True or False. consumers, producers, and decomposers are all examples of trophic levels within a food chain or food web.

Answers

Answer 1

"consumers, producers, and decomposers are all examples of trophic levels within a food chain or food web." This statement is true.

The trophic levels are divisions into which organisms in food webs are categorized. These levels can be roughly categorized as producers (first trophic level), consumers, and decomposers (last trophic level).

The first trophic level is producers. Producers often referred to as autotrophs, produce all of their own food and do not rely on any other living thing for sustenance. Animals that eat producers make up the next trophic tiers. These creatures are referred to as consumers. The final link in a food chain is made up of detritivores and decomposers. Organisms known as detritivores consume dead plant and animal remnants.

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Related Questions

#58 The Hill-Burton Act _________.


A. Provided hospitals with money for construction and modernization

B. Decreased the obligation to provide uncompensated care

C. Exempts hospitals from complying with EMTALA

D. Was passed by Congress in 2000

Answers

Answer:

A. Provided hospitals with money for construction and modernization

The Hill-Burton Act was a federal law passed by Congress in 1946 that provided hospitals with money for construction and modernization. The act was intended to help improve the quality of healthcare in the United States by providing funding for the construction of new hospitals and the renovation of existing facilities. The Hill-Burton Act required hospitals that received funding to provide a certain amount of uncompensated care to low-income and uninsured patients in exchange for the funding. The act was later amended in 1976 to decrease the obligation to provide uncompensated care, but it continues to be a significant source of funding for hospitals in the United States. The Hill-Burton Act does not exempt hospitals from complying with the Emergency Medical Treatment and Labor Act (EMTALA), which requires hospitals to provide emergency medical care to patients regardless of their ability to pay.

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Explanation:

a 22-year-old woman presents with pelvic pain that has been worsening over the last three days and vaginal discharge for the last week. she has associated nausea and chills. physical exam reveals cervical motion tenderness and a mass in the right adnexa. pregnancy test is negative. a pelvic ultrasound reveals a complex multiloculated right adnexal mass. which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

Answers

pelvic pain that has been worsening over the last three days and vaginal discharge for the last week .Most adnexal masses result from issues with the female reproductive system. One of the most frequent reasons is ovarian cysts. These fluid-filled cysts form on your ovaries.

Explain adnexal.

a growth in the ovary or a fallopian tube near to the uterus. Examples of adnexal masses include ovarian cysts, endo (tubal) pregnancies, benign (non cancerous), and malignant tumors. The term "adnexa" refers to the ligaments, fallopian tubes, and ovaries that support the female reproductive systems.

Adnexal masses vanish, correct?

The location and cause of the adnexal mass will determine the sort of treatment chosen. Ovarian cysts can sometimes be surgically removed or allowed to go away spontaneously. Tumors, whether benign or malignant, are frequently removed surgically.

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Which of the following can be associated with intrinsic motivation? Multiple Choice allowance praise enjoyment reward

Answers

Answer:

enjoyment

Explanation:

The correct answer is: enjoyment. Intrinsic motivation is a type of motivation that comes from within an individual, rather than from external factors such as rewards or incentives. It is based on the enjoyment and satisfaction that a person derives from engaging in an activity, and is often associated with activities that are personally meaningful or fulfilling. In contrast, allowance, praise, and reward are all examples of extrinsic motivators, which are external factors that can influence a person's behavior.

cardiac effects of hyperthyroidism include bradycardia. palpitations. decreased pulse pressure. decreased systolic blood pressure.

Answers

It includes a faster heartbeat, a stronger heartbeat, higher blood pressure, and abnormal heart electrical activity.

When does blood pressure peak during the day?

Blood pressure has a daily pattern. A person's blood pressure often starts to rise a few hours before awakening. It continues to rise throughout the day, peaking about midday. Blood pressure often drops in the late afternoon and early evening.

Can water consumption lower blood pressure?

Even something as simple as drinking six to eight glasses of water a day can help lower blood pressure. Since water makes about 73% of the human heart, no other liquid is more helpful at controlling blood pressure.

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TRUE/FALSE. Qualitative researchers often strive to purposefully select sample members based on emerging information needs.

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true. Qualitative researchers often strive to purposefully select sample members based on emerging information needs for their research to get intensive information.

Purposive Sampling is selective sampling, purposeful sampling is a sampling strategy used by qualitative researchers to choose individuals who may offer in-depth and thorough information about the topic under study. The term "emergent design" describes the capacity to adjust to novel theories, notions, or conclusions that develop when undertaking qualitative research. The variety of sampling approaches that may be applied to such qualitative research designs thanks to purposive sampling, including homogenous sampling, critical case sampling, expert sampling, and more, is one of the main advantages of this method.

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is the amount of mental effort required to understand a message. Interpersonal communication is high involvement. It requires a great deal of thought and action. Thus, health professionals, family members, and friends tend to have high impact

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The message is among the most crucial elements of interpersonal communication.There are numerous ways to communicate a message, including speech, body posture, tone of voice, gestures, and other signs.

By interpersonal communication, what do you mean?

In essence, it is the process by which individuals exchange concepts, knowledge, emotions, and intentions using messages and signs.Some exchanges between people are considered interpersonal communication. These exchanges can take place in person, on the phone, online, or in person.

Interpersonal example: what is it?

The message is among the most crucial elements of interpersonal communication.There are numerous ways to communicate a message, including speech, body posture, tone of voice, gestures, and other signs.

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which of the following diagnostic criteria differentiate tourette syndrome from other neurological disorders

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Childhood onset is the diagnostic criteria differentiate Tourette syndrome from other neurological disorders.

have at least two motor tics (such as shrugging the shoulders or blinking) and at least 1 vocal tic (such as humming, cleansing the throat, or shouting out a word or phrase), even if they may not always occur at the same time. having tics for a minimum of a year. Childhood onset is the diagnostic criteria differentiate Tourette syndrome from other neurological disorders.Hyperactive/attention-deficit disorder (ADHD) An autism spectrum condition. Conduct disorders or oppositional defiance disorder (ODD) are examples of behavioral issues (CD). A neurological condition known as tourette syndrome (TS) is characterized by tics, which are brief, fast, repeated, and undesired movements or vocalizations. One of the illnesses of the growing nervous system known as tic disorders is TS. Although there is no known therapy for TS, certain symptoms can be managed with certain medications.

(Which of the following diagnostic criteria differentiate Tourette syndrome from other neurological disorders?

Childhood onset

Comorbid symptoms of depression

Developmental delay

Observation of tics on physical exam)

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we continue our discussion. one of the hallmarks of managed health care is the existence of a provider network and this applies now to nearly every form of health insurance. please, discuss network maintenance, and how plans approach this question (network maintenance) g

Answers

The identification of high-risk providers and ensuring that patients have the requisite health insurance coverage are both made possible by healthcare provider network management high-risk providers and foster consistency in the delivery of treatment.

Health insurance comes in the form of managed care programs. They have agreements with hospitals and medical centers to provide members with services at lower prices. These suppliers make up the network of the care plan. The policies of the network will determine how much of your care the plan will cover. Its major goal is to provide better service to plan members by emphasizing high-risk  preventive and care management, which contribute to healthier patient outcomes. Managed care also aids in cost management, allowing you to save money.

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both klebsia pneumonie and sttreprococcus pneumone avoid phagocytosis by releasing ab toxins that kill lukocyte true or false

Answers

FALSE. By producing leukocyte-killing ab otoxin, Klebsia pneumonie and Streptococcus pneumonie both resist phagocytosis.

Not all Klebsiella pneumoniae infections are harmful. But when it does, it's pure stuff for nightmares. The bacteria may create a variety of issues when it is not in the stomach, not the least of which is the horrific necrotizing fasciitis, which can kill a healthy person in a matter of days. The homologous wzi, wzc, and/or wzy alleles of the cps locus, as well as whole genome data, have been used in more recent research to categorize K. pneumoniae capsules [45–49]. The CPS conceals subsurface features like the external membrane protein K36 (OmpK36) that cause complement activation in order to avoid being killed by serum complement [50, 51]. FALSE. By producing leukocyte-killing ab otoxin, Klebsia pneumonie and Streptococcus pneumonie both resist phagocytosis.Tetracycline, sulfonamides, rifampin, aminoglycosides, and quinolones are a few therapeutic options. Ciprofloxacin can be used to treat ozena for a period of three months.

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Which dietary pattern helps reduce risk of heart disease and supports brain health--two concerns for older adults?

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A diet with a focus on fruits, vegetables, lean protein and fish, and low-fat dairy helps reduce risk of heart disease and supports brain health--two concerns for older adults.

Older adults are conscious about their health, specifically their heart and brain as these two organs are vital for the sustenance of life.

Research has shown that such a kind of diet that is rich in fruits and vegetables with a balanced amount of fish and lean proteins is effective in reducing the chances of heart diseases as well as brain abnormalities. Also, a low-fat or fat-free diet is essential for reducing heart disease. Hence, old adults tend to focus on such diet plans.

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complete the sentences using the terms on the left. labels may be used more than once or not at all.

Answers

1. The hepatitis B vaccine contains antigens from the surface of the hepatitis B virus.

2. After receiving the hepatitis B vaccine, the immune system

produces memory cells that remain in the body.

3. If the vaccinated individual is later expected to the the hepatitis B virus, a primary immune response is triggered.

4. If the macrophages change, then the immune system will not

recognize them. Scientists would have to develop a new vaccine.\

Who is in need of the hepatitis B vaccine?

Every newborn, every child and adolescent under the age of 19, every adult between the ages of 19 and 59, and every adult 60 and older with risk factors for hepatitis B infection should receive the hepatitis B vaccine.

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Complete question is in following attachment

Which of the following psychologists most likely deals with the special mental health problems faced by the elderly?A.Geropsychologists; B. clinical; C. Neuropsychologists

Answers

The correct answer about the psychologists which deals with the special mental health problems faced by the elderly is the Geropsychologists.

The correct answer choice is option a.

What is meant by physiologist?

A physiologist simply refers to a person who studies the function of the structures of the body. In order words, someone who studies physiology is called physiologist. There are different branches of physiologist; among which also includes the ones which is concerned with special mental health problems faced by the elderly and is known as Geropsychologists.

In conclusion, we can now confirm from the explanation given above that physiologists too are closely related to physicians.

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Infants need fat because it is a rich source of calories, it aids in the absorption of several vitamins, and it promotes proper development of the nervous system. Fat accounts for approximately of total kcal in the infant's dietary pattern. A)
10%
B)
25%
C)
50%
D)
75%

Answers

Answer C is the right selection. Children, adolescents, and babies all need at least 5 grams of essential fatty acids daily. During childhood, fatty acids like docosahexaenoic acid and arachidonic acid play important roles in the development of the eyes and nervous system.

Docosahexaenoic acid (DHA), in particular, is known to play a crucial function in the development of the brain and retina. Omega-3 and omega-6 fatty acids also have important roles to play. Early life and prenatal nutrition have an impact on later children’s growth and cognitive development. These fats aid in cell growth, nervous system control, cardiovascular system fortification, immune system development, and nutrient absorption.

Therefore, we can conclude that Answer C is the best option. All children, teenagers, and infants require at least 5 grammes of essential fatty acids each day.

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the overload demands placed on the body during exercise enable it to handle added stresses and strains that occur during physical activity. True or False

Answers

TRUE. The body can tolerate additional strains and stresses that arise during physical activity thanks to the excessive demands imposed on it during exercise.

The body must be overloaded in order to gain physical fitness because, under higher demands (overload), the body gets stronger. The next time, you should use five pounds heavier, walk for five minutes longer, and exercise five times more. The fundamental idea that says you must engage in more physical activity than is typical (overload) to enhance your physical fitness and gain health advantages. For those who are disabled, exercise is more crucial than for those who are well. When your body adjusts to your current routine, you should increase overload, which may be accomplished by employing FITT (frequency, intensity, time, and type).

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Which of the following food sources are an incomplete protein: (a) tofu (b) beef (c) nuts (d) fish (e) nut butters (f) barley

Answers

Nuts (c), nut butters (e), barley (f), coconut milk (h), rice I oats (j), nuts (c), and beans (k) (o) Whole-wheat bread is a source of insufficient protein.

One complete source of protein is soybeans. This indicates that they give your system all the necessary vital amino acids. All animal proteins—meat, poultry, fish, eggs, and dairy—are complete. Quinoa is one of the few plant-based providers of full protein. A protein must have sufficient amounts of each of the nine necessary amino acids in order to be deemed "complete." Unlike beans and nuts, eggs and meat are rich in proteins. When combined, these plant-based protein are known as complementary protein because each one provides the missing necessary amino acid in the other, making them complete proteins when consumed together. So they combine to form a full protein.

(Check all that apply. Which of the following food sources are an incomplete protein:

(a) tofu

(b) beef

(c) nuts

(d) fish

(e) nut butters

(f) barley

(g) soy

(h) coconut milk

(i) rice

(j) oats

(k) beans

(l) chicken

(m) yogurt

(n) egg

(o) whole-wheat bread

(p) cow's milk)

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FILL INTHE BLANK under the hipaa privacy rule, when an individual asks to see his or her own health information, a covered entity_____ . must always provide access can deny access to psychotherapy notes can demand that the individual pay to see his or her record can always deny access

Answers

under the hipaa privacy rule, when an individual asks to see his or her own health information, a covered entity can deny access to psychotherapy notes.

The HIPAA Privacy Rule establishes national standards to protect patient medical records and other individually identifiable health information, and it is applicable to health plans, healthcare clearinghouses, and healthcare providers who participate in particular electronic health care transactions (collectively referred to as "protected health information"). Without a person's consent, the Rule places restrictions and conditions on the uses and disclosures of protected health information that are permitted. Additionally, it requires appropriate safeguards to maintain the confidentiality of such data. People are also given access rights to their protected health information under the Rule, including access to their medical records for viewing and copying.

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Paul Ekman and his colleagues gathered evidence supporting the universality of _________ facial expressions of emotion.

Answers

Paul Ekman and his co-workers collected evidence/proof in support of the universality of seven facial expressions of emotion.

In order to categorize every expression on the face and the rest of the body, Ekman developed the Facial Action Coding System (FACS). Ekman has investigated the psychology of lying, its social effects, and its implications for our mental health.

Ekman developed a list of common feelings and behaviors that he thought all individuals shared as a result of his studies with tribal people in New Guinea. These emotions include astonishment, grief, joy, contempt, wrath, and terror. Ekman came to the conclusion that while certain emotions were expressed through facial expressions, both good and negative emotions were shared by all people. These are some of the universal feelings:

contempt contentmentamusementexcitementembarrassment reliefremorse accomplishment prideshamesatisfactionsensory enjoyment

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An individual who is experiencing an elevated mood, a decreased need for sleep, and distractibility is most likely experiencing:
A. panic disorder
B. mania
C. depersonalization
D. hallucinations

Answers

A person going through an elevated moods, sleeplessness, and distractibility is most likely experiencing (B) mania.

When you experience periods of abnormally heightened, severe swings in your mood or emotions, energy level, or activity level, you have a manic episode. It must be clear to others that you are acting differently from how you typically do in terms of your degree of intense physical, mental, and behavioral energy.

Conduct that sticks out is abnormal manic behavior. Other individuals can see that this conduct is excessive. The actions might be an exaggerated expression of joy or annoyance.

A manic episode is a period of time during which you exhibit one or more mania symptoms and satisfy the requirements for a manic episode. You might need to be hospitalized sometimes.

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Carson is divorced, lives alone, has very few friends, and he rarely interacts with others outside of work. According to psychological research on social isolation, Carson's lack of social relationships is likely correlated with: O better health O an optimistic explanatory style and positive emotional states. O the stress contagion effect. O poorer health

Answers

Answer  an optimistic explanatory style and positive emotional states.

Explanation: I AM NOT SHURE IF I AM RIGHT I AM SPED

should young children be allowed to snack between meals? multiple choice yes, because they have relatively high nutrient needs, but can only eat a small amount of food at one time. no, because it will decrease their appetite and limit food intake at mealtimes. no, because snacking contributes to high rates of childhood obesity. yes, because children need more sugar and salt than adults.

Answers

yes, because they have relatively high nutrient needs but only can eat a small amount of food at one time. Hence, young children be allowed to snack between meals.

For an organism to live, grow, and reproduce, it needs food. Nutrients must be consumed by all living things, including plants, animals, fungi, and protists. Nutrients can enter cells for metabolic purposes or can be ejected from them to create extracellular structures like hair, scales, feathers, or exoskeletons. Some nutrients can be biologically broken down into smaller molecules to release energy, resulting in the end products of water and carbon dioxide, including carbohydrates, lipids, proteins, and fermentation products (ethanol or vinegar). Every living thing needs water. Mammals require a variety of nutrients, including sources of energy, a particular group of fatty acids, vitamins, and particular minerals, as well as some of the amino acids needed to create proteins.

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Lee is riding an elevator to the top floor of a tall building. During a brief conversation with a stranger in the elevator, Lee mentions that he is afraid of heights, which is not how he normally thinks of himself. After arriving at the top floor, Lee realizes that his fear of heights came to mind because of the elevator ride. This example best illustrates how Lee's thoughts were influenced by
a. his working self-concept
b. a sociometer
c. a self-serving bias
d. his self-esteem

Answers

Lee's thoughts were influenced by (a) his working self-concept.

The highly active, contextually aware part of the self-concept that directs behaviour and information processing on a moment-by-moment basis is known as the working self-concept (WSC). Depending on the signals in one's current setting, the WSC's components are activated differently.

One's self-concept, for instance, could encompass a number of roles, such as being a parent, a husband, and an employee. These distinct social situations are linked to these alternate self-concepts, and they are triggered when the proper social cues are available.

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#39 The Joint Commission's requirements for the minimum contents of the medical staff bylaws include all but which of the following:


A. fair hearing

B. credentialing, privileging, and appointment

C. medical staff infection control committee

D. corrective actions

Answers

Answer:

A. fair hearing

The Joint Commission's requirements for the minimum contents of the medical staff bylaws include provisions for credentialing, privileging, and appointment, as well as a requirement for a medical staff infection control committee. However, the Joint Commission's requirements do not include a provision for a fair hearing. A fair hearing is a process in which a medical staff member who has been accused of wrongdoing or has had their privileges challenged can present their side of the story and have their case heard by a neutral third party. While fair hearing processes are an important part of medical staff governance and can help to ensure that decisions about privileges and appointments are fair and unbiased, they are not specifically required by the Joint Commission. Other requirements for the minimum contents of medical staff bylaws may include provisions for corrective actions, peer review, and medical staff governance.

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Explanation:

for dinner, brice goes to a sports bar and orders a dozen chicken wings, a side of nacho cheese fries, and drinks four beers while watching his favorite basketball team on the big screen. which of the following changes could brice have made to better comply with the dietary guidelines?

Answers

In the sports bar, Brice should have ordered a baked sweet potato instead of nacho cheese fries.

The purpose of the Dietary guidelines is to produce recommendation on what to eat and drink to create a healthy diet that may promote healthy growth and development, facilitate stop diet-related chronic unwellness, and meet nutrient desires.

Baked sweet potatoes are an alimentary and healthy complicated saccharide that you just will fancy year-round . each sweet and savory, this prime potato choose is packed filled with vitamins, minerals, antioxidants, and fiber. Sweet potatoes may be mashed and served as a facet, in casseroles, or sliced and baked for sweet potato fries.

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If you ate a 606 calorie meal, how many calories of that meal would go to making ATP? Show work

Answers

Answer: 83 calories

Explanation:

There are 7.3 ATP in one calorie. 606 divided by 7.3 = 83 calories got to ATP.

#70 The HIPAA privacy rule __________.



A. Applies only to Medicare patients


B. Applies only to government-operated healthcare facilities


C. Both a and b are correct


D. Both a and b are incorrect

Answers

Answer:

D. Both a and b are incorrect

The HIPAA privacy rule is a federal law that applies to all healthcare providers and facilities that handle protected health information (PHI). The rule sets out the rules and requirements for protecting the privacy of PHI, and it applies to any provider or facility that is covered by the Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA), regardless of whether they are Medicare providers or government-operated facilities. The HIPAA privacy rule establishes standards for the use, disclosure, and protection of PHI, and it requires covered entities to implement safeguards to protect the privacy of patients' health information. The HIPAA privacy rule does not apply only to Medicare patients or government-operated facilities, and it is an important part of HIPAA's overall goal of protecting the confidentiality and security of PHI.

Explanation:

Which of the following is an example of explicit memory?

A) Recalling the locations of the countries of Africa

B) Remembering the lyrics to a favorite song

C) Making coffee in the morning

D) Walking from your first period class to your second period class

Answers

One of the example of explicit memory is recalling the locations of the countries of Africa. the correct option is A

What is explicit memory?

Explicit memory is one of the two main types of long term human memory the other of which is implicit memory. Explicit memory is the conscious intentional recollection of factual information previous experiences and concepts.

This explicit memory is dependent upon three processes:

Acquisitionconsolidation Retrieval

Therefore One of the example of explicit memory is recalling the locations of the countries of Africa. the correct option is A

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Answer:

A.) Recalling the locations of the countries of Africa

Explanation:

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doctors and hospitals that operate as health maintenance organizations (hmos) obtain payment based on the number o

Answers

Plans called HMO Point-of-Service (HMOPOS) HMOs let you receive some treatments outside of your network in exchange for a higher copayment or premium.

A health maintenance organisation (HMO) is what, exactly?

A health insurance policy known as a managed care organization manages costs by restricting services to a neighborhood network of healthcare facilities and physicians. For any type of specialized care, HMOs often demand referrals from a primary-care doctor.

What does HMO signify in regards to medicine?

HMO A health management organization (HMO) is a type of insurance policy that restricts access to a neighborhood's doctors and healthcare facilities in order to contain expenses. For any type of specialized care, HMOs often demand recommendations from the a primary care doctor.

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A therapist who uses different techniques and theories based on the need of the client and the diagnosis could be referred to as an ___ therapist
A) eclectic
B) cognitive behavioral
C) Gestalt
D) humanistic

Answers

A therapist who uses different techniques and theories based on the need of the client and the diagnosis could be referred to as an electric therapist.

Who is electric Therapist?

electroconvulsive treatment (ECT) is a process in which tiny electric currents are purposely used to cause a brief seizure in the brain. ECT appears to alter brain chemistry in a way that swiftly alleviates the signs and symptoms of several mental health problems.

A significant portion of the stigma surrounding ECT stems from early procedures in which excessive amounts of electricity were given without anesthetic, causing memory loss, bone fractures, and other devastating adverse effects.

Today's ECT is substantially safer. Despite the possibility of some negative effects, ECT today uses regulated electric currents to achieve its goals.

Therefore, A therapist who uses different techniques and theories based on the need of the client and the diagnosis could be referred to as an electric therapist.

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ndicate whether each statement is true or false.1. during contraction, the myosin myofilaments shorten. (click to select)2. during contraction, the actin myofilaments shorten. (click to select)3. the sliding filament model explains how myofilaments slide past each other. (click to select)4. the sliding of the myofilaments past each other cause the sarcomere to shorten. (click to select)

Answers

In the given statement 1 and 2 are false; 3 and 4 are only true abou contractions.

A striated muscle fiber contracts as myosin heads pull on the actin filaments, shortening the sarcomeres that are linearly distributed within myofibrils. Since here is where filament movement begins, the area where thin and thick filaments overlap is crucial to muscular contraction.The sliding filament model of muscle contraction describes how actin myofilaments slide through myosin myofilaments during contraction. A contraction is the use of symbols or words to shorten a sentence or phrase, which makes it informal.Neither the actin nor the myosin fibers shorten during contraction. During contraction, the H zones and I bands shorten, but the A bands remain the same length.

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#31 The Stark Law_________.


A. Prohibits physicians from billing for lab services.

B. Prohibits physicians from ordering test on family members.

C. Prohibits physicians from ordering from entities that they have financial relationship.

D. Prohibits physicians from ordering lab services at hospitals.

Answers

Answer:

C. Prohibits physicians from ordering from entities that they have financial relationship.

Explanation:

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