the ingestion of a large number of vibrio cholerae cells is necessary for infection. why is such a large concentration of bacteria needed?

Answers

Answer 1

Ingestion of large numbers of Vibrio cholerae cells is necessary for infection, due to the low gastric pH.

Vibrio cholerae is pathogenic to humans. These bacteria are very sensitive to acids because these bacteria cannot stand acids and heat. If someone eats food that contains bacteria as much as 102-104 cells/gram in food then someone with normal stomach acid will be infected by Vibrio. Normally, the stomach produces stomach acid making the degree of acidity (pH) of the stomach boil between 1.0-2.0

To kill bacteria or germs in food. Because generally, bacteria are very rare that can live at the pH that is owned by the stomach, which is a pH of around 0.8 - 1.5.

So, when someone is infected with Vibrio cholera, the stomach acid pH is low.

This question has multiple choice

a. because of the enzymes in our mouth

b. because of the low pH in the stomach

c. because they must compete with bacteria in our intestines

d. because of the specificity of our immune system

The true choice is B

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Related Questions

What i the proper term for the repeated erie of event by which rock gradually and continuouly change from one type to another

Answers

The term "rock cycle" refers to the process by which molten magma cools and transforms into an igneous rock.

What do rocks become as a result of weathering and erosion?

At or near the earth's surface, weathering (the process of breaking down rock) and erosion (the process of transferring rock material) reduce rocks to ever-tinier fragments. These more minute rock fragments, such as sand, silt, or mud, can be deposited as sediments, which then harden or lithify to form sedimentary rocks.

What kinds of weathering do rocks undergo?

Weathering can be classified as biological, chemical, or mechanical. Chemical weathering is the process by which rain gradually eats away at rocks because rain is actually somewhat acidic. Animals and plants can also degrade rocks.

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What is deposition?
A the formation of precipitation with lower pH
B
when moisture is evaporated off the leaves of plants
C
when moisture mixes with the dust particles in the atmosphere

D when heavier chemicals fall to Earth after the burning of fossil fuels

Answers

Answer:

B) when moisture is evaporated off the leaves of plants

the most common type of regenerated fiber, which is derived from cellulose and is mostly plant in origin, is rayon. t or f

Answers

Yes, it is true that rayon, which is made from cellulose and primarily comes from plants, is the most popular type of regenerated fiber.

The most popular kind of regenerated fiber is rayon, which is made from cellulose and is primarily plant-based. Cellulose-based fibers are synthetic polymer fibers, which all have a petroleum-based beginning. While polyester shares many characteristics with nylon, it is more easily dissolved by weak and concentrated acids.

Dietary fibers are often composed of lengthy, repetitive chains of carbohydrates and are generated from indigestible plant components. The insoluble fibers cellulose and lignin can be found in cereal and grain husks, which are where the majority of fibers come from. Cellulose makes up the majority of plant fibers, frequently in conjunction with other substances like lignin. Cotton, hemp, jute, flax, ramie, sisal, and bagasse are a few examples.

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Name the phase:
Prophase
Anaphase
Metaphase
Telophase

Answers

Pretty sure it is telophase.

Environmental science students are discussing a weed that has invaded a nearby lake due to an increase in the amount of nutrients in the lake’s ecosystem. Which of the following terms decribes this increase?
A)
dessication
B)
intoxication
C)
eutrophication
D)
dumping
E)
pollution


Please select the best answer from the choices provided

A
B
C
D
E

Answers

The increase in nutrients in the lake’s ecosystem is called eutrophication.

Eutrophication is the process by which a body of water becomes enriched with nutrients, typically as a result of human activities such as fertilization and sewage disposal. This can lead to an overgrowth of aquatic plants and algae, which can cause a variety of ecological problems including the invasion of non-native species, changes in the ecosystem’s food chain, and the reduction of oxygen levels in the water. In the given scenario, the presence of the weed in the lake is likely a result of eutrophication, as the increased nutrients in the lake have allowed the weed to thrive and spread.

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the hormone that assists in maintaining blood calcium levels by stimulating the activation of vitamin d is: a. insulin b. thyroid hormone c. parathyroid hormone d. calcitonin

Answers

The hormone that assists in maintaining blood calcium levels by stimulating the activation of vitamin d is: the parathyroid hormone

Vitamin is a natural molecule this is an essential micronutrient that an organism wishes in small quantities for the right functioning of its metabolism. essential nutrients can't be synthesized in the organism, either at all or now not in enough quantities, and consequently should be received thru the weight loss program. A nutrient that the frame wishes in small amounts to characteristic and stay healthy. sources of nutrients are plant and animal food products and nutritional supplements. some nutrients are made inside the human body from meal products.

Vitamins are important for good fitness, however, wanted in a great deal smaller quantities than macro-nutrients, like carbs and fat. they're essential for lots day by day bodily functions, consisting of cell reproduction and growth, however most significantly for the processing of energy in cells.

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Describe the temperature, moisture and air pressure associated with a Continental Polar air mass.
Use this and the picture to help

Continental Polar Air Masses
cold temperatures and little moisture
Those who live in northern portions of the United States expect cold weather during the winter months. These conditions usually result from the invasion of cold arctic air masses that originate from the snow covered regions of northern Canada. Because of the long winter nights and strong radiational cooling found in these regions, the overlying air becomes very cold and very stable. The longer this process continues, the colder the developing air mass becomes, until changing weather patterns transport the arctic air mass southward.

Answers

The variance in the US continental region is brought on by the shift in daytime and nighttime weather patterns.

These factors contributed to the polar air mass:

BreezeExtreme humidityThe evening's low temperature

During the colder months of the year, continental polar air typically forms over vast land masses.

A cool breeze blows across the upper section of the area, while a warm breeze blows through the lower part.

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the auditory sensory axons of the ..... branch of cranial nerve number ........ terminate in the cochlear nucleus within the brainstem.

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The auditory sensory axons of the cochlear branch of cranial nerve number 8 terminate in the cochlear nucleus within the brainstem.

The cochlear nerve is responsible for transmitting auditory signals from the inner ear to the cochlear nuclei within the brainstem and ultimately to the primary auditory cortex within the temporal lobe.

The organ of Corti is located along its basilar membrane in the cochlea, a spiral chamber in the bone auditory labyrinth that is filled with fluid. The spiral (cochlear) ganglion's bipolar neurons form the connection between the organ of Corti and the central nervous system (CNS). The modiolus' spiral canal is where the spiral ganglion is situated. The spiral ganglion is populated by type I and type II neurons, both of which send central processes that come together to form the auditory nerve and peripheral processes to the ciliated hair cells of the organ of Corti.

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I really need help on this question

Answers

don’t see a picture?

if a typical somatic cell has 12 chromosomes, how many chromatids and dna molecules are expected in each cell of that organism?

Answers

12 DNA molecules and the 24 chromatids will be in each cell of that organism.

How does DNA function? What is it?

The instructions required for a creature to grow, endure, and reproduce are encoded in its DNA. Dna fragments must be transformed into messages that are utilized to create proteins, that are the protein complexes that carry out the majority of the tasks in our bodies, in order to complete these activities.

Why is DNA such a big deal?

DNA is crucial for inheritance, protein coding, and supplying guidelines for life and its functions in all living organisms. DNA controls a person's or an animal's growth, reproduction, and final demise. There are 46 chromosomes in total in each of a human cell's 23 pairs of chromosomes.

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in classical conditioning, repeated presentations of the conditioned stimulus without the unconditioned stimulus lead to.
a. true
b. false

Answers

True. In classical conditioning, repeated presentations of the conditioned stimulus (CS) without the unconditioned stimulus (US) can lead to extinction of the conditioned response.

Extinction is the process by which the conditioned response becomes weaker or disappears over time due to the absence of the unconditioned stimulus. For example, consider a person who has been conditioned to associate the sound of a bell with the sight of food. When the bell is rung, the person salivates (a conditioned response). If the bell is rung repeatedly without the food being presented, the person's salivation response will eventually decrease or disappear. This is because the absence of the food (the unconditioned stimulus) means that the conditioned response is no longer reinforced, and the association between the bell and food becomes weaker over time. In summary, repeated presentations of the conditioned stimulus without the unconditioned stimulus can lead to extinction of the conditioned response.

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27) Earthquake waves and light waves are alike because they both move out and away from a wave source.

True
False

Answers

Answer: True

Explanation:

explain how this system achieves long distance cell signaling to communicate with body tissues far away from the signaling cell (use the example of insulin and define 'target cell' in your explanation).

Answers

A signal molecule is released by the cells, and it is carried by the bloodstream to the target cells over great distances.

All of the body's target tissues that contain insulin receptors are reached by insulin. In order for cells to absorb glucose, insulin binds to insulin receptors and starts a physiological response.

Insulin is a key hormone regulating glucose homeostasis. Its major target tissues are the liver, the skeletal muscle and the adipose tissue.

A peptide hormone or protein chain, insulin is.

An erythrocyte with target cell anemia has a dark center surrounding by a bright band, which is again encompassed by a darker ring. Such cells can also develop following splenectomy.

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two people believe they are related. which would be the best technique to determine if they are related?

Answers

By comparing the DNA we can check whether the two people are related or not related to each other.

What is DNA ?

DNA is an abbreviation for deoxyribonucleic acid. It is a chemical composed of two long molecules spirally organised. This is known as the double-helix structure.

DNA is a genetic information carrier. It contains all of the instructions required for a live creature to develop, reproduce, and operate.

DNA profiles are used by forensic experts to assist solve crimes.

DNA is an abbreviation for deoxyribonucleic acid. It's a chemical composed of two long molecules. The molecules are organised in a spiral pattern, similar to a twisted ladder. This is known as the double helix structure.

Every cell has DNA in its nucleus. DNA is a genetic information carrier. It contains all of the instructions required for a live creature to develop, reproduce, and operate.
By comparing the DNA we can check whether the two people are related or not related to each other.

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all of the following are used to detect fetal abnormalities, except: a.amniocentesis. b.chorionic villus sampling. c.colposcopy. d.karyotype.

Answers

All of the following are used to detect fetal abnormalities, except colonoscopy.

Colposcopy is a clinical indicative technique to outwardly inspect the cervix as well as the vagina and vulva utilizing a colposcope. The principal objective of colposcopy is to forestall cervical malignant growth by recognizing and treating precancerous injuries early. Amniocentesis is a test you might be presented with during pregnancy to check in the event that your child has a hereditary or chromosomal condition, like Down's disorder, Edwards' disorder, or Patau's condition. It includes eliminating and testing a little example of cells from amniotic liquid, the liquid that encompasses the child in the belly. Chorionic villus examination (CVS), or chorionic villus biopsy, is a pre-birth test that includes taking an example of tissue from the placenta to test for chromosomal irregularities and certain other hereditary issues.

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What do you call a star that burns happily?

Answers

This final burning in massive stars, called explosive nucleosynthesis or supernova nucleosynthesis, is the final epoch of stellar nucleosynthesis.

which areas of the brain are most responsible for activating the body’s defense cascade?

Answers

The hypothalamus is responsible for activating the body’s defense cascade.

The hypothalamic pathway can be thought of as being activated by arousal, the initial stage in the activation of the defense cascade.

The term "defense cascade" refers to a progression of automatic, survival-based actions that are triggered in reaction to threat or the sense of danger and include the states of freeze, fight or flight, tonic mobility, and collapse immobility.

The initial freeze response entails a sudden cessation of all motion while maintaining awareness of the threat and preparing for an aggressive fight-or-flight response. If fighting or fleeing is neither possible nor practical for survival, tonic immobility or collapse immobility may happen.

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Solve x^3 = 27
Please help!

Answers

Answer:

x=3

Explanation:

x³=27

³√x³=³√27

x=3

A rock has been formed by the accumulation of bits of minerals and soil that are pressurized together. How should this
rock be classified?
O organic rocks
Igneous rocks
O sedimentary rocks
O metamorphic rocks

Answers

C. Sedimentary rocks

Formed from other rocks and minerals

A rock that has been formed by the accumulation of bits of minerals and soil that are pressurized together is a sedimentary rock.

Sedimentary rocks are formed when sediment, such as bits of minerals and soil, are deposited and compacted over time. This can happen when these materials are transported by water, wind, or ice, and then settle in layers. The pressure of the overlying layers can then cause the sediment to compact and form a rock.

Sedimentary rocks can also be formed when the remains of plants and animals are buried and then fossilized over time. These rocks are called sedimentary rocks because they are made up of sediment that has been deposited and compacted over time.

In contrast, igneous rocks are formed when molten rock (magma or lava) cools and solidifies. Metamorphic rocks are formed when existing rocks are subjected to high temperatures and pressures, which cause them to change in texture and composition. And organic rocks are formed from the remains of plants or animals.

a hormone that stimulates the opening of calcium channels and interaction with calmodulin __________.

Answers

Cytoplasmic enzymes are activated by hormones that promote calcium channel opening and interaction with calmodulin.

What hormones do the adrenal medulla release?

The inner portion of an adrenal gland called the adrenal medulla regulates the hormones that start the flight or fight response. Both epinephrine (adrenaline) and norepinephrine (noradrenaline), which have comparable roles, are the primary hormones released by the adrenal medulla.

What first-tier hormone induces the synthesis of cortisol?

Corticotropin, also known as adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH): Your adrenal glands, which are located above your kidneys, are stimulated by this hormone to make cortisol and other hormones. In reaction to low blood calcium levels, the parathyroid hormone is produced.

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All of the following are characteristic of the cnidarians except ___________________.
muscle tissue derived from mesoderm
a motile form called the medusa
a sessile form called the polyp
a gastrovascular cavity

Answers

Answer:

a sessile form called the polyp

apoptosis is a term describing the process by which cells stop dividing and die. it is a normal part of an organism’s life cycle. apoptosis is carefully controlled by enzymes within the cell. what would happen if the genes used to synthesize these enzymes were mutated?

Answers

Enzyme mutations, which are the result of inherited anomalies in the affected person's DNA, can cause serious or fatal illnesses in humans. An enzyme that is encoded by a mutant gene may only have one aberrant amino acid residue at a particular location.

Some mutations force material via the faulty metabolic pathway by increasing the expression of the enzyme upstream of the weak-link enzyme. Others promote the synthesis of a co-substrate for a downstream enzyme, moving more substance through the route. Genetic mutations, which occur as your cells divide and generate duplicates of themselves, are modifications to your DNA sequence. Your DNA teaches your body how to develop and work.

Genetic changes may result in diseases like cancer or, in the long run, may enable people to adapt to their environment more successfully. The process of programmable cell death is called apoptosis. Unwanted cells, such as those between a developing hand's fingers, are removed during the early stages of development. Adult bodies employ apoptosis to get rid of cells that can no longer be repaired.

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How do the self-pollination and cross-pollination differ in their mechanisms and genetic diversity?

Answers

Self-pollination produces plants with reduced genetic variety since the genetic material for the gametes and, finally, the zygote are made from the same plant. In contrast, because the male and female gametophytes.

What are self pollinated plants called?

In autogamy, pollen is relocated from the anther about one plant to the stigma of that other flower from the same asteraceae family, or from the microsporangium to the ovule within such a single (monoecious) angiosperm. In involves experiencing, pollen is transmitted from of the anther of one flowers to the stigma of that other bloom on the same flower.

In what ways does self-pollination matter?

Self-pollinating plants are less reliant on outside forces to stimulate pollination. These plants are dependent on the wind or other tiny insects that frequent the bloom. The anthers and stigma of self-pollinating flowers are comparable in length to aid in the transport of pollen.

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ribozymes and riboswitches are portions of rna molecules that have properties commonly associated with proteins in that . a. they bind ligands b. they change conformation c. they have catalytic activity d. all of the above e. both a and b

Answers

The RNA molecules known as ribozymes and riboswitches have characteristics with proteins in that they bind ligands and undergo conformational changes.

What exactly are riboswitches and ribozymes?

Small chemicals influence the function of RNA through ribozymes and riboswitches. Numerous tiny compounds act as cofactors and substrates for catalytic RNAs (ribozymes), and gene-regulatory mRNA domains (riboswitches) that control transcription, splicing, translation, or RNA stability are able to sense their intracellular concentrations.

What use do ribozymes serve in ribosomes?

As a component of the large subunit ribosomal RNA inside the ribosome, ribozymes serve to connect amino acids during protein synthesis. Additionally, they take involved in a number of RNA processing processes, such as RNA splicing, viral replication, and transfer RNA biosynthesis.

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how is it possible for a bound nucleus to have less mass than its constituent parts?

Answers

A nucleus must have less rest energy than the nucleons it is formed of if protons and neutrons (also known as nucleons) are bound together in it.

Why does the mass of the nucleus differ from the mass of its components?

The mass of the protons and neutrons that make up an atomic nucleus is always smaller than the nucleus' actual mass. Energy is released during the formation of a nucleus. The removal of this energy manifests as a decrease in total mass.

What causes a nucleus to be lighter?

Protons and neutrons comprise atomic nuclei (or nucleons). A nucleus' total mass is lower than the sum of the masses of its nucleons. According to Einstein's mass-energy connection, E=mc2, the mass lost when a composite nucleus is produced from nucleons is converted into energy.

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sort the statements into the appropriate bins depending on whether they represent factors that varied from participant to participant at the start of this study, factors that were consistent from the start of the study, and factors that were measured in the study.
a. smoking status (smoking vs. non smoking)
b. total food intake
c. percentage of different types of fats eaten
d. activity level
e. sex of participant
f. number of non-fatal heart attacks
g. deaths from coronary heart disease

Answers

Factors that have changed since the start of the study: Variables like smoking status, total calorie intake, percentage of different types of fat consumed, and degree of activity remained the same.

the participant's sex as a result: the number of deaths from coronary heart disease and heart attacks. Coronary artery disease affects the larger coronary arteries on the surface of the heart. Coronary microvascular disease, another form of heart disease, affects the tiny arteries in the heart muscle. Coronary microvascular disease is more common in women. The type of coronary heart disease determines its origin. Coronary artery disease is frequently brought on by cholesterol, a waxy material that builds up inside the coronary artery wall to form plaque. This deposit may entirely smoking statu.

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At which type of plate boundary do tectonic plates slide past each other? (1 point)
O at convergent boundaries
O at transform boundaries
O at divergent boundaries
O at oceanic-oceanic boundaries

Answers

B. at transform boundaries

Tectonic plates are the massive, moving pieces of the Earth's crust. At a transform boundary, two plates slide past each other in opposite directions, with no creation or destruction of crust. This type of boundary is often marked by earthquakes, as the plates grind and rub against each other. Examples of transform boundaries include the San Andreas Fault in California and the Alpine Fault in New Zealand.

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The female peacock is less colorful and has a shorter tail than the male. Explain, in evolutionary terms, the advantage that the bright coloration and elaborate tail feature give the male.

Answers

Answer:

The bright coloration and elaborate tail feature of the male peacock are thought to be examples of sexual selection. Sexual selection is a type of natural selection that occurs when certain traits are favored by members of one sex (usually females) when choosing a mate. These traits are often exaggerated or highly visible, and they serve to attract the attention of the opposite sex.

Answer:

In many species, including peacocks, males tend to have more colorful and elaborate physical features than females. This is often referred to as sexual dimorphism. One theory for the evolution of these differences is that they function as a form of sexual selection, in which the more attractive or ornamented individuals are more likely to attract mates and reproduce.

In the case of peacocks, the bright colors and elaborate tail feathers of the male may serve as a visual display that attracts females and signals the male's fitness and genetic quality. The bright colors and elaborate tail may also serve as a way for the male to advertise his presence to other males and potentially deter them from competing for the same females.

Overall, the bright coloration and elaborate tail of the male peacock may have evolved as a way for males to stand out and attract mates, which can increase their reproductive success.

which type of genetic testing is the most sensitive method for detecting any mutation in a specific gene?

Answers

A mutation in a specific gene can be identified by a technique called Direct DNA sequencing. This is mostly used to recognize single base pair mutation.

The most accurate way to identify any gene mutation is through direct DNA sequencing, a sort of genetic testing. The precise order of the nucleotides along the chromosomes and genomes is determined in laboratories via DNA sequencing, a crucial biological technique. This technique enables the investigation of a wide range of diseases and genetic disorders as well as the identification of gene mutations.

The complete question is:

Which type of genetic testing is the most sensitive method for detecting any mutation in a specific gene? Select one:

a. Direct DNA sequencing

b. Immunohistochemistry

c. Fluorescence in situ hybridization

d. Banded chromosomal analysis

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which of the following is not a major factor in where and how air moves?

a. pressure
b. temperature
c. density
d. type of gas

Answers

C. Density. The following are the main variables influencing the global atmospheric circulation: uneven surface heating of the soil. seasonal variations in precipitation and temperature. Earth turning on its axis.

Which of the following is missing from the air response?

Air does not contain hydrogen gas; instead, it is mostly composed of trace gases including carbon dioxide and water vapor, as well as 78% nitrogen and 21% oxygen.

Which of the following is not an atmospheric component?

The quantity of water vapor present in the air is referred to as humidity. Since sunlight is not dependent on the atmosphere like the other alternatives mentioned above, it is not a component of weather.

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If class has a single constructor that takes an argument, which of the following statements will produce an error? None of them Card top; Card* top; Card top (1); Candtop()Card* top=newCard(1); All of them What does the following statement do? Deck hand(); Given the following statement: Card* top; What is the value of the variable? A Card object stored on the stack A Card object stored on the heap NULL Undefined Error the yield to maturity on one-year zero coupon bonds is 4.76%. the yield to maturity on two-year zero coupon bonds is 6.78%. required: a. what is the forward rate of interest for the second year? (do not round intermediate calculations. round your answer to 2 decimal places.) b. according to the expectations hypothesis, what is the expected value of the one-year interest rate for next year? 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In the following excerpt, what does the word extorted mean?Rodney loved sharing in all the cash they extorted from scared students.a. borrowedb. took by forcec. returnedd. explained Which one of the following statements is incorrect?=When preferred stock is noncumulative, any dividend passed in a year is lost forever.=Dividends may be paid on common stock while dividends are in arrears on preferred stock.=Dividends in arrears on preferred are not considered a liability.=Dividends cannot be paid on common stock while any dividend on preferred stock is in arrears.Dividends may be paid on common stock while dividends are in arrears on preferred stock. your project's lead programmer leaves the company. she was responsible for engaging the systems engineers, so now that's up to you. what inputs can you use to monitor the engineers' engagement? select all that apply. the enormous gains in crop yields brought about by green revolution technologies may soon stop because green revolution technologies are degrading the quality of soil that they use six weeks after birth an infant is found to have developmental dysplasia of the hip. the nurse explains to the parents the benefits of early treatment. which is the rationale for the immediate institution of corrective measures? naomi, the product line manager for a small family business believes that it is time for the company to begin exporting its product to foreign markets. her father, the owner, is skeptical. to convince her father, naomi points out that