for effective exercise.

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Alex found some information about a new treatment for asthma on the Internet and shares this information with her doctor. Since Alex's information is accurate and relevant, her relationship with her doctor will most likely: Group of answer choices deteriorate, as her doctor feels challenged. benefit, as Alex and her doctor can discuss this new information. end, as Alex no longer trusts her doctor to provide her with new information. Both a and c.

Answers

Alex found some information about a new treatment for asthma on the Internet and shares this information with her doctor. Since Alex's information is accurate and relevant, her relationship with her doctor will most likely benefit, as Alex and her doctor can discuss this new information.

Asthma is a disorder that makes it difficult to breathe because the person's airways shrink, swell, and create excess mucus due to inflammation.

Even mild cases of asthma can make it difficult to carry out regular tasks. It might occasionally result in a potentially fatal attack.

Alex's choices will not deteriorate as the doctor will not feel challenged rather it is a good thing that the patient is aware about his condition and treatments.Alex will still trust her doctor and will discuss the new information t get the best diagnosis.

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Alex found some information about a new treatment for asthma on the Internet and shares this information with her doctor. Since Alex's information is accurate and relevant, her relationship with her doctor will most likely option(a) i.e, benefit, as Alex and her doctor can discuss this new information.

What is asthma?

When a person has asthma, their airways constrict, swell, and produce an excessive amount of mucus as a result of inflammation.

Even minor asthma attacks can make it challenging to perform daily duties. On occasion, it might lead to an attack that could be fatal.

As the doctor won't feel challenged, Alex's choices won't deteriorate; rather, it's a good thing that the patient is informed of his disease and therapies.

Alex will continue to trust her doctor and will talk about the new details to choose the best course of action.

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A client is a member of an HMO and has chronic shoulder pain from an old injury. The client has decided to pursue shoulder surgery and the HMO has required a utilization review. What will this review focus on

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A client is a member of an HMO and has chronic shoulder pain from an old injury. The client has decided to pursue shoulder surgery and the HMO has required a utilization review. His review will focus on The costs and benefits of the proposed surgery.

Health maintenance organization is referred to as HMO. Doctors, hospitals, and other healthcare professionals that have agreed to accept payment at a specific level for any services they perform are part of an HMO's network.Insurance companies use the utilization review process to determine the need for medical care and to guarantee that payment will be made for the care. Precertification or preauthorization for elective treatments, concurrent evaluation, and, if necessary, retrospective review for emergency cases are all common components of utilization review. Profits are usually a pertinent factor, but many other factors would be taken into account. A utilization review does not primarily focus on the client's baseline functioning or the circumstances of the first injury.

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Question 4 of 10.
When opening a multidose vial:
Mark the vial with the date of expiration.
Expiration is 14 days from opening.
O Vaccine expiration is within 7 days of opening.
OMark for follow up
86°F

Answers

The correct answer would be to mark the date and time of opening of the vial. This is considered standard practice within the healthcare world.

Sun exposure and tanning booths - Is there harm when repeatedly exposed to UV rays of the sun or artificial UV rays? What are ways that we can protect our skin from being exposed to UV rays? What diseases can result from exposure to the sun or tanning booths?

Answers

UV rays can cause serious health damage, such as premature aging, skin cancer, eye problems and even changes in the immune system. UVB rays are responsible for skin burns, that is, for those red and burning spots that appear when we go to the beach without sunscreen.

Is there damage when repeatedly exposed to the sun's UV rays or artificial UV rays?

Yes, they can cause skin burns and even cancer.

What are ways to protect our skin from UV exposure?

Sun cream with UV protection and clothing with anti UV technology

 What diseases can result from exposure to the sun or tanning booths?

premature aging, skin cancer, eye problems and even changes in the immune system.

With this information, we can conclude that UVB rays penetrate the skin superficially, causing redness and a burning sensation. UVA rays are responsible for premature skin aging and can also cause cancer.

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Using gestational age, when people take pregnancy tests as soon as they are able to detect pregnancy (hCG hormone), they are considered to be about __ week(s) pregnant.

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Using gestational age, when people take pregnancy tests as soon as they are able to detect pregnancy (hCG hormone), they are considered to be about 4 weeks pregnant.

What is gestational age?

The word most frequently used to express how far along a pregnancy is, throughout pregnancy is gestational age. From the start day of the woman's most recent menstrual cycle to the present day, it is counted in weeks. A typical pregnancy might last between 38 and 42 weeks.

The EDD is determined by adding 266 days to the date of conception under circumstances where the conception date is precisely known, such as in vitro fertilization. The gestational age is calculated by ultrasound by measuring the size of the fetus (the time elapsed since the first day of the last menstrual period).

In a pregnant woman's blood, the typical concentrations of hCG are 6 -  70 IU/L over 3 weeks. 10 - 750 IU/L over 4 weeks. 5 weeks: 200 - 7,100 IU/L.

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