The symptoms of diphtheria are due to an exotoxin that blocks proteins synthesis in host cells.

a. Trueb. False

Answers

Answer 1

A diphtheria exotoxin prevents host cells from synthesizing proteins, which causes the symptoms of the disease. This assertion is accurate.

Diphtheria is a dangerous bacterial illness that often affects the nose and throat mucous membranes (dif-THEER-e-uh). Because the illness is widely immunized against in modern nations like the US, diphtheria is incredibly uncommon. Signs and symptoms of diphtheria often appear 2 to 5 days after an individual contracts the disease. A thick, gray membrane that covers the tonsils and throat is one sign and symptom of tonsillitis. a raspy voice, a painful throat enlarged lymph nodes and swollen glands in the neck fast breathing or difficulty breathing nasal dripping, fatigue, chills, and fever. Similarly to other bacterial skin infections, a second kind of diphtheria can damage the skin, resulting in discomfort, redness, and swelling. greyish rash covering the sores.

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Related Questions

what are the min, max and optimal for psychrophiles, mesophiles, thermophiles and hyperthermophiles?

Answers

Psychrophiles (<15 °C), mesophiles (20–45 °C), thermophiles (45–80 °C) and hyperthermophiles (>85 °C).

According to the range of temperatures at which they can grow, microbes can be loosely categorized. At the temperature where the organism can grow at its fastest rates. Its minimal growth temperature is the lowest temperature at which the organism can endure and reproduce. Its maximal growth temperature is the highest temperature at which growth is possible. The acceptable growth temperature ranges listed below are simply estimates and may change depending on other environmental conditions.Mesophiles, or "middle-loving," organisms are acclimated to moderate temperatures, with ideal growth temperatures falling between room temperature (about 20 °C) and 45 °C. Psychrotrophic organisms, also referred to as psychrotolerant organisms, favor cooler settings, ranging from a high temperature of 25 °C to refrigeration. Extreme psychrophiles are the creatures recovered from northern lakes like Lake Whillans (cold loving). Microorganisms known as psychrophiles can grow at temperatures as low as 0 °C and have an ideal growth temperature of

temperatures about 4 °C, and typically cannot survive at temps beyond 20 °C.

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A scientist treats a plant cell with a chemical that destroys the ribosomes. which cell process will be stopped as a result?

Answers

Answer:

Protein synthesis will stop.

Explanation:

Ribosomes is the organelle which carries out Protein synthesis, thus if it is destroyed, the cell process would be stopped.

If you travel to the moon, what would be the effect on your mass and weight?

Answers

Answer:

The mass will stay the same on the moon, whereas the weight would decrease.

Explanation:

if the permeability of the membrane to k , na , and cl- are 100, 3, and 10 respectively, what is the resting membrane potential of this cell?

Answers

The resting membrane potential of S-A node cell was investigated by observing the response of the membrane potential to change in [K+]O or [Cl-]O under the presence or absence of Na ion.

The slope of the change in membrane potential per decade change in [K+]O increased from 12.3 to 44 mV by removal of Na ion from the external medium, suggesting an extensive contribution of Na ion to the resting membrane potential. To determine the relative conductance between Na and K ions, Cl ion in Tyrode solution was substituted with SCN ion, which is 2.1 times more permeable than Cl ion, in order to eliminate the contribution of Cl concentration cell to the resting membrane potential. The contribution of the Cl ion to the resting membrane potential could be examined only in Na-free medium. Acetate ion has been reported to be 0.5 times less permeable than Cl ion. The replacement of Cl ion by acetate ion in various proportions caused a transient depolarization. The slope of this transient depolarization per decade change of [Cl-]O between 10 to 100 mM was determined to be -6.8mV. Under the assumption that the resting membrane potential could be determined by the parallel concentration cells for Na, K and Cl, relative conductance ratio between K, Na and Cl was calculated to be 1:0.58:0.15.

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Chooe the tatement that bet decribe the Moon' landcape. Pare vegetation, very little eroion, andy oil
riverbed with boulder, dut torm, bad weather
almot flat and featurele with ome rolling hill
powdery oil, crater, mountain, valley

Answers

According to the question, there are several craters that were created by volcanic eruptions in Maria.

What triggers erosion?

When earth is exposed to high winds, heavy rains, and moving water, soil erosion predominantly takes place. Some anthropogenic impacts, like farming and clearing land, make soil more prone to erosion.

What is the straightforward meaning of erosion?

Mud - brick minerals are worn away during erosion, a geology process in which they are moved by wind or water. Buffeting, a related process that does not involve movement, degrades or breaks down rock. A little rock fragment being carried away from a mountainside by the wind as an illustration of erosion.

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The correct question is-

Choose the statement that best describes the Moon's landscape.

A. sparse vegetation, very little erosion, sandy soil

B. riverbeds with boulders, dust storms, bad weather

C. many craters, maria formed from volcanic eruptions

D. almost flat and featureless with some rolling hills

What are the criteria for classification?

Answers

There are nine main criteria for classification:

SymmetryBody cavityAppendagesSkeletonSegmentationCirculatory systemEmbryonic developmentHabitatGerm layers

The criteria are :

Animals can be radially symmetrical, bilaterally symmetrical, or asymmetrical, according to the following classification criteria: 1. Animals' bodies may or may not be divided into segments. Animals may have organs or components that are attached to the trunk or outside of the body. Animals can have either an exoskeleton or an endoskeleton. Evolution of the embryoAn animal's circulatory system can be open or closed.Animals can have a coelomate, psuedocoelomate, or coelomate body cavity.Animals can be either terrestrial or aquatic in their habitat. Aquatic creatures can exist in both freshwater and saltwater.Animals can have diploblastic or triploblastic germ layers.

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The Threatened Specie Act prohibit trade or product made from threatened or endangered pecie. True
Fale

Answers

The given statement is TRUE. A foundation for the conservation and protection of threatened species and endangered species, as well as their habitats, both domestically and overseas, is provided under the Endangered Species Act of 1973.

In accordance with ESA, critical habitat must be identified and its removal is forbidden. The Endangered Species Act establishes protections for fish, mammals, and plants that are categorized as threatened or endangered. It allows for the addition and deletion of species from the list of threatened and endangered species as well as the creation and implementation of recovery plans. A threatened species is one that "is likely to become an endangered species within the foreseeable future throughout all or a considerable portion of its range," according to the ESA.

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each cell of the body combines nutrients and oxygen and produces energy and waste products through a process called:

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Cellular respiration, the process by which organisms combine oxygen with foodstuff molecules, diverting the chemical energy in these substances into life-sustaining activities and discarding, as waste products, carbon dioxide and water.

During the process of cellular respiration, the oxidation of biological fuels takes place in the presence of an inorganic electron acceptor, such as oxygen, and large amounts of energy are produced that are needed to power the initial creation of ATP. The process through which chemical energy from food is converted into adenosine triphosphate (ATP) in an organism's cells, followed by the ejection of waste products, is known as cellular respiration. Catabolic reactions, which reduce large molecules into smaller ones and release energy, lead to respiration. One of the main ways a cell releases chemical energy to power cellular activity is through respiration.

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PLEASE HURRY
How do cells conserve genetic information and still increase genetic variability?

Answers

because of recombination and independent assortment in meiosis each gamete contains a differnt set one dna

which description explains the type of energy conversion that occurs in the mitochondria through cellular respiration?

Answers

Utilizing the oxygen already present in the cell, mitochondria transform the chemical energy from food into energy that can be used by the host cell. It takes place inside mitochondria and is known as oxidative phosphorylation.

What about respiration?Respiration, a process of gas exchange, is the major purpose of the lungs.In the process of respiration, carbon dioxide, a waste product of metabolism, exits the blood and oxygen from the incoming air enters.When you breathe in and out, you may have lung pain on one or both sides of your casket.Technically, the soreness isn't exhaling from inside the lungs because they have so many pain receptors.Rather, the stuffing of the lungs, which does include pain receptors, might be the source of the discomfort.You lemon. You have a lung condition.You suffer from liver failure, cancer, diabetes, renal complaint, or cancer.Your vulnerable system has been compromised by specifics, a complaint, or organ transplant.Still, air pollution( both outside and within the home), or dust and gauze at work for an extended length of time, If you breathe in a cigarette bank.Eventually, if your airways become compromised, you might become more breathless.Damage to the lungs might occasionally have no honorable cause.

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during semiconservative replication, the dna sequence act results in which sequence on the new strand?

Answers

Option a is Correct. The DNA sequence ACT on one strand of the original DNA molecule would result in the sequence TGA on the new complementary strand during semi-conservative replication.

Describe DNA:

All living things include a molecule called DNA (deoxyribonucleic acid) that contains their genetic code. Long chains of nucleotides, the fundamental constituents of DNA, make up its structure. Deoxyribose, a phosphate group, and a nitrogenous base make up each nucleotide. In DNA, nitrogenous bases come in four different varieties: adenine (A), cytosine (C), guanine (G), and thymine (T).

The original DNA molecule is unraveled and split into two strands during semi-conservative replication by helicase enzymes. An enzyme known as DNA polymerase uses these strands as templates to create new complementary strands. According to the DNA base-pairing regulations, the new strands are created by adding nucleotides that are complementary to the nucleotides on the template strands: adenine (A) pairs with thymine (T), and cytosine (C) pairs with guanine (G). As a result, the corresponding sequence TGA on the new strand would result from the sequence ACT on one strand of the original DNA molecule.

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Correct Question:

During semiconservative replication, the dna sequence act results in which sequence on the new strand?

a. ACT

b. TCA

c. TGA

d. UGA

farmers need to make many decisions about how they grow their crops. one of these decisions is whether to use synthetic fertilizer or organic fertilizer, such as manure. t or f

Answers

Farmers need to make many decisions about how they grow their crops. one of these decisions is whether to use synthetic fertilizer or organic fertilizer, such as manure is true.

Organic fertilizers are readily available mineral sources that have a sufficient concentration of vital minerals for plants. They have the ability to reduce issues brought on by synthetic fertilizers. They reduce the requirement for recurrent synthetic fertilizer applications to maintain soil fertility. They maintain nutrient balance for the proper growth of agricultural plants and gradually release nutrients into the soil solution.

In comparison to chemical fertilizers, the organic fertilizers are safer. However, using organic fertilizers incorrectly might result in over fertilization or nutrient deficiencies in the soil. Therefore, the regulated release of organic fertilizers is a cutting-edge and efficient technique to mitigate these effects and keep the output of sustainable agriculture.

The usage of organic fertilizers offers the advantages of being affordable, enhancing soil texture, aeration, structure, and water retention while also promoting the growth of healthy roots. Minerals, animal sources, sewage sludge, and plants are just a few of the sources for organic fertilizer.

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Which size forest fragment would be most affected by habitat fragmentation over a given period of time?
A.1000 hectares.
B.1 hectare.
C.10 hectares.
D.100 hectares.

Answers

1 hectare size forest fragment would be most affected by habitat fragmentation over a given period of time.

Habitat fragmentation often modifications the microenvironment on the fragment facet, resulting in extended mild stages, higher sunlight hours temperatures, higher wind speeds, and lower humidity.

Each of those facet outcomes can have a big effect at the energy and composition of the species within the fragment.

Destruction and degradation of natural ecosystems are the number one reasons of declines in international biodiversity (1, 2). Habitat destruction commonly leads to fragmentation, the division of habitat into smaller and greater isolated fragments separated by way of a matrix of human-transformed land cover.

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streptomyces, mycobacterium, pseudomonas, bacillus, and clostridium are bacterial genera that may all be involved in what process that is important for plant growth and ecosystem health?

Answers

The bacterial genera streptomyces, mycobacterium, pseudomonas, bacillus, and clostridium are all involved in the process of nitrogen fixation that is important for plant growth and ecosystem health.

Nitrogen fixation is the process of converting the environmental nitrogen into usable forms by the plants. This is done by the legumes of the plants as well as the various nitrogen fixing microorganisms. biological fixation of nitrogen is the major process through which nitrogen is fixed.

Ecosystem is comprised of the abiotic and biotic factors of an area existing by being interdependent one each other. The abiotic factors are the rocks, soil, temperature, wind, sunlight, etc.

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what evolutionary advantage does compartmentalization of core metabolic processes offer eukaryotes? responses evolution of the mitochondria allowed eukaryotes to perform respiration. evolution of the mitochondria allowed eukaryotes to perform respiration. with the evolution of mitochondria in eukaryotes, the krebs cycle and electron transport chain also evolved. with the evolution of mitochondria in eukaryotes, the krebs cycle and electron transport chain also evolved. evolution of a nucleus in eukaryotes separates the processes of transcription and translation and they can be regulated separately. evolution of a nucleus in eukaryotes separates the processes of transcription and translation and they can be regulated separately. a nucleus in bacteria provides separation of respiration from transcription.

Answers

The eukaryotes I want to say

What does it mean to examine all sides of scientific evidence of a scientific explanation?

Answers

Scientific evidence can be used to support or refute a scientific theory or hypothesis; however, scientists can also utilize evidence in other contexts, such as when they apply theories to real-world issues.

What three components comprise a scientific explanation?

The assertion (or justification), the supporting data (or observations), and the justification (or the reasoning). explanation of the evidence's significance and the reasons it supports the assertion.

Claim + Evidence + Reasoning = Scientific Explanation

What should a scientific explanation include and in what order?

An explanation of a situation, action, or idea that uses a predetermined set of scientific facts, principles, and presumptions. The steps of the scientific process should be followed in this order: observations, queries, hypotheses, experiments, interpretation of the results, and drawing conclusions.

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the half-life of carbon 14 is 5,730 years. A bone originally contained 20 grams of carbon 14. How many grams of carbon 14 would be left after 3 half lives show your work

Answers

If the half-life of carbon is 5.730 years, a bone containing 20 grams of carbon 14 would be left with 2.5 grams after 3 half-lives.

What is half-life?

The half-life of a substance is the period of time it takes for half of the amount of the substance to decay.

The half-life of a decaying substance is given by the following mathematical expression:

N (t) = [tex]N_o(\frac{1}{2} )^\frac{t}{t_\frac{1}{2} }[/tex]

Where N(t) is the quantity remaining, [tex]N_o[/tex] is the initial quantity, t is the time that has elapsed, and [tex]t_\frac{1}{2}[/tex] is the half-life.

In this case, [tex]N_o[/tex] = 20, t = 3x5730 and [tex]t_\frac{1}{2}[/tex] = 5,730 years

[tex]t/t_\frac{1}{2}[/tex] = 3x5730/5730 = 3

Substituting:

N(3) = [tex]20(1/2)^3[/tex]

       = 2.5 grams

In other words, the amount of carbon 14 that would be left after 3 half-lives would be 2.5 grams.

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fsh in females circulates to the ____________ where it induces folliculogenesis.

Answers

FSH in females circulates to the ovaries where it induces folliculogenesis.

A glycoprotein hormone called FSH has two peptide components in it. The well-known function of FSH in the development of follicles is to promote the growth of a sizable pre-ovulatory follicle that, as a result of its maturation in response to FSH, is able to ovulate and develop a corpus luteum in response to the mid-cycle surge of LH. In ovarian stimulation for assisted reproductive technologies, FSH is frequently employed. In order to enhance the number of oocytes and prevent an early LH surge, ovarian stimulation methods combine the use of human menopausal gonadotrophin, urinary FSH, or recombinant FSH with GnRH agonists or antagonists. Recently, innovative stimulation regimens combining recombinant FSH, recombinant LH, and GnRH antagonists have been made possible by the availability of recombinant LH.

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true or false? there is a high risk that crops engineered to contain insecticides will harm nondestructive species important to biodiversity. true false

Answers

the correct answer would be false

the ________ is a highly conserved amino acid sequence found in immunoglobulin, tcr, and mhc proteins.

Answers

Immunoglobulin, tcr, and mhc proteins all contain the C domain, which has a conserved amino acid sequence.

What are some examples of amino acids?

The nine amino acids histidine, isoleucine, leucine, lysine, methionine, phenylalanine, threonine, tryptophan, and valine are thought to be essential. The non-essential amino acids are serine, alanine, aspartic acid, asparagine, and aspartic acid.

What time of day should I take my amino acids?

Protein eaten right before bed is efficiently digested and absorbed, enhancing the availability of amino acid residues while you sleep overnight. Greater amino acid availability while you sleep increases muscle protein synthesis rates and enhances the net protein equilibrium throughout your body during overnight recovery.

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sometimes errors occur during transcription or translation. examine the codon chart on the previous page. notice that each amino acid is coded for by several different codons. for example, alanine is coded for by gcu, gcc, gca, and gcg. how might this offset transcription or translation errors?

Answers

Errors in transcription or translation can be offset by the redundancy of the genetic code. The codon chart displayed on the previous page shows that each amino acid is coded for by multiple different codons. This redundancy helps to reduce the likelihood of errors in translation or transcription.

For example, Alanine can be coded for by four different codons: GCU, GCC, GCA and GCG. This means that if a mutation occurs in the coding strand of DNA, such as a single base substitution, the new codon may still code for Alanine. As a result, the amino acid sequence will not be changed and the protein product of the gene will remain the same. This is known as a silent mutation and it can offset errors in transcription or translation.

The redundancy of the genetic code also helps to reduce the chances of errors occurring during translation. This is because, if a codon is misread, the cell can still recognize the correct amino acid. For example, if a cell misreads the codon for Alanine (GCA) as GAA, the cell will still recognize the correct amino acid because GAA is the codon for Glutamic Acid. This means that the protein product of the gene will remain the same.

In conclusion, the redundancy of the genetic code helps to offset errors in transcription and translation by allowing single base substitutions to go unnoticed and allowing codons to be misread without changing the amino acid sequence of the protein product.

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what is the product of meiosis 2

A. Two diploid cells

B. Four diploid cells

C. Four haploid cells

D. Two haploid cells​

Answers

Answer: C. Four haploid cells

Explanation: The product is four haploid cells that each have one copy of  every chromosome.

THE CORRECT ANSWER IS C

Activity of integration Mot of the people in a certain village called Bileafe where much tobacco i grown bought vehicle after tobacco ale. However, no ooner than later many of the vehicle either broke down or they were parked at home ince fuel became expenive to afford. A a tudent of chemitry, develop a meage for the owner of the car in thi village explaining why the vehicle hould be kept well even if they are poilt, where they hould be kept, and what kind of change they will undergo if not properly kept. You can ue the reource to help you develop the meage. ​

Answers

A message for the owner of the car is park the vehicles in cool dry environment, so that vehicle parts can be prevent from rusting.

Rusting is the normal term for corrosion of iron and its composites, like steel. Different metals go through comparable consumption, yet the subsequent oxides are not regularly called rust. Given adequate time, oxygen, and water, any iron mass ultimately changes over altogether to rust and crumbles.

Rust is a general term for a progression of iron oxides, normally red oxides, shaped by the response of iron with oxygen within the sight of water or air dampness.

A few types of rust are recognizable outwardly and by spectroscopy, and structure under various circumstances. Rust comprises of hydrated iron(III) oxides Fe₂O₃·nH₂O, iron(III) oxide-hydroxide -Fe(OH)₃.

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what is upwelling A. when infertile species reproduce B. the productivity of an ecosystem C. the mixing of 2 biomes D. water moving up from the benthic zone.

Answers

Upwelling is the process of cold, nutrient-rich water moving up from the deep ocean to the surface. This can occur when wind blowing over the surface of the ocean pushes surface water away, causing the deeper, colder water to rise up to replace it. Upwelling is important because it brings nutrients from the deep ocean to the surface, where they can be used by phytoplankton and other primary producers to support the growth of other marine organisms. Upwelling is a major factor in the productivity of marine ecosystems and plays a key role in the global climate system.

The ________ is a highly conserved amino acid sequence found in immunoglobulin, tcr, and mhc proteins.

Answers

Answer: I have no idea

Explanation:

but good luck

How do the apical and lateral meristems produce primary and secondary growth in plants?

Answers

At the meristem, primary growth takes place (a meristem located at the tip of a stem). Due to the activity of the lateral meristems, primary growth results in an increase in the thickness or diameter of the plant body.

What is lateral meristem and its function?

Because they are in charge of secondary growth, or an increase in branch girth and thickness, lateral meristems are sometimes referred to as secondary meristems. In wounded tissues, meristems regenerate from other cells and are in charge of repairing wounds.

Where does the lateral meristem work?

The meristems found along the longitudinal axis area of plant roots and shoots are known as lateral meristems. The purpose of the lateral inflorescence is to enhance plant thickness. These are referred to as lateral meristems because cambium are found along the lateral surfaces of the stem and roots.

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What are the function of the Auxin hormone in plant's. Choose the correct answer
A ) ! ck jd pyk v zc !
B ) ! ck jd pyk v zc !

Answers

Auxin is a plant hormone that plays a crucial role in plant growth and development. Some of its main functions include:

Promoting cell division and elongation, which helps the plant grow taller and thicker

Regulating the development and growth of lateral buds, which helps the plant branch out and become more complex

Controlling the orientation of the plant's shoots and roots, which helps the plant absorb nutrients and anchor itself in the ground

Regulating the development of fruits and flowers, which helps the plant reproduce and spread its genetic material.

Overall, auxin plays a vital role in the plant's ability to grow, develop, and adapt to its environment.

Auxin is a plant hormone that plays a crucial role in plant growth and development. Some of its main functions include:

Promoting cell division and elongation, which helps the plant grow taller and thicker

Regulating the development and growth of lateral buds, which helps the plant branch out and become more complex

Controlling the orientation of the plant's shoots and roots, which helps the plant absorb nutrients and anchor itself in the ground

Regulating the development of fruits and flowers, which helps the plant reproduce and spread its genetic material.

Overall, auxin plays a vital role in the plant's ability to grow, develop, and adapt to its environment.

how would you determine the probability of getting an f2 offspring that is homozygous recessive for both traits?

Answers

With the help of Punnett square, we can determine that there is a 25% probability of getting an f2 offspring that is homozygous recessive for both traits.

To determine the probabilities, we can utilize a Punnett square table or just do some simple scenario planning. Each parent has a genotype of Ff, where each allele has an equal chance of being passed on to a child. Therefore, there is a 50% chance that a parent will contribute the dominant allele F1 and a 50% chance that a parent will contribute the recessive allele f2. Here is a list of the possibilities:

There is a 50% x 50% = 25% probability that both of the offspring's alleles are dominant.

There is a 50% x 50% = 25% probability that both of the offspring's alleles are recessive and homozygous.

There is a 50% x 50% + 50% x 50% = 25% + 25% = 50% probability that the offspring is heterozygous.

Therefore, for parents who share the genotype F1F2, there is a 25% chance that their offspring will be F1F1, a 25% chance that they will be F2F2, and a 50% chance that they will be F1F2. These probabilities are significant because of what comes afterward.

The complete question is:

When Mendel set up a Parental (P) cross between true-breeding purple and white flowered plants to generate the F1 and then allowed the F1 to self-pollinate to generate the F2 he saw a dominant-to-recessive ratio of 3:1, how would you determine the probability of getting an f2 offspring that is homozygous recessive for both traits?

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if an animal is in respiratory distress, many times the veterinarian will request they be positioned lying on their belly for chest films. what position is this called?

Answers

"The veterinarian will frequently suggest that an animal be placed laying on its tummy for chest films if it is experiencing respiratory distress. This posture is referred to as dorsoventral.

The term "radiographic positioning" refers to the placement of the body, or more specifically, to the region of the body that is closest to the focal plane. The primary imaging technique used to assess thoracic trauma, particularly rib fractures and related sequelae, is computed tomography (CT). Studies have demonstrated that even in individuals with first radiographs that are normal, CT can reveal serious illnesses (such as thoracic aortic damage) (3)."The veterinarian will frequently suggest that an animal be placed laying on its tummy for chest films if it is experiencing respiratory distress. This posture is referred to as dorsoventral. LIVER. Between both the diaphragm and the stomach, on the cranial side of the abdomen, is where the liver is situated. The majority of the apparent liver mass is to the right of midline.

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Select the post-translational modifications of histones that are most commonly associated with changes in transcription levels in eukaryotes.

a. acetylation and lipidation
b. methylation and acetylation
c. glycosylation and ubiquitination
d. methylation and carboxylation

Answers

Correct option  C - methylation as well as acetylation

A DNA molecule is acetylated when an acetyl group is added, and a DNA molecule is methylated when a methyl group is added.

It is generally known that both histone deacetylation and DNA methylation inhibit gene transcription. In contrast, when histones are deacetylated by HDAC, their electrostatic contacts with DNA become stronger, resulting in relaxed chromatin that upregulates transcription.

Histone acetylation and DNA methylation are examples of epigenetic changes. However, histone acetylation is a chemical covalent modification that occurs in proteins as a post-translational modification of histone proteins, whereas DNA methylation occurs at the DNA level.

Histone modification, which includes methylation, phosphorylation, acetylation, ubiquitylation, and sumoylation, is a covalent post-translational modification of histone proteins. These changes to chromatin structure can regulate gene expression.

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A recipe for 4 people uses 250 g of flour. How much flour is needed tomake the same recipe for 8 people? Give your answer in grams (g). when clients don't receive entitled benefits due to rigid, even illogical rules, it is most likely because of The intruction on a box of chicken pattie tate that one patty hould be cooked for 3. 5 minute in the microwave. If more than one patty i cooked, an additional 1 minute hould be added per patty. Write an equation in lope-intercept form to model the cooking time in minute, y, for x additional pattie ken places a $20 value on a cigar, and mark places a $17 value on it. the equilibrium price for this brand of cigar is $15. refer to scenario 12-1. how much total consumer surplus do ken and mark get when each purchases one cigar? the carrying value of bonds issued at a discount or at a premium will be different from their face amount at maturity. t or f A basketball manufacturer selects a random sample of its basketballs each week to ensure a consistent air pressure within them is maintained. In Week 1, the sample had a mean air pressure of 8.2 psi (pounds per square inch) and a margin of error of 0.1 psi. In Week 2, the sample had a mean air pressure of 7.7 psi and a margin of error of 0.3 psi. Based on these results, which of the following is a reasonable conclusion? A) Most of the basketballs produced in Week 1 had an air pressure under 8.2 psl, whereas most of the basketballs produced in Week 2 had an air pressure under 7.7 psi. B) The mean air pressure of all the basketballs produced in Week I was 0.5 psi more than the mean air pressure of all the basketballs produced in Week 2 C) The number of basketballs in the Week 1 sample was more than the number of basketballs in the Week 2 sample. D) It is very likely that the mean air pressure of all the basketballs produced in Week 1 was less than the mean air pressure of all the basketballs produced in Week 2. please Guys help me ASAP 06.01 An Interesting Point of View Q.1 Read the following excerpt from The Princess and the Goblin by George Macdonald. Then, answer the question that follows.Perhaps you will wonder how the princess could tell that the old lady was an old lady, when I inform you that not only was she beautiful, but her skin was smooth and white. Her hair was combed back from her forehead and face, and hung loose far down and all over her back. That is not much like an old ladyis it? Ah! but it was white almost as snow. And although her face was so smooth, her eyes looked so wise that you could not have helped seeing she must be old. The princess, though she could not have told you why, did think her very old indeedquite fifty, she said to herself.Which narrative technique is most evident in this passage?A. Dialogue B. FlashbackC. ForeshadowingD. Sensory details Q.2 Read the narrative text. Then, answer the question that follows.As I walked along the beach with my mom, I knew I had to tell her the truth. She may never forgive me for my dishonesty, but she deserves to know what happened. If I ever expect to recover her trust, I need to start now by taking responsibility for what I did.From which point of view is this excerpt written?A. First personB. Second personC. Third person limitedD. Third person omniscient Q.3 Which of the following is true about third-person limited point of view?A. It uses the pronoun I, and one character tells the story.B. It uses the pronoun you and makes the reader feel like part of the story.C. The narrator is not part of the story and only reveals one character's actions and speech.D. The narrator is not part of the story and reveals what every character is thinking and feeling.Q.4 Read the narrative text. Then, answer the question that follows.As the teen walked along the beach with his mother, he knew he had to tell her the entire truth. He figured she may never forgive him for his deception, but that she still deserved to know. As she considered this, his mother walked beside him without saying a word. She was well aware of her son's actions and had been waiting for him to act responsibly by admitting it. She kept watching him out of the corner of her eye, allowing herself a small smile and enjoying his obvious discomfort.From which point of view is this excerpt written?A.First personB. Second personC. Third person limitedD. Third person omniscientQ.5 Which of the following is true about a story's narrator? A.The narrator controls what information the reader receives about the plot, characters, setting, and conflict.B. The narrator is always the author and can tell you what all of the characters are thinking or feeling at any time.C. The narrator is always one of the characters in the story who knows everything about what the others are thinking and feeling.D. The narrator reveals only the information the protagonist is aware of, and the story is limited by those experiences.Q.6 hich of the following narrative techniques does not affect the pacing of a narrative? A.DialogueB. FlashbackC. JuxtapositionD. Sentence lengthQ.7 Read the following excerpt from The Princess and the Goblin by George Macdonald. Then, answer the question that follows.Dark as it was, there was little danger now of choosing the wrong road. Andwhich was most strangethe light that filled her eyes from the lamp, instead of blinding them for a moment to the object upon which they next fell, enabled her for a moment to see it, despite the darkness. By looking at the lamp and then dropping her eyes, she could see the road for a yard or two in front of her, and this saved her from several falls, for the road was very rough. But all at once, to her dismay, it vanished, and the terror of the beast, which had left her the moment she began to return, again laid hold of her heart. The same instant, however, she caught the light of the windows, and knew exactly where she was. It was too dark to run, but she made what haste she could, and reached the gate in safety.In this passage, the contrasting use of light and dark is an example ofA. dialogueB. flashbackC. juxtapositionD. stream of consciousnessQ.8 Which of the following sentences signifies a flashback?A. As he entered the school for the first time, one thing stood out: the stark difference between the "popular" kids and everyone else.B. I thought about it too much, almost to the point where it consumed me: the idea was a hamster on a wheel spinning in my brain.C. She was looking forward to the dance; she'd designed and sewn her own dress to wear.D. The unexpected boom of thunder threw my memory into reverse, and the day I lost everything came back to me in full focus.Thank you when making your turn you should accelerate at the apex of the turn. group of answer choices true false the usher at a wedding asked each of the 808080 guests whether they were a friend of the bride or of the groom. here are the results Marsha deposited $10,000 into a savings account five years ago. The simple interest rate is 4%. How much money did Marsha earn interest In 1959, 12 years after the Brooklyn Dodgers hired an African-American player, Jackie Robinson, the Boston Red Sox were the last major league baseball team to integrate when they brought up an African-American second baseman, Pumpsie Green. After hiring Jackie Robinson, the Dodgers won the National League pennant for seven of the next 13 years; the Red Sox won the American League pennant in 1946 but did not win again for 21 years. How did ending discrimination help the Dodgers? What was the effect of Jackie Robinson on the Red Sox? Who had gained and who had lost when the Sox discriminated against African-American players? Coordination of healthcare services is complicated by which of the following? (Select all that apply.)A. Involving one or more servicesToo many community resourcesB. Poorly funded social programsC. Authority for managing servicesD. Too many nursesE. Lack of healthcare systems Which of the following iterative methods is equivalent to this recursive method? int foo(int n) if (n < 1) return; return n foo(n-1); int foo(int n) { int x = n; while (n > 0) return x; int foo(int n) int xi if (n < 1) return; while ( ne) Xn; return ; none of these int foo(int n) while ( n o ) return x; which of the following scenarios is most likely to result in impairment of the kinesthetic sense? responses severing of the corpus callosum severing of the corpus callosum destruction of part of the hypothalamus destruction of part of the hypothalamus removal of a portion of the olfactory bulb removal of a portion of the olfactory bulb damage to the cerebellum damage to the cerebellum a tumor in the somatosensory cortex Determine whether the following phrases describe type I topoisomerases, type II topoisomerases, or both type I and type II topoisomerases. Type I Topoisomerases Type II topoisomerases Bothcleave one strand of DNA cleave both DNA strands couples energy from ATP hydrolysis to the introduction of negative supercoils change the linking number (Lk)by a multiple of 2 change the linking number (Lk)by 1 or a multiple of 1 regulate DNA supercoiling work by jerome kagan revealed that infants who reacted to a novel mobile with increased motor activity and negative affect were more likely to have which behavioral profile later in life? according to the moral and intellectual development branch of cognitive theory, what is wrong with criminals? What would happen if the move with buttons block was not included in theprogram shown?on startset mySprite. to spritemove mySprite with buttonsof kind Playerset banana to sprite C of kind Foodon sprite of kind Player overlaps otherSprite of kind Foodset banana position to x pick random 8 to 168 y pick random 10 to 120OA. There would be only one sprite instead of two.B. The player would be unable to enter an input.OC. The first sprite would be a still object, not a variable.D. The variables' movement would be entirely random. 10. jackson has 4 more cds than amal. they have a total of 18 cds. how many cds does amal have? how many cds does jackson have? As a network administrator, you have asked one of the contracted vendors of the company to ship a consignment of spare parts and components of all the network devices. You have decided to place this order to store the devices for a rainy day. Now, as the consignment has been received by your organization, you want to store these devices in a secure location. Which of the following will you use in this scenario?1. Access control vestibule2, Biometrics3. Cipher lock4. Locking cabinets