The answer is False, hence Once approved, an Emergency Operations Plan should be revised since this would create potential confusion in responding agencies.
An emergency is a situation that necessitates quick action because it endangers the environment, people, or property. The majority of emergencies necessitate an urgent response in order to prevent the sickness from getting worse, even if there are a few unique cases when mitigation may not be possible and organizations may only be able to provide palliative care after an emergency. Many less dangerous circumstances require the observer to determine if they constitute an emergency (or affected party). This is not always the case, even in circumstances where some emergencies are obvious (like a natural disaster that poses a serious threat to many people).
The complete question is:
Once approved, an Emergency Operations Plan should never be revised since this would create potential confusion in responding agencies.
Possible Answers:
a) True
b) False
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a nurse is administering a prescribed dose of chlordiazepoxide to a client. the nurse should closely assess the client for what adverse reaction?
Respiratory depression. It occurs when the lungs are unable to properly exchange carbon dioxide and oxygen. The body begins to accumulate carbon dioxide as a result of this malfunction.
How is respiratory depression treated?It is generally effective to administer naloxone in increments of 0.1 to 0.4 mg to reverse respiratory depression; however, since naloxone's duration of action is shorter than that of the respiratory depressant effect of epidural opioids, a continuous infusion of naloxone (0.5 to 5 g/kg/hour) may be required.
Asthmatic respiratory depression?Respiratory distress is totally demonstrated by the sense of "not being able to breathe," as opposed to usual asthma symptoms, some of which you experience more than you see. It is frequently linked to inadequate asthma management or a combination of variables,
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In the evaluation of a patient with nystagmus, you suspect the main cause is peripheral vestibular dysfunction. You decide to perform caloric testing. Which of the following physical exam findings is expected in a patient with normal vestibular function?cold water in the right ear produces nystagmus in the left eye; if you did warm water it would go to the same side
cold goes to opposite, warm goes to same
Nystagmus in the left eye is caused by cold water in the right ear; warm water would cause it on the other side. Warmth goes to the same as cold, and vice versa.
Your sense of balance and hearing are both mediated by the vestibulocochlear nerve, cranial nerve eight. Although this nerve is not responsible for controlling eye movement, a loss in it might make balance so unstable that nystagmus results. Vestibular dysfunction results from damage to the vestibular system brought on by illness, viral infection, high dosages of some antibiotics, stroke, deterioration of the inner ear's balance function, hits to the head (such as concussions, brain trauma, whiplash), or some other unidentified cause (s).
Thus, we can conclude that cold water in the right ear causes nystagmus in the left eye while warm water would do so on the opposite side. Cold and warmth are equivalent, and vice versa.
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a nurse who is providing care on a pediatric client has conducted a medication reconciliation. in light of the fact that the client takes methylphenidate, the nurse is justified in considering a history of what health problem?
This methylphenidate medication may induce sleeplessness, weight loss, and gastrointestinal problems.
What is methylphenidate ?
Methylphenidate, often known as Ritalin and Concerta, is the most commonly prescribed central nervous system (CNS) stimulant medicine used to treat attention deficit hyperactivity disorder (ADHD) and, to a lesser extent, narcolepsy. It is a major treatment for ADHD; it can be taken orally or administered topically, and different formulations have variable durations of action, which typically range from 2-4 hours. Though there is little to no evidence to support its use as an athletic performance enhancer, cognitive enhancer, aphrodisiac, or euphoriant, claims that it can be used for these purposes persist.
Methylphenidate side effects include tachycardia, palpitations, headache, sleeplessness, anxiety, hyperhidrosis, weight loss, reduced appetite, dry mouth, nausea, and stomach pain.
This medication may induce sleeplessness, weight loss, and gastrointestinal problems.
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Place the following events in the correct order.
Odorant molecules bing to receptors on olfactory hair
G protein is activated leading to the formation of cAMP
Ion channels open in the olfactory cell membrane
Influx of sodium or calcium ions, depolarizing the olfactory cell
Receptor potential is transmitted into the brain
The sensory neurons in the nose are the first in this neural code. An electrical signal is started when an odor molecule attaches to a receptor and travels from the sensory neurons to the olfactory bulb.
What happens after an odorant molecule binds to an olfactory cilium and before a nerve impulse enters the orbitofrontal region?A G protein and adenylyl cyclase are activated when an odorant molecule binds to an olfactory receptor protein, producing cAMP.
Which layering in the olfactory bulb is correct?The MOB of most mammals is composed of seven roughly concentric layers, starting from the surface and going in the following order: (1) olfactory nerve layer (ONL), (2) glomerular layer (GL), (3) external.
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which manifestation would the nurse describe for the parent of a 4 year old who asks to determine whether their child is insecure
Stress is the manifestation which the nurse would describe for the parent of a 4 year old who asks to determine whether their child is insecure.
Childhood stress may be present in any setting that needs the kid to adapt or modification. Stress could also be caused by positive changes, like beginning a brand new activity, however it's most ordinarily connected with negative changes like ill health or death within the family.
A child could have insecurity for a range of reasons, explains Dr. Taylor, together with "growing up during a family within which they did not feel safe, loved, or valued." He adds that some children with insecurity could have "parents who were angry, threatening, abusive."
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During a well-child visit, a 9-year-old boy and his father ask about health safety and sports activity. The boy wants to play baseball. His medical history is significant for tetralogy of Fallot, which was surgically corrected when he was 3-years-old. His last echocardiogram shows a right ventricular pressure to be < 50 mm Hg. Which of the following recommendations do you make?
A A functional capacity evaluation is needed first
B He may only play leisure sports, like golf or cycling
C It is safe for him to play any sport, including baseball
D The boy should abstain from all sports and physical education class
Option C, The best advice for a patient whose medical history is relevant for tetralogy of Fallot, which has been surgically treated since he was 3 years old, is that he is safe to play any recreation, including baseball.
Despite their cardiac conditions, most kids can engage in some form of physical exercise. However, you should speak with the child's cardiologist about the possible hazards and symptoms to watch out for.
An infection of the heart's inside lining or of the heart valve brought on by bacteria is a potential side effect of tetralogy of Fallot.
In those under 50, between 50 and 75, and beyond 75, the average level (95% CI) of RVSP was 16 mmHg - 39 mmHg, 15 mmHg - 45 mmHg, & 17 mmHg - 52 mmHg, respectively.
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a client in her twenties has told the nurse that she will be going on a safari trip for her honeymoon and that she has been prescribed antimalarial prophylaxis. the nurse should follow up with what education?
A client in their early twenties who has informed the nurse that she would be taking antimalarial prophylaxis and going on a safari vacation for her honeymoon needs follow-up instruction from the nurse to persuade the client to use dependable contraception.
If the patient is taking the medication, they should notify their doctor immediately away if they develop significant chest discomfort, headaches, eye issues, or leg pain. These signs might indicate several dangerous illnesses, such as a heart attack, pulmonary embolism, stroke, liver, or gallbladder problems.
In the majority of malaria-endemic areas, atovaquone/proguanil (Malarone), doxycycline, & mefloquine are the medications of choice for malaria prophylaxis.
Mefloquine can be taken safely in the third and second trimesters of pregnancy, whereas chloroquine (Aralen) is safe to use throughout the whole pregnancy.
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a nurse is reviewing the structure and function of the nervous system in preparation for working on a neurological floor. what characteristic of neurons should the nurse identify?
nervous system without coming into touch, neurons can communicate action potentials to one another is characteristic of neurons should the nurse identify
In order to be prepared to work on a neurological floor, a nurse is learning the anatomy and physiology of the nervous system. Without neurons coming into touch, neurons can communicate action potentials to one another. Neurotransmitter is released into the synapse as a result of an action potential that travels the length of the axon. The neuron can connect with other neurons thanks to the action potential and subsequent transmitter release of nervous system.
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hand washing and routine cleaning are examples of what type of practice? sterile sterile safety safety surgical asepsis surgical asepsis medical asepsis
The medical asepsis are the hand washing and routine cleaning are examples of what type of practice.
Aseptic approach way the use of practices and strategies to save you infection from pathogens.Handwashing might be the maximum crucial aseptic approach worried in stopping the unfold of many disorder agents.
The arms touch quite a few surfaces at some stage in the day. In doing so, they turn out to be infected with microbes from the ones surfacesSanitization. Sanitization refers to cleansing practices and strategies that bodily eliminate microorganisms. These consist of hand washing and cleansing of clients' non-public equipment, clothing, and linens.
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the nurse is caring for inmates in a correctional facility. which is the mode of transmission for the recent outbreak of tuberculosis?
Airborne droplets is the mode of transmission for the recent outbreak of tuberculosis.
What transpires if you contract tuberculosis?TB disease is generally characterized by feelings of weakness or sickness, weight loss, fever, and night sweats. Coughing, chest pain, and the coughing up of blood are additional signs of TB lung disease. Depending on the area affected, TB disease symptoms may appear in other body parts.
Tuberculosis is fatal if untreated. Organ tissue lesions are brought on by the bacterium that causes tuberculosis (TB). Pulmonary tuberculosis, the most typical type of TB, can seriously damage the lungs, resulting in respiratory issues and even death.
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true or false: diet and physical activity play a role in the development of certain chronic diseases, such as cardiovascular disease and cancer.
It is accurate to say that certain chronic conditions, such as cancer and cardiovascular disease are influenced by nutrition and physical activity.
How is cancer triggered?Cancer being brought on by cells that divide out of control and invade healthy tissue. Cancer is mostly brought along by Dna. The most of DNA mutations that result in cancer occur in areas of DNA called genes. These alterations are sometimes refereed to as genetic changes.
What precisely is cancer?The body's unregulated development of abnormal cells is what causes cancer. Cancer may develop because when body's natural regulator experiences problems. Old cells do not really die; they just keep multiplying uncontrolled to create new, abnormal cells. These extra cells may congregate into tumor-like fat tissue.
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nurses on an orthopedic nursing unit use standardized care plans that incorporate nursing, physical therapy, occupational therapy, and case management actions for clients who experience a particular surgery. which type of care plan do these nurses use?
The clinical pathway is type of care plan do these nurses use.
What is orthopedic nursing unit ?
A patient is typically moved to a hospital floor specifically for people with orthopedic issues after undergoing orthopedic surgery.
What is occupational therapy ?
The utilization of routine daily activities with individuals, groups, or populations (clients) for therapeutic in order to support occupational performance and participation is referred to as occupational therapy.
Therefore, clinical pathway is type of care plan do these nurses use.
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when a drug is ordered off-label, what must the nurse be clear about before administering the drug? (mark all that apply.)
When a drug is ordered off-label, the nurse should be clear about why it is administered
The purpose of use. It has the potential for issues.
To ensure the correct patient is receiving the medication, the nurse must first make sure the patient's identity matches both the medication administration record (MAR) and the medication label.
Before delivering the prescribed medication, the nurse must confirm the prescription, and they must also use critical thinking skills to assess the prescribed medication, the client's status and condition in relation to potential contraindications, as well as pertinent data such vital signs.
The task of providing pharmaceuticals is under the purview of nurses, who are responsible for ensuring that the appropriate medication is prepared, dosed, and administered to the appropriate patient at the appropriate time and by the appropriate route. To prevent or lessen the likelihood of administration errors, several hospitals employ a single-dose strategy.
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which stage of bowlbys attachment theory is occurring when the patient who recently lost parents in a road accident expereinces shortness of breath, lethargy, and loss of appetite
The second stage of bowlbys grieving, yearning and searching, is marked by shortness of breath, a sense of weariness, and lack of appetite as a result of emotional outbursts.
The four phases of grief are described by Bowlby's attachment theory as follows: numbness, longing and searching, disorganization and despair, and reorganization. The second stage of grieving, yearning and searching, is marked by shortness of breath, a sense of weariness, and lack of appetite as a result of emotional outbursts. Mourning happens when bowlbys a child's relationship to their primary caregiver fails. The third stage of grief is disarray and despair, bowlbys is characterized by repeatedly telling appetite tales and accepting that the loss is irreparable.
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the nurse instructs the client taking medication for erectile dysfunction to call the health care provider if which adverse effect occurs after taking the medication?
After taking the medication to cure the erectile dysfunction the client should call the health care provider if priapism is observed.
As the nurse is instructing the client about taking the medication for the erectile dysfunction.
The nurse should also tell the client to contact the health care provider as soon as possible in the case if Priapism is observed.
It is a condition of the prolonged erection of the reproductive organ which is the sign that the medication has shown some adverse effects and a proper service of healthcare provider is required.
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the nurse is assessing the patient on mitotane therapy. which assessment finding requires action by the nurse?
When a patient can raise 10 pounds after previously being unable to lift even 5 pounds, the nurse must take action in mitotane therapy.
What assessment results from the list below should the nurse consider relevant to a Cushing's syndrome diagnosis?Serum sodium levels rise and potassium levels fall in a person with Cushing's syndrome. a blood test. Blood glucose levels rising, eosinophil counts falling, and lymphoid tissue disappearing are all signs of Cushing's syndrome.
Which of the following would you expect to see in a Cushing disease patient?A fatty hump between your shoulders, a rounded face, and pink or purple stretch marks on your skin are some of the classic Cushing syndrome symptoms that can be brought on by an excess of cortisol.
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after teaching a group of students about the standard childhood immunizations given today, the instructor determines that the students need additional teaching when they identify which as a common disease for which immunizations are given?
Answer:
Below
Explanation:
It is important for students to understand the diseases for which immunizations are given in order to understand the importance of being vaccinated. Some common diseases for which immunizations are given include measles, mumps, rubella, polio, chickenpox, and influenza. It is important for students to understand the symptoms of these diseases and the potential complications that can arise if they are not properly vaccinated.
many mutations in receptor kinases that lead to cancer allow the receptor to dimerize and become activated, even in the absence of signaling molecules. an example is a mutant form of the egf receptor kinase called her2/neu. an antibody that prevents dimerization of her2/neu receptor kinases is being tested for its effectiveness in preventing cancer. at which stage does this drug work?
An antibody that prevents dimerization of Her2/neu receptor kinases would prevent the receptor from becoming activated.
A protein involved in normal cell growth. HER2/neu may be produced in excess by some types of cancer cells, such as breast, ovarian, bladder, pancreatic, stomach, and esophageal cancers. This can cause cancer cells to grow faster and spread to other parts of the body. Checking her HER2/neu levels in some types of cancer cells can help plan treatment. Also called c-erbB-2, HER2, human EGF receptor 2, human epidermal growth factor receptor 2.
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Why is time management important to medical facilities and to medical professionals in general?
Answer:
Every second counts in a life or death situation, therefore, hospitals depend on accurate time. Legally, doctors & nurses are required to record every minute of patient care to avoid potentially fatal consequences.
A small study of the effectiveness of therapeutic lifestyle change found that more than _____ percent of those who completed the program experienced relief from depressive symptoms, as compared with only about _____ percent of those in a treatment-as-usual comparison group.75; 20
A small study of effectiveness of therapeutic lifestyle change found that more than 75% of those who completed the program experienced relief from depressive symptoms, as compared with about 20% of those..
What therapy strategy is the most successful?Psychodynamic The most well-known counseling method is undoubtedly counseling. This form of counseling, which has its roots in Freudian thought, emphasizes the formation of solid therapist-client bonds. The objective is to assist clients in acquiring the psychological skills necessary to deal with challenging emotions and circumstances.
Which treatment technique is most popular right now?Cognitive behavioral therapy may currently be the most popular form of therapy (CBT). CBT investigates the connection between a person's feelings, and behaviors, as previously mentioned. It frequently recognizes unfavorable ideas and changing them to better ones.
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a nurse is conducting a medication resolution of a new resident of a care facility and notes that the woman has been taking neostigmine. the nurse should recognize that the woman may have a history of what health problem?
Neostigmine is a drug used to treat myasthenia gravis, a rare autoimmune disorder that causes muscle weakness. As a result, the nurse should recognize that the new resident may have a history of myasthenia gravis and should take this into account when conducting the medication reconciliation.
Medication Resolution of New Resident Revealing History of Neostigmine UseNeostigmine is a medication used to treat myasthenia gravis, a chronic autoimmune neuromuscular disorder. Myasthenia gravis is caused by an abnormal response of the immune system in which antibodies form and attack the receptors for the neurotransmitter acetylcholine, resulting in muscle weakness.
Neostigmine is used to increase the amount of acetylcholine available and improve muscle strength. Therefore, if a nurse is conducting a medication review and notes that a new resident is taking neostigmine, it is likely that the resident has a history of myasthenia gravis. It is important for the nurse to understand this person's condition in order to provide appropriate care.
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is the following statement true or false? when conducting a follow-up assessment on a patient with alzheimer disease, the nurse should include an assessment on the primary caregiver as well.
False because early onset is more progressive than late-onset Alzheimer disease; late-onset Alzheimer disease is more common.
As far as dementia goes, Alzheimer's disease is the most prevalent. The disease is gradual, starting with mild memory loss and potentially progressing to the loss of communication and environmental awareness. The brain regions that are responsible for thought, memory, and language are affected by Alzheimer's disease. It can significantly impair a person's capacity to carry out daily tasks.Memory loss that interferes with daily life, such as asking the same questions repeatedly or getting lost in a familiar setting, difficulty managing finances and paying bills. A challenge finishing routine duty at work, at home, or in leisure, reduced or bad judgement, losing things and not being able to go back and find them and mood, attitude, or behavior changes.To know more about alzheimer check the below link:
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which statement indicates that a new graduate nurse understands central venous pressure (cvp) measurement when used on a client?
The pressure in the thoracic vena cava just below the right atrium is known as central venous pressure, or CVP.
What does having a high CVP mean?Elevated CVP is a sign of fluid retention or dysfunctional cardiac contractility. Low central venous pressure, on the other hand, is a sign of volume loss or diminished venous tone.
Does heart failure have a high CVP?While CVP may be normal in left heart failure and pulmonary edema [19], an increased CVP may indicate right heart dysfunction or blockage to right ventricular outflow, which would cause blood to pool in the right atrium.
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A 46-year-old man is currently enrolled in a phase III study of a drug for severe diabetic neuropathy. While the study is ongoing, a new drug becomes commercially available that may have equal or greater benefit to the subject. The investigator should do which of the following?Discuss the pros and cons of both the investigational drug and the commercially available drug and then allow the subject to decide whether to withdraw from the research to take the new drug
After weighing the advantages and disadvantages of the investigational drug and the drug that is currently on the market, the subject is given the option of continuing the research or switching to the experimental drug.
What does the term "investigational drug" mean?An investigational drug, often known as an experimental drug, is being tested to discover if it can treat your illness or condition. Clinical studies are being used by scientists to determine the drug's safety and efficacy.
When are experimental medications appropriate for use?Before a therapy IND can be issued, the following four conditions must be satisfied: 1) There is no adequate alternative treatment available; 2) The medicine is meant to treat a serious or immediately life-threatening condition.
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the nurse is working with a client that has not been diagnosed yet. the client is aggressive, unable to control anger, and violent at times. the client was brought to the emergency deparment by local police. the nurse selects what system as the etiology for the clients' behavior? classify the symptoms according to origin in the body
The nurse selects biological and psychological influences for clients' aggressive, unable to control anger, and violent behavior.
Aggressive behavior as per psychological science, describes any behavior or act geared toward harming an individual or animal or damaging property. Biological causes embrace biology, medical and psychiatrical diseases, neurotransmitters, hormones, substances of abuse, and medications.
Negative emotions, together with worry, anger, pain, and frustration, significantly once in the midst of high arousal, might produce aggressive behavior. Contrary to the concept of catharsis, social psychological analysis has found that partaking in aggression doesn't cut back any aggression.
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88. The antigen specificity of an adaptive immime response is due to ?
a.Activation of antigen specific lymphocytes
b.Folding of antigen to fit the pathogen
Lysis of only certain pathogens by macrophages
d.Phagocytosis of only certain pathogens by macrophages
e.Production of cytokines by antigen specific macrophages
The antigen specificity of an adaptive immune response is due to the activation of an antigen specific lymphocyte. Thus, the correct option is A.
What is Antigen specificity?Antigenic specificity is the ability of the host immune cells to recognize an antigen specifically as a unique molecular entity or a foreign particle and distinguish it from another with the exquisite precision. Antigen specificity in the host immune cells is due to primarily because of the side chain conformations of the antigen molecules.
Adaptive immunity can be defined by two important characteristics which are specificity and memory of the immune cells. Specificity of the immune cell refers to the adaptive immune system's ability to target the specific pathogens, and memory refers to the cell's ability to quickly respond to pathogens to which it has previously been exposed.
The antigen specificity of an adaptive immune response is due to the activation of antigen specific lymphocytes.
Therefore, the correct option is A.
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the nurse is aware that brimonidine is used to produce what physiologic effect in clients with ocular hypertension?
The nurse is aware that brimonidine is used to produce reduce aqueous humor production pg. p. 1083-1084 in clients with ocular hypertension.
As a result, the generation of aqueous humor is constrained by topical carbonic anhydrase inhibitors. Since they have been licensed, brinzolamide and dorzolamide have an initial effectiveness of 15% to 20% for lowering IOP.
For instance, topical and systemic carbonic anhydrase inhibitors lessen the amount of aqueous humor generated by the epithelial cells of the ciliary body. For us to function in our daily lives, comedy must be produced. For instance, comedy is commonly used in social settings to lift spirits, defuse tension, and build social ties. Self-report surveys, other-reports (sociometry or behavior observations), and performance testing are the three main ways to evaluate comedy creation.
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which of the following can be transmitted from an infected mother to her fetus across the placenta and is typically acquired most often during the second pregnancy?
Option 4, The transmission of syphilis, hepatitis B, and HIV from infected women to their newborns can result in considerable morbidity and death can be transmitted from an infected mother to her fetus across the placenta and is typically acquired most often during the second pregnancy
There are a number of infectious diseases that are known to have the potential to infected mother harm a growing fetus , including toxoplasmosis, cytomegalovirus (CMV), varicella, rubella, and lymphocytic choriomeningitis virus (LCMV).The most frequent infection seen at birth in fetus is cytomegalovirus (CMV). A congenital infection is what this is. 3 Pregnancy-related CMV infection raises the possibility of congenital CMV in the unborn child.
The complete question is:
which of the following can be transmitted from an infected mother to her fetus across the placenta and is typically acquired most often during the second pregnancy?
1. cytomegalovirus
2. anthrax
3. Yersinia
4. syphilis
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a nurse is providing a patient with instructions about picc removal. the nurse knows the patient understood the post-procedure instructions when he makes which of the following statements?
"Inhale deeply and hold it." A patient is receiving instructions from a nurse on how to remove a PICC. "You can remove the catheter, but I have to stay in bed for 30 minutes afterward."
What information is required before removing a PICC line?To avoid infection and migratory infection, a PICC line should always be covered with a clean, tight dressing. Only a physician's prescription is required to remove a PICC line. When removing a PICC line, use slow, intermittent traction.
How is a PICC line removed by a nurse?When the catheter is removed, place the sterile gauze over the insertion site while holding the hub and main catheter in the other hand.
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a patient with massive trauma and possible spinal cord injury is admitted to the emergency department. the nurse suspects that the patient may be experiencing neurogenic shock in addition to hypovolemic shock, based on the finding of:
They has to check the heart rate to suspects that the patient may be experiencing neurogenic shock .
What is neurogenic shock ?
A primary and secondary injury combination known as neurogenic shock causes loss of sympathetic tone and an unopposed parasympathetic response that is controlled by the vague nerve. Patients consequently struggle to regulate their body temperature, heart rate, and blood pressure.
What is heart rate ?
Your heart rate is the average range of beats per minute for an adult, which is between 60 and 100. Checking your pulse will allow you to feel each heartbeat.
Rationale: The normal sympathetic response to shock/hypotension is an increase in heart rate. The presence of bradycardia suggests unopposed parasympathetic function, as occurs in neurogenic shock. The other symptoms are consistent with hypovolemic shock.
Therefore, has to check the heart rate to suspects that the patient may be experiencing neurogenic shock .
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