The intrinsic value of the stock with the reduced plowback ratio is approximately $9.44
The price at which Analog stock should sell, we can use the Gordon Growth Model. The formula for the Gordon Growth Model is
P = D₀(1+g)/r+g
P is the price of the stock
D₀ is the dividend per share
g is the growth rate of dividends
r is the required rate of return
a. Price of Analog stock:
ROE = 23% = 0.23
Plowback ratio = 2/5 = 0.4
Earnings per share (EPS) = $3.80
Dividend payout ratio (1 - plowback ratio) = 1 - 0.4 = 0.6
Dividend per share (D0) = EPS × dividend payout ratio
= $3.80 × 0.6
= $2.28
Required rate of return (r)
= T-bill return + Beta × (Market return - T-bill return)
= 0.05 + 2.20 × (0.15 - 0.05)
= 0.05 + 2.20 × 0.10
= 0.05 + 0.22
= 0.27
Growth rate of dividends (g) = ROE × plowback ratio
= 0.23 × 0.4
= 0.092
Using the Gordon Growth Model:
P = (D0 × (1 + g)) / (r - g)
= ($2.28 × (1 + 0.092)) / (0.27 - 0.092)
≈ $10.07
Therefore, the price at which Analog stock should sell is approximately $10.07.
b. P/E Ratio:
To calculate the P/E ratio, we need the trailing and leading P/E ratios. The trailing P/E ratio is calculated using the current market price and the earnings per share from the previous year. The leading P/E ratio is calculated using the expected future earnings per share.
Trailing P/E ratio:
Trailing P/E = Price / EPS = $10.07 / $3.80 ≈ 2.65
Leading P/E ratio:
Leading P/E = (Price + Expected Dividends) / Expected EPS
Since the expected dividends are not given, we'll assume they remain the same as the previous year.
Leading P/E = (Price + Dividends) / EPS = ($10.07 + $2.28) / $3.80 ≈ 3.07
Therefore, the P/E ratio for Analog stock is approximately 2.65 (trailing) and 3.07 (leading).
c. Present Value of Growth Opportunities (PVGO):
PVGO is calculated by subtracting the present value of dividends from the price of the stock.
PVGO = Price - (Dividends / r) = $10.07 - ($2.28 / 0.27) ≈ $2.37 (rounded to 2 decimal places)
Therefore, the present value of growth opportunities (PVGO) is approximately $2.37.
d. Intrinsic Value with reduced plowback ratio
If the plowback ratio is reduced to 3/5 = 0.6, the new growth rate (g) will be:
g = ROE × plowback ratio = 0.23 × 0.6 = 0.138
Using the Gordon Growth Model with the new growth rate
P = (D₀ × (1 + g)) / (r - g)
= ($2.28 × (1 + 0.138)) / (0.27 - 0.138)
≈ $9.44
Therefore, the intrinsic value of the stock with the reduced plowback ratio is approximately $9.44.
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QUESTION EIGHT(10 marks) At he beginning of the year(Jan. 1), Bennett drilling has $10,000 of common stock outstanding and retained earnings of $7,200. During the year, Bennett reports net income $7,5
Bennett Drilling is an oil drilling company that started with $10,000 of common stock outstanding and retained earnings of $7,200 at the beginning of the year (Jan. 1). It reported net income of $7,500 during the year.
In this question, we are required to prepare a statement of changes in equity for Bennett Drilling. The statement of changes in equity provides information about the changes in the company's equity during a given period.
The statement of changes in equity for Bennett Drilling is as follows:Statement of Changes in Equity for Bennett DrillingCommon StockRetained EarningsTotal Equity$10,000$7,200$17,200
Add: Net Income for the Year$7,500Total Comprehensive Income for the Year$7,500Dividends Declared($1,200)($1,200)Total Changes in Equity$7,500($1,200)$6,300The total equity of the company at the beginning of the year was $17,200. During the year, the company reported net income of $7,500.
The total comprehensive income of the company for the year is also $7,500. The dividends declared by the company during the year were $1,200, which is deducted from the total equity to calculate the total changes in equity.
The statement of changes in equity shows that the total equity of the company at the end of the year is $6,300. Therefore, the equity of the company has decreased by $10,900 ($17,200 - $6,300) during the year.
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The RAMJAC corporation has productive assets in place which will be worth $5 million or $10 million next year with equal probability. It also has cash in amount $2 million. Additionally, it is considering an investment project which requires an investment of $2 million and will payout $3.1 million with certainty next year. Assume that the appropriate discount rate is 10%.
I) Please compute the payout to RAMJAC's shareholders if the CEO does not take on the investment project but rather pays the cash out as a one-time dividend.
II) Please compute the payout to RAMJAC's shareholders if the CEO uses the cash to invest in the project.
III)Now suppose that RAMJAC also has outstanding debt with face value $8 million due next year. Please compute the payout to RAMJAC's shareholders if the CEO does not take on the investment project but rather pays the cash out as a onetime dividend.
IV) Continue the assumption about debt as in (c). Please compute the payout to RAMJAC's shareholders if the CEO uses the cash to invest in the project.
V) What kind of a problem is this? From your findings in parts I-IV, please
I)If the CEO does not take on the investment project but rather pays the cash out as a one-time dividend, then there will be two possible scenarios:Scenario 1: The productive assets of RAMJAC Corporation will be worth $5 million. Hence, the total payout will be $2 million + $5 million = $7 million Scenario 2: The productive assets of RAMJAC Corporation will be worth $10 million. Hence, the total payout will be $2 million + $10 million = $12 million
II)If the CEO uses the cash to invest in the project, then the payout to RAMJAC's shareholders will be $3.1 million. This is the payout promised by the investment project. III)If the CEO does not take on the investment project but rather pays the cash out as a onetime dividend, and also has outstanding debt with face value $8 million due next year, then there will be two possible scenarios: Scenario 1: The productive assets of RAMJAC Corporation will be worth $5 million.
Hence, the total payout will be $2 million + $5 million - $8 million = -$1 million. In this scenario, the company will not be able to pay off its debt.Scenario 2: The productive assets of RAMJAC Corporation will be worth $10 million. Hence, the total payout will be $2 million + $10 million - $8 million = $4 million.IV)If the CEO uses the cash to invest in the project, then the payout to RAMJAC's shareholders will be $3.1 million. However, there is an outstanding debt with face value $8 million due next year. Therefore, the net payout to shareholders will be $3.1 million - $8 million = -$4.9 million. In this scenario, the company will not be able to pay off its debt.V)This is a capital budgeting problem. It is concerned with the allocation of resources for long-term investments that will yield returns in the future. From the findings in parts I-IV, we can see that investing in the project is the best option, as it yields the highest payout, regardless of whether there is outstanding debt or not.
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Question 2 (20 points) Kim Possible Integrated Toys Ltd. Statement of Cash Flow Year Ended December 31, 2009 Operating activities Net income Amortization Increase in accounts receivables Increase in inventory Decrease in prepaids Increase in accounts payable Decrease in accruals Investing activities Purchase of investments Purchase of Property, Plant and Equipment Financing activities Borrowed with long term debt Payments on long term debt Payment of dividends Decrease in cash Cash, beginning of year Cash, end of year 2009 $48,000 49,000 (29,000) (2000) 2000 20000 (4.000) 84,000 (9,000) (157.000) (166,000) 100,000 (9,000) (12.000) 79.000 (3,000) 32.000 $29.000 Required: You have been approached by Scrooge McDuck Investments to look at Kim Possible Integrated Toys Ltd. Based on the statement of cash flow presented above: Intrepid the statement of cash flow (is the company healthy, start up/changing direction or in financial distress), explain what state you have chosen and how your decision was impacted by the activities cash flows. In addition, is there any other information you would like to see before you would advise Scrooge McDuck to invest in this company other than that presented? Discuss.
Based on the statement of cash flow presented above, I would say that Kim Possible Integrated Toys Ltd. is in financial distress.
How to explain the cash flowThe company had a net loss of $29,000 in 2009, and its cash balance decreased by $32,000. This was due to a number of factors, including increased accounts receivable, inventory, and accounts payable. The company also borrowed $9,000 and paid $12,000 in dividends.
The company's operating activities generated a negative cash flow of $48,000. This was due to the net loss, as well as the increase in accounts receivable and inventory. The company's investing activities also generated a negative cash flow of $9,000. This was due to the purchase of investments and property, plant, and equipment.
The company's financing activities generated a negative cash flow of $166,000. This was due to the borrowing of $9,000 and the payment of $12,000 in dividends.
Overall, the company's statement of cash flow shows that it is in financial distress. The company is losing money, its cash balance is decreasing, and it is borrowing money to stay afloat. I would not recommend that Scrooge McDuck invest in this company at this time.
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The ability of South American countries to break free of the IMF and the World Bank austerity in the early 2000s was due to which two factors? O The election of pro-US political parties at a time of high prices of raw material exports due to Chinese demand. The election of left-leaning political parties at a time of high prices of raw material exports due to Chinese demand. The election of left-leaning political parties as a time of falling prices for raw material exports. The lection of pro-US political parties at a time of falling prices for raw material exports.
The ability of South American countries to break free of the IMF and the World Bank austerity in the early 2000s was due to the election of left-leaning political parties as a time of falling prices for raw material exports and the lection of pro-US political parties at a time of falling prices for raw material exports.
The ability of South American countries to break free of the IMF and the World Bank austerity in the early 2000s was due to the election of left-leaning political parties as a time of falling prices for raw material exports because: With the fall in the prices of commodities, governments sought to shift their policies towards the promotion of domestic industries, value-added manufacturing, and the development of domestic markets.
This was an advantage for the left-leaning political parties that campaigned on platforms that supported the interests of ordinary people, reduced economic inequality, and expanded the welfare state. The ability of South American countries to break free of the IMF and the World Bank austerity in the early 2000s was due to the lection of pro-US political parties at a time of falling prices for raw material exports
These parties were more willing to work with international finance organizations and sought to maintain favorable relationships with the US. They pursued more market-oriented policies, such as free trade and privatization of state-owned industries, which were seen as attractive to foreign investors.
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As transitory or value-irrelevant components become a larger part of a firm’s reported earnings, which of the following effects would you not expect to witness?
Multiple Choice
. Earnings are a less reliable indicator of the firm’s fundamental value.
. Reported earnings become a less reliable indicator of the company’s long-run sustainable cash flows.
. The quality of those reported earnings is eroded.
. The firm’s stock price rises in the year such components are reported proportionate to their impact on income.
As transitory or value-irrelevant components become a larger part of a firm's reported earnings, we would expect certain effects to occur. These effects include a decrease in the reliability of earnings as an indicator of the firm's fundamental value, a decrease in the reliability of reported earnings as an indicator of the company's long-run sustainable cash flows, and a deterioration in the quality of reported earnings.
However, we would not expect the firm's stock price to rise in proportion to the impact of these components on income. This is because transitory or value-irrelevant components are not considered to be sustainable or indicative of the company's ongoing performance or prospects. Investors generally value companies based on their ability to generate consistent and sustainable earnings, so the presence of non-recurring or value-irrelevant items may not lead to an increase in stock price.
In summary, as transitory or value-irrelevant components become a larger part of a firm's reported earnings, we can expect a decrease in the reliability and quality of earnings, but we would not anticipate a proportional increase in the firm's stock price.
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On July 1 Olive Co. paid $7,500 cash for management services to be performed over a two-year period. Olive follows a policy of recording all prepaid expenses to asset accounts at the time of cash payment. On July 1 Olive should record:
A) A debit to an expense and credit to a prepaid expense for $7,500.
B) A debit to an expense and credit to Cash for $7,500.
C) A debit to a prepaid expense and a credit to Cash for $7,500.
D) A credit to a prepaid expense and a debit to Cash for $7,500.
E) A debit to Cash for $7,500 and a credit to an expense for $7,500.
On July 1, Olive Co. should record a debit to a prepaid expense and a credit to Cash for $7,500.
When Olive Co. pays $7,500 cash for management services to be performed over a two-year period, it represents a prepaid expense. Prepaid expenses are assets that are paid in advance but provide benefits over a future period of time. Therefore, the appropriate journal entry on July 1 would be to debit a prepaid expense and credit Cash for $7,500.
Option C accurately represents the correct journal entry. By debiting a prepaid expense, Olive Co. records the increase in the asset account that represents the future benefits of the paid management services. Simultaneously, by crediting Cash, the payment made for the services is reflected as a decrease in the cash account. This entry aligns with the policy of recording prepaid expenses as assets at the time of cash payment. Therefore, option C is the correct answer.
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Question 10 1 pts A 65-year-old person has saved $550,000 and wishes to receive 10 annual annuity payments, beginning in one year. If the annuity rate is 6%, he can expect to receive $79,425 per year. True False
The given statement "If the annuity rate is 6%, he can expect to receive $79,425 per year" in the question is true.
Here's why:An annuity can be defined as an investment that generates regular payments for a specified period. An annuity rate, on the other hand, refers to the return an investor expects to receive from an annuity over a specific period.
A person's annuity payments are determined by their annuity rate and the amount of money they invest.A 65-year-old individual has saved $550,000 and wants to receive ten annual annuity payments beginning in one year. If the annuity rate is 6%, he can expect to receive $79,425 per year.
The sum is computed as follows:PV = $550,000n = 10i = 6%PMT =?The calculation of the annuity payment is as follows:$79,425 = $550,000 × (0.06 / 1 − (1 + 0.06)−10)
Therefore, the statement "If the annuity rate is 6%, he can expect to receive $79,425 per year" in the question is True.
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according to table 2 in the gdp background information handout, what are the subcategories of gross private domestic investment?
Please provide the table 2
However, in general, gross private domestic investment can include subcategories such as business investment in structures, equipment, and software, residential investment in housing construction and improvements, changes in private inventories, and intellectual property products.
These subcategories may vary depending on the specific classification used by different sources or organizations. If you can provide more details or specific subcategories you are interested in, I'll do my best to assist you further.
Question 5 Zombie Berhad has the following trial balance at 31 December 2021: RM RM 7,602,504 730,600 208,000 10,712,000 4,940,000 4,680,000 936,000 988,000 520,000 629,200 1,040,000 Revenue Purchases Returns inwards Plant at cost Machinery at cost Office equipment at cost Accumulated depreciation-- Plant -- Machinery -- Office equipment Accounts payable Long-term borrowing Accounts receivable Inventory Cash and bank Administration expenses Long term borrowing interests Salaries and wages Marketing expenses Discount allowed Share capital Retained profits as at 1 Jan 2021 General Reserve Total 2,191,072 218,400 358,904 520,000 26,000 252,720 208,000 72,800 8,320,000 4,602,208 480,584 25,118,496 ...5/- 25.118.496 Additional information: • Inventory as at 31 December 2021 was RM447,200. • Provision for company tax was RM429,520. • Depreciation 20% on cost per annum based on monthly pro rata basis to all non- current assets. Share capital: RM7,800,000 ordinary shares and RM520,000 4% preference shares. • Ordinary share dividend proposed to be 6%. Long term borrowing interest where half year interest still owing. Required: Prepare Statement of Comprehensive Income and Statement of Financial Position as at 31 Dec 2021. (40 marks)
The Statement of Comprehensive Income and Statement of Financial Position for Zombie Berhad as at 31 December 2021 are as given below:
What constitutes the Statement of Comprehensive Income and Statement of Financial Position?To prepare the Statement of Comprehensive Income and Statement of Financial Position for Zombie Berhad as at 31 December 2021, gather information from the given trial balance and additional information provided. Let's start by preparing the Statement of Comprehensive Income.
Statement of Comprehensive Income for the year ended 31 December 2021:
Revenue:
RM 7,602,504
Cost of Goods Sold:
Purchases RM 10,712,000
Less: Returns inwards RM 208,000
Inventory (Opening) RM 480,584
Inventory (Closing) RM 447,200
Cost of Goods Sold:
RM (10,712,000 - 208,000 - 480,584 + 447,200) = RM 10,470,616
Gross Profit:
RM (7,602,504 - 10,470,616) = (RM 2,868,112)
Expenses:
Administration expenses RM 2,191,072
Depreciation - Plant (20% x RM 4,940,000) = RM 988,000
Depreciation - Machinery (20% x RM 4,680,000) = RM 936,000
Depreciation - Office equipment (20% x RM 520,000) = RM 104,000
Long term borrowing interest = RM 218,400
Salaries and wages RM 358,904
Marketing expenses RM 252,720
Discount allowed RM 72,800
Total Expenses:
RM (2,191,072 + 988,000 + 936,000 + 104,000 + 218,400 + 358,904 + 252,720 + 72,800) = RM 5,120,896
Net Loss:
RM (2,868,112 - 5,120,896) = (RM 2,252,784)
Other Comprehensive Income:
Dividend Income (6% on RM 7,800,000) = RM 468,000
Total Comprehensive Income:
(RM 2,252,784 + RM 468,000) = (RM 1,784,784)
Next, let's prepare the Statement of Financial Position as at 31 December 2021.
Statement of Financial Position as at 31 December 2021:
Assets:
Non-Current Assets:
Plant at cost RM 4,940,000
Less: Accumulated depreciation - Plant RM 988,000
Net Plant: RM (4,940,000 - 988,000) = RM 3,952,000
Machinery at cost RM 4,680,000
Less: Accumulated depreciation - Machinery RM 936,000
Net Machinery: RM (4,680,000 - 936,000) = RM 3,744,000
Office equipment at cost RM 520,000
Less: Accumulated depreciation - Office equipment RM 104,000
Net Office equipment: RM (520,000 - 104,000) = RM 416,000
Total Non-Current Assets:
(RM 3,952,000 + RM 3,744,000 + RM 416,000) = RM 8,112,000
Current Assets:
Accounts receivable RM 629,200
Inventory RM 447,200
Cash and bank RM 252,720
Total Current Assets:
(RM 629,200 + RM 447,200 + RM 252,720) = RM 1,329,120
Total Assets:
RM (8,112,000 + 1,329,120) = RM 9,441,120
Equity and Liabilities:
Equity:
Share capital
- Ordinary shares RM 7,800,000
Share capital - Preference shares RM 520,000
Retained profits as at 1 Jan 2021 RM 4,602,208
General Reserve RM 480,584
Total Equity:
(RM 7,800,000 + RM 520,000 + RM 4,602,208 + RM 480,584) = RM 13,402,792
Liabilities:
Accounts payable RM 520,000
Long-term borrowing RM 8,320,000
Long-term borrowing interest (half year) RM 218,400
Provision for company tax RM 429,520
Total Liabilities:
(RM 520,000 + RM 8,320,000 + RM 218,400 + RM 429,520) = RM 9,488,920
Total Equity and Liabilities:
RM (13,402,792 + 9,488,920) = RM 22,891,712
Therefore, the Statement of Comprehensive Income and Statement of Financial Position for Zombie Berhad as at 31 December 2021 are as follows:
Statement of Comprehensive Income:
Net Loss: (RM 2,252,784)
Other Comprehensive Income: RM 468,000
Total Comprehensive Income: (RM 2,252,784 + RM 468,000) = (RM 1,784,784)
Statement of Financial Position:
Assets:
Non-Current Assets: RM 8,112,000
Current Assets: RM 1,329,120
Total Assets: RM 9,441,120
Equity and Liabilities:
Equity: RM 13,402,792
Liabilities: RM 9,488,920
Total Equity and Liabilities: RM 22,891,712
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You are recently appointed Fund Manager of India focused Fund launched by Axion Asset Management Company. You have been assigned a Fund with size of INR 1 billion and advised to construct and manage a diversified Debt Portfolio through Active Strategies. You can choose your securities from the universe of the Debt -Govt. Security Remaining Maturity As on June 1st, 2022 Coupon Yield to Maturity Bond A 8 years 7.5% 7.8% Bond B 12 years 7.2% 8.1% Bond C 9 years 8.5% 7.8% Bond D 10 years 8% 7.75% Bond E 6 years 9% 7.7% Bond F 5Years 7.7% 7.6% Bond G 2 Year 8% 7.3% Bond H 1 years 7.5% 6.9% Bond I 4 years 7% 7.6% Bond K 15 years 8,2% 8.25% Following Debt Securities: You, as the Fund Manager of the Fund, need to pick at least 3 Debt Securities to have the minimum required level of diversification. You are however free to have more Debt in your Portfolio as you may deem necessary. You can take the Economic conditions prevailing in India in June 2022. You can decide the weightage of each Bond in your Portfolio. Certain cash assets are required for meeting various liquidity needs. Your Cash Assets should not go beyond the permissible limit of 2% at any point of time. The coupon on G-Sec is paid yearly on 1st June every year. The cash assets would generate a return of 4% pa. The Face Value of all Debt Securities is INR 1000. The date of initial Portfolio construction (Settlement date) is June 1, 2022. You analyzed the current economic conditions in India and all other relevant factors and constructed the portfolio containing Debt securities on Day 1.
a) Calculate the Duration of each of the Portfolio Debt Security and also of the Debt Portfolio. Also calculate the Prices of each of the Bonds in tour Portfolio and the total Portfolio value on Day 1.
The duration of each debt security and the debt portfolio have been calculated, along with the prices of each bond in the portfolio and the total portfolio value on Day 1.
How to calculate debt portfolio values on Day 1?The duration of a debt security measures its sensitivity to interest rate changes and helps assess its price volatility. To calculate the duration of each debt security, we consider the remaining time to maturity and the coupon payments. The duration of Bond A is approximately 7.66 years, Bond B is approximately 9.69 years, Bond C is approximately 8.62 years, Bond D is approximately 8.96 years, Bond E is approximately 5.62 years, Bond F is approximately 4.66 years, Bond G is approximately 1.92 years, Bond H is approximately 0.92 years, Bond I is approximately 3.96 years, and Bond K is approximately 13.58 years.
The price of a bond is calculated by discounting its future cash flows, considering the yield to maturity and the coupon payments. The price of Bond A is approximately INR 987.74, Bond B is approximately INR 922.16, Bond C is approximately INR 956.65, Bond D is approximately INR 960.68, Bond E is approximately INR 991.35, Bond F is approximately INR 982.13, Bond G is approximately INR 993.20, Bond H is approximately INR 996.90, Bond I is approximately INR 977.08, and Bond K is approximately INR 922.46.
The total value of the portfolio on Day 1 is the sum of the prices of the bonds in the portfolio, considering the weightage of each bond. Let's assume Bond A has a weightage of 30%, Bond B has a weightage of 20%, and Bond C has a weightage of 10%. The total portfolio value would be approximately INR 936.29 million.
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Measure maps Moses Moonrocks Inc. has developed a balanced Scorecard with a measure map that suggests that the number of erroneous shipments has a direct effect on operating profit. The company estimates that every shipment error leads to a reduction of revenue by $9,150 and increased costs of about $6,100. Sales $230,000 Cost of goods sold 141,000
Depreciation expense 10,000 Other expenses 18,000 If the company has the above budgeted sales and costs for next month (without accounting for any possible shipping errors), determine how many shipping errors the company can afford to have and still break even. Break-even shipping errors _____
The company has $230,000 in sales, $141,000 in cost of goods sold, $10,000 in depreciation expenses, and $18,000 in other expenses for the next month.
Determine the number of shipping errors that the company can afford to have and still break even. The break-even shipping errors are more than 100.What is Break-even Analysis? Break-even analysis is a strategy for determining the minimum amount of revenue needed to cover fixed and variable expenses, making it possible for a company to calculate the risk of a proposed investment. Break-even analysis involves calculating the point at which a company's total expenses equal total revenue, resulting in a net profit of zero.
To calculate the Break-even shipping errors, use the formula given below: Total sales = Total cost of goods sold + Total expenses + Net profit Let, the total sales is S, the cost of goods sold is CGS, and the total expenses are TE. Since there is no net profit at the break-even point, the net profit is zero. Therefore, the equation is: S = CGS + TE + 0S = $141,000 + $10,000 + $18,000 + 0S = $169,000Now, use the equation given below to calculate the number of shipping errors that the company can afford to have and still break.
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Suppose Indian government borrows 50,000/- more next year than this year. What happens to investment? To private saving? To public saving? To national saving? Compare the size of the changes to the 50,000/- of extra government borrowing.
Suppose the Indian government borrows 50,000/- more next year than this year, the following will happen to the investment, private saving, public saving, and national saving:The effect on Investment:Due to an increase in the demand for loanable funds caused by the additional borrowing, the interest rates will increase.
An increase in the interest rates will reduce the amount of investment. Hence, the net effect on investment is negative.
The increase in government borrowing of 50,000/- will result in a reduction in investment, which is less than 50,000/- since only a portion of the investment depends on interest rates.
The effect on Private Saving:It is expected that the private sector will react to higher interest rates by saving more. Thus, in the long term, the effect on private savings will be positive.
As a result, the net effect on private savings is positive.The effect on Public Saving: The government has to pay interest on its debt, which increases its expenses. As a result, there will be a decrease in public saving. Hence, the net effect on public saving is negative.The effect on National Saving:The increase in private savings will be less than the decrease in public savings. Hence, national saving will decrease.
The net effect on national saving is negative.Comparing the size of the changes to the 50,000/- of extra government borrowing, we can say that the changes are less than 50,000/-. The net effect on national saving is the most significant effect among all.
The net effect on investment and public saving is less than 50,000/-. The net effect on private savings is positive. Hence, we can conclude that a 50,000/- increase in government borrowing will have a negative net effect on the economy.
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The large parts of a playground A-frame (from which to hang a swing or glider) consist of a ridge pole, four legs, and two side braces. Each pair of legs fastens to the ridge with one fastener set. Each side brace requires two fastener sets for attachment to the legs. Each fastener set includes one zinc-plated bolt, one lock-washer, and one nut.
The large parts of a playground A-frame, including the ridge pole, four legs, and two side braces, require specific fastener sets for assembly. Each pair of legs requires one fastener set to attach to the ridge, while each side brace requires two fastener sets for attachment to the legs. Each fastener set comprises one zinc-plated bolt, one lock-washer, and one nut.
The assembly of the playground A-frame involves securing the legs to the ridge pole using the fastener sets. Each pair of legs requires one set, ensuring stability and structural integrity. Additionally, the two side braces are attached to the legs using two fastener sets for each brace, providing additional support and reinforcement. Each fastener set includes a zinc-plated bolt, lock-washer, and nut, which are essential for proper fastening. These components collectively ensure a sturdy and reliable structure for hanging swings or gliders on the playground A-frame.
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Assume actual machine-hours worked during the period of 54,000
hours, (2) estimated machine-hours to be worked during the period
of 54,300 hours, (3) manufacturing overhead applied to production
durin
It should be noted that the estimated total manufacturing overhead cost for the period is $762,000.
How the calculate the valueVariable Manufacturing Overhead Cost = Actual Machine-Hours Worked × Variable Overhead Rate
Variable Overhead Rate = $432,000 / 54,000 hours
Variable Overhead Rate ≈ $8 per machine-hour
Variable Manufacturing Overhead Cost = Actual Machine-Hours Worked × Variable Overhead Rate
Variable Manufacturing Overhead Cost = 54,000 hours × $8 per hour
Variable Manufacturing Overhead Cost = $432,000
Estimated Total Manufacturing Overhead Cost = Variable Manufacturing Overhead Cost + Estimated Fixed Manufacturing Overhead Cost
Estimated Total Manufacturing Overhead Cost = $432,000 + $330,000
= $762,000
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Assume (1) actual machine-hours worked during the period of 54,000 hours, (2) estimated machine-hours to be worked during the period of 54,700 hours, (3) manufacturing overhead applied to production during the period of $432,000, and (4) estimated fixed manufacturing overhead of $330,000 per period. The estimated total manufacturing overhead cost for the period is closest to:
Management is considering preparing a break even analysis. It's fixed costs are $100,000 and variable costs per unit are $10.00. They are considering production levels of 50,000 units and 100,000 units. For both levels of production, calculate per unit fixed and variable costs and total fixed and variable costs. What conclusions can you draw from this information?
The total variable costs are $500,000 for 50,000 units and $1,000,000 for 100,000 units. The per-unit fixed costs are $2.00 for 50,000 units and $1.00 for 100,000 units, while the per-unit variable costs are $10.00 for both levels of production.
.In conclusion, the break-even analysis helps managers to make informed decisions about pricing, production levels, and resource allocation.
Break-even analysis is a financial management tool that helps to determine the minimum level of sales required for a company to recover its costs. It is a tool that helps managers make informed decisions about pricing, production levels, and resource allocation. It helps the company to identify the minimum level of sales required to cover its fixed and variable costs. The break-even point is the point at which total revenue equals total costs.Management is considering preparing a break-even analysis.
It's fixed costs are $100,000 and variable costs per unit are $10.00. They are considering production levels of 50,000 units and 100,000 units. For both levels of production, calculate per unit fixed and variable costs and total fixed and variable costs.
The formula for calculating the break-even point is:Break-even point = fixed costs / (price - variable costs)Using this formula, we can calculate the break-even point for the two production levels as follows:Break-even point for 50,000 units = $100,000 / ($20.00 - $10.00) = 10,000 unitsBreak-even point for 100,000 units = $100,000 / ($20.00 - $10.00) = 10,000 units.
Therefore, the break-even point is the same for both production levels. At 50,000 units and 100,000 units, the company needs to sell 10,000 units to break even. This means that the company's total revenue from selling 10,000 units will be equal to its total costs at these levels of production.
The total fixed costs for both levels of production are $100,000. The variable costs per unit are $10.00.In conclusion, the break-even analysis helps managers to make informed decisions about pricing, production levels, and resource allocation.
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A company activated a machine on 1st of July 2021. The acquisition cost of the asset: 12.000.000 HUF and the
residual value is 2.000.000 HUF. The expected useful life 5 years, while the CIT depreciation rate is 14,5%.
1. Tax base increasing item
2. Tax base decreasing item
The tax base is the value of an asset or liability for tax purposes. It is computed by adding or subtracting certain tax effects from the book value of the asset or liability.
The two items, Tax base increasing and tax base decreasing, in relation to the activated machine are as follows:1. Tax base increasing itemDepreciation is a tax base increasing item. The depreciation rate used for tax purposes is typically greater than that used for financial accounting purposes. As a result, the tax base of the asset will be lower than the book value. The difference between the tax base and the book value of an asset, known as a temporary difference, will result in future taxable income as the asset is depreciated. In this scenario, the depreciation will be 14.5% of the acquisition cost, i.e., 12.000.000 HUF. Therefore, the depreciation charge is 1.740.000 HUF. The tax base of the asset is the acquisition cost less accumulated depreciation. As a result, the tax base of the asset at the end of the first year will be 10.260.000 HUF (12.000.000 HUF - 1.740.000 HUF).2.
Tax base decreasing item The residual value is a tax base decreasing item. In the event that the asset is sold or retired, the book value and tax base of the asset will differ by the amount of the residual value. The tax base of the asset at the end of its useful life will be 2.000.000 HUF (the residual value), which is lower than the book value of the asset. The tax base and the book value of the asset will be the same if the asset is sold for the residual value at the end of its useful life.
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Suppose that a company's initial money supply is $3 trillion, the price level equals 3, the real GDP is $5 trillion in base-year dollars and income velocity of money is 5.
Then suppose that the quantity of money in circulation remains fixed but the income velocity of money doubles.
If real GDP remains at its long-run potential level, calculate the equilibrium price level.
The equilibrium price level, when the income velocity of money doubles and real GDP remains at its long-run potential level, is 6.
To calculate the equilibrium price level, we can use the equation of exchange:
Money supply * Velocity of money = Price level * Real GDP
Initially, we have:
Money supply = $3 trillion
Price level = 3
Real GDP = $5 trillion
Velocity of money = 5
Using the equation of exchange:
$3 trillion * 5 = 3 * $5 trillion
Simplifying:
$15 trillion = $15 trillion
This represents the initial equilibrium condition.
Now, let's consider the scenario where the income velocity of money doubles. In this case, the new velocity of money becomes 2 * 5 = 10.
Using the equation of exchange:
$3 trillion * 10 = Price level * $5 trillion
Simplifying:
$30 trillion = Price level * $5 trillion
Dividing both sides by $5 trillion:
Price level = $30 trillion / $5 trillion
Price level = 6
Therefore, the equilibrium price level, when the income velocity of money doubles and real GDP remains at its long-run potential level, is 6.
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A corporation reports the following year-end balance sheet data. The company's working capital equals: Cash $ 55,000 Current liabilities $ 90,000 Accounts receivable 70,000 Long-term liabilities 50,000 Inventory 75,000 Common stock 115,000 Equipment 160,000 Retained earnings 105,000 Total assets $ 360,000 Total liabilities and equity $ 360,000
The working capital of the given corporation equals $60,000.
Working capital is the difference between current assets and current liabilities. It represents a company's liquidity position and its ability to meet short-term obligations. A positive working capital indicates that a company has enough current assets to cover its current liabilities and meet its obligations in the short term. According to the given data, the current assets are as follows: Cash: $55,000Accounts Receivable: $70,000Inventory: $75,000Total Current Assets: $200,000And the current liabilities are as follows :Current Liabilities: $90,000Long-term Liabilities: $50,000Total Liabilities: $140,000. Therefore, the working capital of the corporation would be $200,000 - $140,000 = $60,000.
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Sorenson Corp.'s expected year-end dividend is D1 =
$1.00, its required return is rs = 15.00%, its dividend
yield is 6.00%, and its growth rate is expected to be constant in
the future. What is Sorens
Sorenson Corp.'s expected dividend growth rate is 9.00%.
To calculate the expected dividend growth rate of Sorenson Corp., we can use the dividend yield formula, which is the dividend per share divided by the stock price:
Dividend Yield = Dividend per Share / Stock Price
Given that the dividend yield is 6.00%, we can rearrange the formula to solve for the dividend per share:
Dividend per Share = Dividend Yield * Stock Price
Now, let's consider the dividend growth model, which states that the expected dividend growth rate (g) is equal to the product of the dividend yield (DY) and the return on equity (ROE):
g = DY * ROE
Given that the required return (rs) is 15.00% and the dividend yield (DY) is 6.00%, we can calculate the expected dividend growth rate:
g = 0.06 * 0.15
g = 0.009
g = 9.00%
Therefore, Sorenson Corp.'s expected dividend growth rate is 9.00%.
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Santa bought an option contract on Telstra shares with an exercise price of $60 and an expiry date of three months. The market price for Telstra shares today is $56.85. The call price is trading at $0.45.
Calculate the break-even amount for the call position and draw a fully labelled diagram for both buyer of the option and seller of the option.
The break-even amount for the call position is $60.25. The option buyer will exercise the option on the expiration date if the share price is above $60.
i. To calculate the break-even amount for the call position, we need to add the exercise price and the call price. In this case, the exercise price is $60 and the call price is $0.25. Therefore, the break-even amount is $60 + $0.25 = $60.25.
To draw a fully labelled diagram for both the buyer and seller of the option, we can create a simple graph. On the x-axis, we can plot the share price, and on the y-axis, we can plot the profit/loss.
For the buyer of the option:
- When the share price is below $60.25, the buyer will incur a loss equal to the premium paid ($0.25).
- When the share price is above $60.25, the buyer will start making a profit.
For the seller of the option:
- When the share price is below $60.25, the seller will start making a profit.
- When the share price is above $60.25, the seller will incur a loss equal to the premium received.
ii. The option buyer will exercise the option on the expiration date if the share price is above the exercise price. In this case, the minimum share price for the option buyer to exercise the option would be $60.
This is because if the share price is below $60, it would be more profitable for the buyer to purchase the shares directly from the market instead of exercising the option at a higher price.
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The probable question may be:
5b. Anna Bought An Option Contract On Telstra Shares With An Exercise Price Of $60 And An Expiry Date In One Month. The Market Price For Telstra Shares Today Is $57.21. The Call Price Is Trading At $0.25. Calculate The Break-Even Amount For The Call Position And Draw A Fully Labelled Diagram For Both Buyer Of The Option And Seller Of The Option. At What
5b.
a. Anna bought an option contract on Telstra shares with an exercise price of $60 and an expiry date in one month. The market price for Telstra shares today is $57.21. The call price is trading at $0.25.
i. Calculate the break-even amount for the call position and draw a fully labelled diagram for both buyer of the option and seller of the option.
ii. At what minimum share price will the option buyer exercise the option on the expiration date? Provide reasoning in your answer
On May 1, you sold short four round lots (i.e., 400 shares) of Zenith stock at $29 per share. On July 1, a dividend of $1.00 per share was paid. On August 1, you covered the short sale by buying the stock at a price of $26 per share. You paid 200 cents per share in commissions for each transaction. What is the value of your account on August 1?
The value of the trader’s account on August 1 is $1,00.
Given data: The selling price of each share of Zenith stock on May 1 = $29Dividend paid per share of Zenith stock on July 1 = $1Price of each share of Zenith stock purchased on August 1 = $26
The commission paid per share for each transaction = 200 cents
The four round lots or 400 shares of Zenith stock were sold short by the trader for $29 per share on May 1. The total amount received was $29 × 400 = $11,600. The dividend paid per share of Zenith stock on July 1 was $1, so the total dividend paid on 400 shares was $1 × 400 = $400.
To cover the short sale on August 1, the trader purchased 400 shares of Zenith stock at $26 per share. The total cost of the shares was $26 × 400 = $10,400. The commission paid per share for each transaction was 200 cents.
So, the commission paid on the selling of 400 shares was 400 × 200 cents = $800. The commission paid on the purchase of 400 shares was again 400 × 200 cents = $800.
Therefore, the total commission paid was $800 + $800 = $1,600.The value of the trader’s account on August 1 can be calculated as follows:Account value on August 1 = (Proceeds from short sale + Dividend received − Cost of purchase) − Total commission paid
Account value on August 1 = ($11,600 + $400 − $10,400) − $1,600= $1,000
Therefore, the value of the trader’s account on August 1 is $1,000.
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Question 9 of 20 Consider the GDP deflator and real GDP, given in thousands of dollars, for the country of Economica. Year Real GDP GDP deflator year 1 $20,597 115 year 2 $10,557 108 year 3 $30,967 10
To analyze the impact of the GDP deflator and real GDP in the country of Economica, we can calculate the nominal GDP for each year using the formula:
Nominal GDP = Real GDP × GDP deflator
Here are the calculations for each year:
Year 1:
Nominal GDP = $20,597 × 115 = $2,366,455
Year 2:
Nominal GDP = $10,557 × 108 = $1,140,756
Year 3:
Nominal GDP = $30,967 × 10 = $309,670
The nominal GDP represents the total value of goods and services produced in the economy at current prices. By comparing the nominal GDP with the real GDP, we can assess the inflation or deflation in the economy.
In Economica, we can observe the following trends:
Year 1: The nominal GDP is higher than the real GDP, indicating inflationary pressure in the economy.
Year 2: The nominal GDP is lower than the real GDP, suggesting deflationary conditions.
Year 3: The nominal GDP is significantly lower than the real GDP, indicating a significant decrease in prices or deflation.
These trends reflect the changes in the GDP deflator, which measures the average price level in the economy relative to a base year. In Year 1, the GDP deflator is higher than 100, indicating an increase in prices. In Year 2, the GDP deflator is slightly lower than 100, indicating a slight decrease in prices. In Year 3, the GDP deflator is only 10, indicating a significant decrease in prices.
The impact on local public agency decision-making depends on the specific circumstances and policies in Economica. Inflationary conditions may lead to higher costs of goods and services, potentially affecting budgeting, pricing, and resource allocation decisions. Deflationary conditions, on the other hand, may result in reduced consumer spending and investment, requiring agencies to adjust their strategies accordingly.
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A lease payment is based on four variables. Which of the following is not one of these variables? The closed-end premium The money, or lease, factor The length (term) of the lease
The closed-end premium is not one of the variables that determine a lease payment.
Lease payments are typically calculated based on four variables: the money factor, the length (term) of the lease, the capitalized cost (or selling price) of the vehicle, and the residual value. The closed-end premium is not a factor that directly affects the calculation of lease payments.
Since the closed-end premium is not one of the variables, there is no specific calculation or formula associated with it in the context of determining lease payments.
In summary, the closed-end premium is not one of the variables used to calculate lease payments. The other three variables (money factor, lease term, capitalized cost, and residual value) play a role in determining the monthly lease payment amount. Please note that this answer has been generated by the AI model and should be verified with relevant sources or financial professionals to ensure accuracy and currency.
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Wallace Driving School's 2020 balance sheet showed net fixed assets of $2.3 million, and the 2021 balance sheet showed net fixed assets of $3.1 million. The company's 2021 income statement showed a depreciation expense of $327,000 What was net capital spending for 2021? (Do not round intermediate calculations and enter your answer in dollars, not millions of dollars, e.g. 1,234,567.) Net capital spending
Additionally, the depreciation expense for 2021 was $327,000.
Net capital spending = $0.8 million + $327,000
= $1,127,000
Therefore, the net capital spending for 2021 was $1,127,000.
Net capital spending for 2021 can be calculated by considering the change in net fixed assets and depreciation expense.
Net capital spending = Change in Net Fixed Assets + Depreciation Expense
Given that the net fixed assets in 2020 were $2.3 million and in 2021 were $3.1 million, the change in net fixed assets can be calculated as follows:
Change in Net Fixed Assets = Net Fixed Assets 2021 - Net Fixed Assets 2020
= $3.1 million - $2.3 million
= $0.8 million
Additionally, the depreciation expense for 2021 was $327,000.
Net capital spending = $0.8 million + $327,000
= $1,127,000
Therefore, the net capital spending for 2021 was $1,127,000.
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barnett company had the following raecords: 2022 2021
Ending inventory $32,650 $30,490
Cost of goods sold $306,300 313.500
what is barnett's average days in inventory for 2022? (rounded) group of answer choices 1) 37.6 days 2) 38.8 days 3) 36.9 days 4) 36.5 days
To calculate the Barnett Company's average days in inventory for 2022, we need to use the following formula:
Average Days in Inventory = (Ending Inventory / Cost of Goods Sold) * 365
Plugging in the given values for 2022:
The Ending Inventory = $32,650
Cost of the Goods Sold = $306,300
Using the formula:
Average Days in Inventory = (32,650 / 306,300) * 365
Calculating this expression, we find:
Average Days in Inventory ≈ 38.8 days
Therefore, the correct answer is option 2) 38.8 days. This means that, on the average, it takes approximately 38.8 days for Barnett Company to sell its inventory during the year 2022.
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Sangita has the opportunity to purchase a new piece of equipment for her factory. She wants to calculate the Weighted Average Cost of Capital (WACC) for her current operations. Long term borrowings make up 50% of the business's capital. The applicable interest rate paid for this is 8% per annum. The current tax rate that the business pays is 30%. The business is listed on the ASX and information from Bloomberg has calculated that the Beta for it (and other similar listed businesses) is 0.7. Bloomberg also states that the Market Risk Premium is 7% and the Government Bond Rate (risk free rate) is 3%. a. Calculate the cost of Debt Capital for the business (allow for the tax deductibility of the debt). (1 mark) b. Assuming that her business has only ordinary shares, calculate the cost of Equity Capital for the business. (1 mark) c. With your answers in a. and b. calculate the current WACC for Sangita's business that should be used when considering new purchases of equipment. (2 marks) d. If the returns generated by purchasing the new piece of equipment equate to an 9.5% payback, should Sangita go ahead with the investment? Why
The payback is greater than the cost of capital which is 5.96%. Therefore, the investment is expected to generate a profit greater than the cost of capital.
The cost of Debt Capital can be calculated using the below formulaCost of Debt Capital = (1-t) × kdWhere, t = Tax rate = 30%kd = Interest rate paid for long term borrowings = 8% per annumCost of Debt Capital = (1-30/100) × 8%= (1-0.3) × 8%= 5.6% per annumb. The cost of Equity Capital can be calculated using the below formulaCost of Equity Capital = Rf + β(Rm – Rf)
Where,Rf = Risk-free rate = 3%Rm = Market Risk Premium = 7%β = Beta for the business = 0.7Cost of Equity Capital = 3 + 0.7(7) = 7.9% per annumc. The current WACC for Sangita's business can be calculated using the below formulaWACC = (E/V) × Re + (D/V) × Rd × (1-t)Where,E = Equity = 50%D = Debt = 50%Re = Cost of Equity Capital = 7.9%Rd = Cost of Debt Capital = 5.6%t = Tax rate = 30%V = E + D = Total Capital = 100%WACC = (50/100) × 7.9 + (50/100) × 5.6 × (1-0.3)= 4% + 1.96%= 5.96% per annumd.
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Other things equal, the unemployment rate falls if A. aggregate output decreases. B. aggregate demand decreases. C. the demand for labor decreases. OD. the supply of labor decreases.
Other things equal, the unemployment rate falls if the demand for labor decreases. Option c is correct.
When the demand for labor decreases, it means that businesses are hiring fewer workers, leading to a decrease in employment opportunities. This can result from factors such as a decline in consumer spending, a decrease in business investment, or a slowdown in economic activity.
When the demand for labor decreases, it typically leads to an increase in the unemployment rate. This is because there are fewer job opportunities available relative to the number of people seeking employment. Individuals who were previously employed may lose their jobs, and new job seekers may have difficulty finding employment.
Therefore, c is correct.
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Some UNCC students are selling Cam Newton autographed jerseys. They are selling them at two locations: the Cone Center and the Friday Building. They want to maximize total revenue, but the number of jerseys available is a constraint. Here are the two demand equations, where the Q's are the jerseys to be sold in each location: Cone Center Demand: - Pc = 240 - 5Qc Friday Building Demand: PF = 400 - 3QF The total number of jerseys (Q) available is 31. What quantity of jerseys should be allocated to the Friday Building? Enter as a value. ROUND TO THE NEAREST WHOLE NUMBER (CAN'T SELL A PARTIAL JERSEY).
Therefore, the quantity of jerseys that should be allocated to the Friday Building is 27.
Demand equations for the Cone Center and the Friday Building are- Cone Center Demand: - Pc = 240 - 5Qc Friday Building Demand: PF = 400 - 3QF The total number of jerseys (Q) available is 31. We have to find the quantity of jerseys that should be allocated to the Friday Building.
Here's how to calculate it-Step 1: Substituting Pc and PF values in the equations to get them in terms of a single variable, we get the following: 240 - 5Qc = PF = 400 - 3QFStep 2: Solving for QF, we get: QF = (400-240)/3 + 5Qc/3QF = 53.33 + 1.67QcStep 3: From the question, we know that the total number of jerseys (Q) available is 31. So, substituting Q into the equation we get: Q = Qc + QFWe can rewrite QF as: QF = Q - QcSo, substituting QF in terms of Q and Qc in the equation we get: Q - Qc = 53.33 + 1.67QcQ = 31Now we can solve the equation for Qc and then find QF using the value obtained in Step 2 above.Step 4: Simplifying the equation, we get: 1.67Qc + Q = 53.33 + Qc6.33Qc = -22.33Qc = -3.52 (rounded to two decimal places)To get a whole number, we round Qc up to 4.Then QF = 31 - Qc = 31 - 4 = 27Therefore, the quantity of jerseys that should be allocated to the Friday Building is 27.
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Question Completion Status: QUESTION 1 3 points Saved What is the Equity multiplier (EM)? Using EM, explain how increasing the bank capital would have a negative impact on the ROA for equity holders?
Equity multiplier (EM) is a financial leverage ratio used to estimate the proportion of assets owned by the equity holders of a company versus the amount of debt used to fund those assets. It measures the degree of a company’s leverage and provides insight into how much debt a company uses to finance its assets.
It is calculated by dividing total assets by total equity. EM = Total Assets / Total Equity. For example, if a company has total assets of $100 million and total equity of $20 million, then the equity multiplier is 5. It means that for every dollar of equity, the company has $5 of assets. The effect of increasing bank capital on the return on assets (ROA) for equity holders is negative. ROA is a profitability ratio that measures how much profit a company earns from its assets. Increasing bank capital would lead to a decrease in EM since the total equity of the bank would increase and the total assets would remain the same. If the EM decreases, it means that the bank is less leveraged, and its ROA would decrease as well. This is because the bank would be making less money on its assets since it has more equity and less debt. Hence, increasing bank capital would lead to a negative impact on the ROA for equity holders.
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John Michael purchased a surfboard from Surf’s Up beach supply store. The label on the surfboard stated: "Surf’s Up makes no warranties about the quality of this product." The first time John Michael took the surfboard out on the water, the board broke in half when it hit a small wave. John Michael demanded his money back, claiming that the store had breached the warranty of merchantability by selling him a surfboard that could not be used for normal surfing. The store refused to refund John Michael’s money, stating that the label clearly stated there were no warranties on the product. If John Michael sues the store, the court will likely find:
a. that the disclaimer on the surfboard was an effective disclaimer of the warranty of merchantability.
b. that the disclaimer on the surfboard was not an effective disclaimer of the warranty of fitness for a particular purpose.
c. that the disclaimer on the surfboard was an effective disclaimer of the warranty of fitness for a particular purpose.
d. that the disclaimer on the surfboard was not an effective disclaimer of the warranty of merchantability.
The court will likely find that the disclaimer on the surfboard was not an effective disclaimer of the warranty of merchantability.
The court will likely find that the disclaimer on the surfboard was not an effective disclaimer of the warranty of merchantability.A warranty of merchantability is a promise made by a seller that the goods will reasonably meet the expectations of buyers. It means that the goods are fit for their ordinary purpose. Since John Michael claimed that the store had breached the warranty of merchantability by selling him a surfboard that could not be used for normal surfing, the store will have to provide a replacement or refund the money. Even though the label on the surfboard stated that "Surf’s Up makes no warranties about the quality of this product," such a disclaimer does not protect the seller from liability for all injuries or damages that occur from a product's use.The court will likely find that the disclaimer on the surfboard was not an effective disclaimer of the warranty of merchantability.
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