To arrest all the transcriptional events at the same position on the DNA template, the sequence of the gene being transcribed must be known, and in the reaction mixture three rNTPs must be added except for the one where the transcription process need to be arrested.
rNTPs are the Ribonucleoside tri-phosphates. It is comprised of a ribose sygar joined to three phosphate groups. There are 4 types of rNTPs: rATP, rCTP, rUTP, rGTP. They are required for making the RNA strand from DNA.
Transcription is the process of synthesizing the RNA strand from the template DNA strand. The process occurs in the nucleus of the eukaryotic cells and in the nucleiod of prokaryotes.
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which of the following is not a major factor in where and how air moves?
a. pressure
b. temperature
c. density
d. type of gas
C. Density. The following are the main variables influencing the global atmospheric circulation: uneven surface heating of the soil. seasonal variations in precipitation and temperature. Earth turning on its axis.
Which of the following is missing from the air response?Air does not contain hydrogen gas; instead, it is mostly composed of trace gases including carbon dioxide and water vapor, as well as 78% nitrogen and 21% oxygen.
Which of the following is not an atmospheric component?The quantity of water vapor present in the air is referred to as humidity. Since sunlight is not dependent on the atmosphere like the other alternatives mentioned above, it is not a component of weather.
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a hormone that stimulates the opening of calcium channels and interaction with calmodulin __________.
Cytoplasmic enzymes are activated by hormones that promote calcium channel opening and interaction with calmodulin.
What hormones do the adrenal medulla release?The inner portion of an adrenal gland called the adrenal medulla regulates the hormones that start the flight or fight response. Both epinephrine (adrenaline) and norepinephrine (noradrenaline), which have comparable roles, are the primary hormones released by the adrenal medulla.
What first-tier hormone induces the synthesis of cortisol?Corticotropin, also known as adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH): Your adrenal glands, which are located above your kidneys, are stimulated by this hormone to make cortisol and other hormones. In reaction to low blood calcium levels, the parathyroid hormone is produced.
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What is deposition?
A the formation of precipitation with lower pH
B
when moisture is evaporated off the leaves of plants
C
when moisture mixes with the dust particles in the atmosphere
D when heavier chemicals fall to Earth after the burning of fossil fuels
Answer:
B) when moisture is evaporated off the leaves of plants
What i the proper term for the repeated erie of event by which rock gradually and continuouly change from one type to another
The term "rock cycle" refers to the process by which molten magma cools and transforms into an igneous rock.
What do rocks become as a result of weathering and erosion?At or near the earth's surface, weathering (the process of breaking down rock) and erosion (the process of transferring rock material) reduce rocks to ever-tinier fragments. These more minute rock fragments, such as sand, silt, or mud, can be deposited as sediments, which then harden or lithify to form sedimentary rocks.
What kinds of weathering do rocks undergo?Weathering can be classified as biological, chemical, or mechanical. Chemical weathering is the process by which rain gradually eats away at rocks because rain is actually somewhat acidic. Animals and plants can also degrade rocks.
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which structure is correctly paired with its function? question 38 options: urethra: transport of urine bladder: concentration of urine nephron: storage of urine ureter: formation of urine
Urine is carried by the urethra.
Urine travels from the kidneys to the bladder through the ureters. Prior to passing through the urethra and leaving the body, the urine is stored in the bladder. the pipe connecting the kidney to the bladder to transport pee.
Urethra. Urine can travel through this tube and leave the body. Urine leaks from the bladder as a result of the brain's tightening signal to the bladder muscles. In order to allow urine to pass from the bladder through the urethra, the brain sends a signal to the sphincter muscles to loosen up.
The urinary bladder serves as a temporary reservoir for the pee and is reached by the ureters, which transport urine from the kidneys. The urinary bladder's urine is transported to the outside by the urethra, a tubular organ.
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as noted in our origins, this modern human population exhibits the greatest genetic diversity today?
sub-Saharan Africans human population exhibits the greatest genetic diversity today.
sub-Saharan Africans
Geographically speaking, Sub-Saharan Africa refers to the parts of the African continent south of the Sahara. West Africa, East Africa, Central Africa, and Southern Africa are among them.
Geographically, according to the United Nations definition, the term may also cover polities that only have a portion of their territory located in that region, in addition to the African countries and territories that are totally situated in that particular region (UN). According to the organization defining the region, there are between 46 and 48 countries included in this non-standard geographical area (e.g., UN, WHO, World Bank, etc.). The African Union, which recognizes all 55 of the continent's Member States, divides them into five clearly defined regional groups.
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what is the probability that a mating between two carriers will produce an offspring with a recessively inherited disorder
There is a 25% probability that a mating between two carriers will produce an offspring with a recessively inherited disorder.
Inorder to understand the probability of mating between two carriers, we need to form a punnet square. In the field of biology, a punnet square is a diagram that shows the probability of outcomes when mating is done between two prospect parents.
Consider two carrier mates to be Hh and Hh. The punnet square will be drawn as:
H h
H HH Hh
h Hh hh
The results of the punnet square show that there is 25% probability for the recessively inherited disorder to occur. 50% probability is there for the offspring being carriers like the parents and 25% probability is that there will be no disorder in the offspring.
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in the scientific method, after a question is made, what is the next step? responses collect data collect data make a conclusion make a conclusion experiment experiment make a hypothesis
The scientific method is a process that is used to answer questions and solve problems. It is a widely accepted process used by scientists all over the world to gain knowledge and understanding.
After a question is made, the next step in the scientific method is to make a hypothesis. A hypothesis is an educated guess about what the answer to the question could be. It is an educated guess because the guess is based on the researcher’s knowledge, observations, and research. This hypothesis is then tested in an experiment.
An experiment is a test of the hypothesis. It is used to determine if the hypothesis is correct or not. An experiment should be designed in a way that allows the researcher to answer the question in a clear and concise manner. Once the experiment is complete, the researcher collects and analyzes the data. This data helps the researcher draw a conclusion. A conclusion is the final answer to the question. It is based on the data collected during the experiment and the results of the experiment.
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methotrexate is a highly toxic medication that blocks dna synthesis in all cells. what medication needs to be administered after methotrexate to prevent cytotoxic effects in normal cells of the body?
Methotrexate is a highly toxic medication that is used to treat a variety of conditions, including cancer. It works by blocking DNA synthesis in all cells, which can be beneficial in treating cancer, but can also have detrimental effects on normal cells of the body. To prevent the cytotoxic effects of methotrexate on normal cells, a medication known as leucovorin or folinic acid must be administered after methotrexate.
Leucovorin or folinic acid acts as a “rescue” agent to reduce the toxicity of methotrexate, as it enables normal cells to continue their normal DNA synthesis. Unlike methotrexate, leucovorin does not block DNA synthesis, but rather helps to restore the activity of an enzyme known as dihydrofolate reductase. This enzyme is essential for normal DNA synthesis and is inhibited by methotrexate, but it can be “rescued” by leucovorin, allowing normal cells to escape the cytotoxic effects of methotrexate.
Administration of leucovorin or folinic acid is essential for reducing the cytotoxic effects of methotrexate on normal cells. It is typically administered after methotrexate to help restore the activity of dihydrofolate reductase and to prevent the cytotoxic effects of methotrexate on normal cells. If leucovorin or folinic acid is not administered, the toxic effects of methotrexate on normal cells can be significant and cause serious health complications.
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the hypothalamus secretes two types of neurohormones called hormones and hormones. State True or False your answer:
a. True
b. False
Answer:
b. False
Explanation:
Hypothalamus play the important role in the release of many hormones. For example when the level of growth hormone is low, the hypothalamus releases growth hormone releasing factor which stimulate the pituitary gland to release growth hormone.
the most common type of regenerated fiber, which is derived from cellulose and is mostly plant in origin, is rayon. t or f
Yes, it is true that rayon, which is made from cellulose and primarily comes from plants, is the most popular type of regenerated fiber.
The most popular kind of regenerated fiber is rayon, which is made from cellulose and is primarily plant-based. Cellulose-based fibers are synthetic polymer fibers, which all have a petroleum-based beginning. While polyester shares many characteristics with nylon, it is more easily dissolved by weak and concentrated acids.
Dietary fibers are often composed of lengthy, repetitive chains of carbohydrates and are generated from indigestible plant components. The insoluble fibers cellulose and lignin can be found in cereal and grain husks, which are where the majority of fibers come from. Cellulose makes up the majority of plant fibers, frequently in conjunction with other substances like lignin. Cotton, hemp, jute, flax, ramie, sisal, and bagasse are a few examples.
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At which type of plate boundary do tectonic plates slide past each other? (1 point)
O at convergent boundaries
O at transform boundaries
O at divergent boundaries
O at oceanic-oceanic boundaries
Name the phase:
Prophase
Anaphase
Metaphase
Telophase
A vine plant brushes against a fence and wraps itself around the fence. to what stimulus is the plant responding?
Plant grows toward the direction of sunlight to stimulus is the plant responding.
Two different kinds of induced curvature motions are visible in plants. These movements are specifically tropic and nastic. Tropic movements are directional growth patterns in which the stimulus's direction determines the growth's direction. Examples include gravitropism, gravitropism, chemotropism, phototropism, and others. Positive tropism, or the movement of growing plants toward a stimulus, is distinguished from negative tropism, or the movement of growing plants or plant components away from a stimulus. Instead of downward and upward tropism, positive or negative tropism is the definition of a tropic movement.
Light, gravity, water, sun movement, and touch are a few common stimuli for plants. The stimulus is linked to the naming of the tropism. For instance, hydrotropism refers to the root movement of plants toward water.
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I really need help on this question
Suppose you start with two segments of DNA (two different genes). Each one of these two will codify for a specific set of amino acids. The two genes’ sequences are provided below, please show all the steps to get to the correct amino acids. Gene 1: GACAAGTCCACAATC – Gene 2: ATTGCAATCCGG
Hint: you need to use the Genetic Code table from lesson 5.10, Explore: The Genetic Code page 12. Make sure to follow the steps of protein synthesis: from DNA to mRNA to amino acids.
( needs to be 2 paragraphs)
Converting the genes to mRNA and using the table of genetic codes:
Gene 1: Leu Phe Arg Cys (stop codon)
Gene 2: (stop) Arg (stop) Ala
The genetic codesThe genetic codes, otherwise known as codons, are codes containing 3 nucleotide bases with each code specifying an amino acid. The nucleotide bases are mRNA bases.
Thus, for each gene, the mRNA bases would be the complementary bases.
GACAAGTCCACAATC = CUGUUCAGGUGUUAGATTGCAATCCGG = UAACGUUAGGCCUsing the genetic code table:
For the first mRNA sequence: CUG UUC AGG UGU UAG
Leu Phe Arg Cys (stop codon)
For the second mRNA: UAA CGU UAG GCC
(stop) Arg (stop) Ala
In other words, the amino acid for the first gene would be Leucine, Phenyline, Arginine, Cysteine, and a stop codon.
For the second gene, the amino acids would be a stop codon, Arginine, a stop codon, and Alanine.
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all of the following are used to detect fetal abnormalities, except: a.amniocentesis. b.chorionic villus sampling. c.colposcopy. d.karyotype.
All of the following are used to detect fetal abnormalities, except colonoscopy.
Colposcopy is a clinical indicative technique to outwardly inspect the cervix as well as the vagina and vulva utilizing a colposcope. The principal objective of colposcopy is to forestall cervical malignant growth by recognizing and treating precancerous injuries early. Amniocentesis is a test you might be presented with during pregnancy to check in the event that your child has a hereditary or chromosomal condition, like Down's disorder, Edwards' disorder, or Patau's condition. It includes eliminating and testing a little example of cells from amniotic liquid, the liquid that encompasses the child in the belly. Chorionic villus examination (CVS), or chorionic villus biopsy, is a pre-birth test that includes taking an example of tissue from the placenta to test for chromosomal irregularities and certain other hereditary issues.
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Explain 3 differences between the leading strand and the lagging strand
Answer:
pls rate as brainliest
Explanation:
DIFFERENCES
the lagging strand replicates discontinuously forming short fragments, whereas the leading strand replicates continuously .The extension of the leading strand from primer by the action of DNA polymerase occurs without any interruption. lagging strand involves its formation into segments.Leading strand does not involve any activity of DNA ligase for its formation. lagging strand is formed by the activity of ligasewhat is the general relationship between species richness and ecosystem function and resilience to disturbances? and, why?
The mechanism of cohabitation shapes the link between species richness and ecosystem variability. theory linking environmental diversity to species richness.
What distinguishes species diversity from species abundance?The number of members of each species in a region is known as its species abundance. Additionally, it has a numerical quality. The phrase "species diversity" refers to the variety of species present in a region (also known as "species richness"), as well as their abundance and distribution within that ecosystem. It serves as a gauge of the ecosystem's diversity.
Does the functioning of an ecosystem at the landscape scale depend on species richness?The association between species richness and ecosystem functioning may thus generally be stronger at the landscape size than at lower ones, according to our findings.
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the eye has several structures to facilitate sight. which structure serves as the mucous membrane lining of the eyelids?
The mucous membrane that lines the eyelids is the conjunctiva.
The eye is a sensory organ that functions to provide vision. Based on the anatomical structure, the eye is divided into 3 layers, which consist of the outer layer of the cornea and sclera, the uvea in the middle, and the retina in the deepest layer. When looking at an object, the extraocular muscles voluntarily move the eyeball to find the object.
The conjunctiva itself is a part of the eye in the form of a thin layer which functions to protect the eyeball and contains blood vessels to provide nutrition to the membrane. The conjunctiva protects the eye by producing mucus and tears which will block bacteria or foreign objects from entering the eye. The conjunctiva also causes the eyelids to move easily.
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sort the statements into the appropriate bins depending on whether they represent factors that varied from participant to participant at the start of this study, factors that were consistent from the start of the study, and factors that were measured in the study.
a. smoking status (smoking vs. non smoking)
b. total food intake
c. percentage of different types of fats eaten
d. activity level
e. sex of participant
f. number of non-fatal heart attacks
g. deaths from coronary heart disease
Factors that have changed since the start of the study: Variables like smoking status, total calorie intake, percentage of different types of fat consumed, and degree of activity remained the same.
the participant's sex as a result: the number of deaths from coronary heart disease and heart attacks. Coronary artery disease affects the larger coronary arteries on the surface of the heart. Coronary microvascular disease, another form of heart disease, affects the tiny arteries in the heart muscle. Coronary microvascular disease is more common in women. The type of coronary heart disease determines its origin. Coronary artery disease is frequently brought on by cholesterol, a waxy material that builds up inside the coronary artery wall to form plaque. This deposit may entirely smoking statu.
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a child of a parent with a mutation in collagen and displaying oi will have what probability of also having oi?
A child of a parent with a mutation in collagen and displaying oi will have the probability of 50% having oi. A genetic disease called osteogenesis imperfects (OI) results in recurring bone fractures with little to no obvious stress.
Another name for mutation OI is "brittle bone disease." OI can be mild or severe, and the latter might result in death either before or soon after birth. Adults with OI may experience dental issues, hearing loss, dentinogenesis imperfects, and fractures. Patients with OI may also experience skeletal anomalies, joint laxity, and muscle weakness.
One in 20,000 people have OI, including those who are diagnosed with it later in life. OI affects persons from all racial and cultural backgrounds, as well as males and women equally frequently.
The complete question is:
A child of a parent with a mutation in collagen and displaying oi will have what probability of also having oi? 25% 50% 75% 100%
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which type of genetic testing is the most sensitive method for detecting any mutation in a specific gene?
A mutation in a specific gene can be identified by a technique called Direct DNA sequencing. This is mostly used to recognize single base pair mutation.
The most accurate way to identify any gene mutation is through direct DNA sequencing, a sort of genetic testing. The precise order of the nucleotides along the chromosomes and genomes is determined in laboratories via DNA sequencing, a crucial biological technique. This technique enables the investigation of a wide range of diseases and genetic disorders as well as the identification of gene mutations.
The complete question is:
Which type of genetic testing is the most sensitive method for detecting any mutation in a specific gene? Select one:
a. Direct DNA sequencing
b. Immunohistochemistry
c. Fluorescence in situ hybridization
d. Banded chromosomal analysis
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ribozymes and riboswitches are portions of rna molecules that have properties commonly associated with proteins in that . a. they bind ligands b. they change conformation c. they have catalytic activity d. all of the above e. both a and b
The RNA molecules known as ribozymes and riboswitches have characteristics with proteins in that they bind ligands and undergo conformational changes.
What exactly are riboswitches and ribozymes?Small chemicals influence the function of RNA through ribozymes and riboswitches. Numerous tiny compounds act as cofactors and substrates for catalytic RNAs (ribozymes), and gene-regulatory mRNA domains (riboswitches) that control transcription, splicing, translation, or RNA stability are able to sense their intracellular concentrations.
What use do ribozymes serve in ribosomes?As a component of the large subunit ribosomal RNA inside the ribosome, ribozymes serve to connect amino acids during protein synthesis. Additionally, they take involved in a number of RNA processing processes, such as RNA splicing, viral replication, and transfer RNA biosynthesis.
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if a typical somatic cell has 12 chromosomes, how many chromatids and dna molecules are expected in each cell of that organism?
12 DNA molecules and the 24 chromatids will be in each cell of that organism.
How does DNA function? What is it?The instructions required for a creature to grow, endure, and reproduce are encoded in its DNA. Dna fragments must be transformed into messages that are utilized to create proteins, that are the protein complexes that carry out the majority of the tasks in our bodies, in order to complete these activities.
Why is DNA such a big deal?DNA is crucial for inheritance, protein coding, and supplying guidelines for life and its functions in all living organisms. DNA controls a person's or an animal's growth, reproduction, and final demise. There are 46 chromosomes in total in each of a human cell's 23 pairs of chromosomes.
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Solve x^3 = 27
Please help!
Answer:
x=3
Explanation:
x³=27
³√x³=³√27
x=3
8.What type of eruption produces a viscous magma containing 52% silica and a gas
content of 1.5%?
Answer:
A viscous magma containing 52% silica and gas would produce a felsic, or explosive, eruption. Felsic eruptions typically produce lava flows that are thick and sticky, and can contain a high concentration of silica. These eruptions can also produce large ash clouds and pyroclastic flows, as the gas trapped in the magma expands and escapes during the eruption. Examples of felsic volcanic eruptions include the eruption of Mount St. Helens in 1980 and the eruption of Mount Pinatubo in 1991.
apoptosis is a term describing the process by which cells stop dividing and die. it is a normal part of an organism’s life cycle. apoptosis is carefully controlled by enzymes within the cell. what would happen if the genes used to synthesize these enzymes were mutated?
Enzyme mutations, which are the result of inherited anomalies in the affected person's DNA, can cause serious or fatal illnesses in humans. An enzyme that is encoded by a mutant gene may only have one aberrant amino acid residue at a particular location.
Some mutations force material via the faulty metabolic pathway by increasing the expression of the enzyme upstream of the weak-link enzyme. Others promote the synthesis of a co-substrate for a downstream enzyme, moving more substance through the route. Genetic mutations, which occur as your cells divide and generate duplicates of themselves, are modifications to your DNA sequence. Your DNA teaches your body how to develop and work.
Genetic changes may result in diseases like cancer or, in the long run, may enable people to adapt to their environment more successfully. The process of programmable cell death is called apoptosis. Unwanted cells, such as those between a developing hand's fingers, are removed during the early stages of development. Adult bodies employ apoptosis to get rid of cells that can no longer be repaired.
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All of the following are characteristic of the cnidarians except ___________________.
muscle tissue derived from mesoderm
a motile form called the medusa
a sessile form called the polyp
a gastrovascular cavity
Answer:
a sessile form called the polyp
The female peacock is less colorful and has a shorter tail than the male. Explain, in evolutionary terms, the advantage that the bright coloration and elaborate tail feature give the male.
Answer:
The bright coloration and elaborate tail feature of the male peacock are thought to be examples of sexual selection. Sexual selection is a type of natural selection that occurs when certain traits are favored by members of one sex (usually females) when choosing a mate. These traits are often exaggerated or highly visible, and they serve to attract the attention of the opposite sex.
Answer:
In many species, including peacocks, males tend to have more colorful and elaborate physical features than females. This is often referred to as sexual dimorphism. One theory for the evolution of these differences is that they function as a form of sexual selection, in which the more attractive or ornamented individuals are more likely to attract mates and reproduce.
In the case of peacocks, the bright colors and elaborate tail feathers of the male may serve as a visual display that attracts females and signals the male's fitness and genetic quality. The bright colors and elaborate tail may also serve as a way for the male to advertise his presence to other males and potentially deter them from competing for the same females.
Overall, the bright coloration and elaborate tail of the male peacock may have evolved as a way for males to stand out and attract mates, which can increase their reproductive success.