The absorption costing ending inventory is, $55,000.
For computing ending inventory under absorption costing, we need to first find out the units of ending inventory, and then do the proportion to each cost.
What is inventory absorption costing?Direct material, direct labor, and all overhead are all included in the value of inventory under absorption costing. The distinction between the two approaches is that management will favor one approach over the other when making internal decisions.How do you find ending inventory using absorption costing?To the cost of purchases made during the period, add the cost of establishing inventory. This is the price of the products that are on sale. Calculate the anticipated cost of products sold by multiplying the gross profit margin by sales. To determine the ending inventory, deduct the cost of the items that can be sold from the cost of the items that were actually sold.
According to the question:
The units of ending inventory = Units produced - units sold.
= 5,200 units - 4,200 units.
= 1,000 units.
Now,
The material cost = Material cost × (ending inventory units ÷ units produced).
= $104,000 × (1,000 ÷ 5,200).
= $20,000.
The Variable conversion cost = Variable conversion cost × (ending inventory units ÷ units produced).
= $52,000 × (1,000 ÷ 5,200).
= $10,000.
The Fixed manufacturing cost = Fixed manufacturing cost × (ending inventory units ÷ units produced).
= $130,000 × (1,000 ÷ 5,200 ).
= $25,000.
So, the ending inventory = Material cost + Variable conversion cost + Fixed manufacturing cost.
= $20,000+ $10,000 + $25,000.
= $55,000.
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When a principal is partially disclosed Group of answer choices the agent and principal will be jointly and severally liable on the contract. the agent and principal will be only jointly liable on the contract. only the principal can be liable. only the agent is liable.
The correct answer is the agent and principal will be jointly and severally liable on the contract.
In general, an agent is not accountable for contracts made; the principal is. However, the agent will be held culpable if he is not or only partially revealed, if the agent lacks or exceeds authorization, or if the agent entered into the transaction in a personal role.
When an agent works on behalf of the principle in interactions with a third party, a contractual relationship is formed between the main and the third party, and the agent is not personally accountable.
Therefore, the correct option is the agent and principal will be jointly and severally liable on the contract.
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If there are 10 job losers, 12 job leavers, 13 reentrants, and 12 new entrants, then there are __________ unemployed persons. a. 25 b. 47 c. 35 d. 37 e. There is not enough information to answer the question.
If there are 10 job losers, 12 job leavers, 13 reentrants, and 12 new entrants, then there are option B: 47 unemployed persons
What is unemployment?Unemployment serves as a situation whereby a person could not secure a job after passively searching of job in an economy.
Therefore, those that are unemployed are addition of 10 job losers, 12 job leavers, 13 reentrants, and 12 new entrants which is 47.
Therefore, option B is correct.
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_______________________ that require the depositor to commit to leaving their funds in the bank for a certain period of time, in exchange for a higher rate of interest are also called ________________. Demand deposits; certificates of deposit Certificates of deposit; time deposits Money market funds; time deposits Bonds; term deposits
Certificates of deposit that require the depositor to commit to leaving their funds in the bank for a certain period of time, in exchange for a higher rate of interest are also called time deposits Bonds.
An account designated as a time deposit is one that the depositor has agreed to keep in the bank for a specific amount of time in exchange for a greater interest rate.A time deposit, sometimes known as a term deposit, is a fixed-term interest-bearing bank account. In comparison to a typical savings account, it enables depositors to grow their money at higher interest rates. Depositors have two options after the term is up: they can either withdraw their money or renew it and hold it for another term.What is a CD certificate?A certificate of deposit (CD) is a type of savings account where the issuing bank pays interest in exchange for holding a specified sum of money for a predetermined length of time, such as six months, a year, or five years. When you cash in or redeem your CD, you receive the money you originally invested plus any interest.
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It is a fact that there is a(n) ________ relationship between interest rates and bond values in the secondary market. When interest rates ________, bond prices ________, and when interest rates ________, bond prices ________. Question 10 options: direct; drop; rise; rise; drop inverse; rise; rise; drop; drop direct; rise; rise; drop; drop direct; rise; drop; drop; rise inverse; rise; drop; drop; rise
Inverse; rise; drop; drop; rise
It is a fact that there is an inverse relationship between interest rates and bond values in the secondary market. When interest rates rise, bond prices drop, and when interest rates drop, bond prices rise.
What is the relationship between interest rate and bond values?Bond prices and interest rates go hand in hand. Bond prices typically decline as borrowing costs increase (when interest rates rise), and vice versa.
Most bonds have a fixed interest rate that increases in attractiveness when interest rates decline, increasing demand and bond price.
In contrast, a bond's price will drop if interest rates increase because investors will no longer value the lower fixed interest rate it offers.
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When the central bank decides it will sell bonds using open market operations: interest rates decrease. the money supply increases. the money supply decreases. the money supply is unaffected.
When the central bank decides it will sell bonds using open market operations b. the money supply decreases.
What is open market operations?
Open market operations involves the purchase as well as sale of securities which help the Federal Reserve when they want to implement monetary policy.
In this case, When the central bank decides it will sell bonds using open market operations b. the money supply decreases.
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The combined market share of the top four firms in a monopolistically competitive industry will typically be in the range of Group of answer choices Zero to 2 percent. Zero to 5 percent. 70 to 100 percent. 20 to 40 percent. None of the Answers are Correct.
Option C. The combined market share of the top four firms in a monopolistically competitive industry will typically be 70 to 100 percent.
What is combined market share?
This is the calculation that is done by taking a person's total sales and dividing by the total sales of a particular market sector.
This would be 70 to 100 percent in a market that has 4 firms combined together.
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Explain why some bonds sell at a premium over par value while other bonds sell at a discount. What do you know about the relationship between the coupon rate and the YTM for premium bonds
The answer is changes in interest rates and YTM will be less than the coupon rate.
Let's take a scenario where a bond has a yield of 2%. And if interest rates go up the earlier 2% interest rate is no longer an attractive interest rate. This is because we can now buy a similar bond with a yield of 2.5%.
So in order to compensate for these, the value of these bonds goes down.
Just the opposite is true when interest rates are decreasing.
The very best time to buy bonds is when interest rates are high and going down.
Also, any rational investor will pay more for a bond with a yield of 12% over a bond with a yield of only 10%, assuming everything else is equal.
Premium bonds are those bonds whose market price is greater than the par value of the bond.
And YTM is the internal rate of return (IRR) on a bond which equates to the present value of cash flows associated with the bond.
Therefore, in the case of premium bonds, YTM will be less than the coupon rate.
Hence, some bonds sell at a premium over par value while other bonds sell at a discount because of the changes in the interest rates. And YTM will be less than the coupon rate for premium bonds.
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The Federal Reserve ________ pay interest on reserves held on deposit. The European System of Central Banks ________ pay interest on reserves held on
The Federal Reserve does not pay interest on reserves held on deposit. The European System of Central Banks does pay interest on reserves held on deposit.
Federal Reserve BoardIn the past, reserve banks were unable to offer interest on deposits. The Emergency Economic Stabilization Act of 2008 brought about a shift in that. The Federal Reserve Board had to increase the size of its balance sheet by purchasing Treasuries and mortgage-backed securities in order to increase the amount of liquidity available to the banking sector. European System of Central BanksThe major objective is to preserve price stability or the euro's worth. Price stability is the most significant contribution monetary policy can make in this area because it is crucial for economic growth and job creation, two goals of the European Union.The ECB has four decision-making bodies with the authority to carry out the institution's goals.To learn more about Federal reserve Board refer to:
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When the government provides free and reduced lunches to low-income students, it is addressing which type of market failure
A positive externality is when a good or service is produced and used in a way that benefits a party that is not directly involved in the market transaction.
What are the reasons for the Market Failure?
Externalities, public goods, market regulation, and a lack of knowledge are all possible causes of market failure. Market failures can be resolved through government involvement, such as new legislation, taxes, tariffs, subsidies, or trade restrictions.
The complete question is shown in the file attached below:
Thus, providing free and reduced lunches to low-income students by the government is a situation of positive externality where no directly involved in the market transaction.
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The gradual expansion of project requirements, specifications and priorities during the execution of project is known as ____________.
The gradual expansion of project requirements, specifications and priorities during the execution of project is known as scope enhancement
What is scope enhancement?Scope enhancement occurs when a particular ongoing project need to take an expanded form.
It can be addition of new varieties, structure and people and this requires additional work.
Therefore, the gradual expansion of project requirements, specifications and priorities during the execution of project is known as scope enhancement.
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Why is it important to know the timeframe when working towards your savings goals?
Knowing the "when" of your financial goals is crucial because investing for short-term versus long-term goals differs, depending on how long you can keep your money invested, you will need to adopt a different investing approach.
What exactly do you mean by "timeframe of saving goals"?The framework of saving goals involves the time period for which an individual has been planning to save the amount. The planning framework can be of short term or long term.
Examples of short-term goals include: getting a new car or paying off student loans, whereas long-term objectives could be things :like putting money down for retirement, funding your children's education, or purchasing a second house.
Setting a deadline for achieving your goal can be helpful after you know how much money you need to save and your savings objective. This will encourage you even more to make progress toward your financial objectives.
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Assume a cash flow of $82,400 in the first year and $148,600 in the second year. Also assume a present value of $303,764.34 at a discount rate of 12.75 percent. What is the cash flow in the third year if that is the only other cash flow
Suppose the price of a cookie is $1.50 and cookies are produced in a competitive market. When Cathy's Cookies produces 200 cookies, the average fixed cost is $2.00, the average variable cost is $1.00 and the marginal cost is $1.50. To maximize profit, Cathy should a.continue producing 200 cookies in the short run b.produce more than 200 cookies in the short run c.produce fewer than 200 cookies but continue producing in the short run d.shut down in the short run
To maximize the profit Cathy should (B) produce more than 200 cookies in the short run.
What is the average marginal cost?The difference in total cost when another unit is produced is referred to as the marginal cost; the average cost is the total cost divided by the number of units produced.What is the average variable cost?In economics, the variable cost per unit is known as the average variable cost. Divide the entire variable cost by the output to get the average variable cost. In the short term, the enterprises use the average variable cost to determine whether to stop production.Solution -We know that marginal cost includes a variable cost.
So, to find profit subtract marginal cost by average fixed cost.
[tex]2.00-1.50 = 0.50[/tex]
[tex]0.50 * 200 = 100[/tex]
Profit when 200 cookies are sold = $100.
Therefore, to maximize the profit Cathy should (B) produce more than 200 cookies in the short run.
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Asset A has an expected return of 17 percent and standard deviation of 5 percent. Asset B has an expected return of 15 percent and standard deviation of 5 percent. Which asset would a rational investor choose
Asset A would be rational to the investor.
The standard deviation indicates the asset's risk. A low standard deviation indicates that data is clustered around the mean, whereas a high standard deviation indicates that data is more dispersed.
The standard deviation is used to measures how dispersed the data is. It represents the degree to which each observed value deviates from the mean.. Furthermore, increased risk is offset by higher reward. As a result, a bigger return is required for an asset with a higher standard deviation.
Both assets have a standard deviation of 5 in this scenario, but Asset A has a larger predicted return.
As a result, a sensible investor will select Asset A since it offers a larger return with the same risk.
Thus, correct answer is option A.
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Trading in company stocks> interest income only
Based on the merits and demerits of stocks and interest incomes, it is false to say that one is better than the other.
Which is better between interest income and stocks?Interest income is more appealing to certain people such as those who don't want to incur a lot of risk because interest-based investments such as bonds are generally safer.
Stocks are appealing to people who don't mind higher levels of risk as stock returns are generally riskier.
These two things are therefore subjectively better depending on the risk tolerance of the investor.
Complete question:
Trading in company stocks> interest income only
True or False.
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If you are willing to buy a stock of Fast Skin Inc. and you hope to receive the option premium you should
If you are willing to buy a stock of Fast Skin Inc. and you hope to receive the option premium you should buy a put option on the stock of Fast Skin Inc.
What is put option?This is a contractual agreement in which an owner has a right to sell shares at a stated price but it is not obligatory.
Here, the predetermined price where the option put the buyer to sell at the strike price.
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If large numbers of individuals choose to behave as free riders, more of the public good will be available for paying riders. the public good may never be provided. public goods will quickly be privatized. public domain technologies become more difficult to obtain.
Most time, the public good may never be provided if a large numbers of individuals choose to behave as free riders.
Who are free riders?This refers to people that wants others to pay for a public good and rather plans to use the goods for their personal gains.
Because of this, the outcome will be that public good may never be provided.
Therefore, the Option B is correct
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Whole Earth Provision Company sells online through its website, while also selling through physical store locations. This type of retailing is referred to as
The answer is Bricks and clicks.
A click-and-mortar store is also referred to as a bricks-and-clicks business.
It is one where the merchant operates both an internet store and a physical retail outlet.
The strategy combines two revenue streams, enabling companies to increase their customer base.
Additionally, it gives current consumers new purchasing options.
The omnichannel retail approach was formerly referred to as "bricks and clicks" in the UK.
Traditional retailers who have significant logistics and supply networks but are well-known and frequently valued for their conventional physical presence have traditionally employed this model.
Hence, in the given case when Whole Earth Provision Company sells online through its website, while also selling through physical store locations. This type of retailing is referred to as Bricks and clicks.
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True or False: The term developing country (DVC) is applied to rich nations like the United States and Germany because their economies are always growing quickly by developing new technologies.
The term developing country (DVC) is applied to rich nations like the United States and Germany because their economies are always growing quickly by developing new technologies.
The given statement is false.
The term "developing" refers to a cutting-edge situation and now not a changing dynamic or expected path of improvement.
Because of the late 1990s, countries identified by means of the UN as developing countries tended to illustrate better-increased quotes than the ones in the developed countries class.
In keeping with the UN, a developing us of a is a country with an incredibly low trend of dwellings, an undeveloped commercial base, and a mild to low Human Development Index (HDI).
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Frank is considering a new job. However he is concerned about his pension fund. He knows that ________ which is the requirement that he must work for his firm for a specified period of time prior to gaining ownership of the retirement contributions made by his employer has to be met first. Question 58 options: tenuring certifying vesting validating None of these
Frank is considering a new job. However he is concerned about his pension fund. He knows that Vesting which is the requirement that he must work for his firm for a specified period of time prior to gaining ownership of the retirement contributions made by his employer has to be met first.
What is a Vesting?“Vesting” in a retirement plan means ownership. This means that each employee will vest, or own, a certain percentage of their account in the plan each year. An employee who is 100% vested in his or her account balance owns 100% of it and the employer cannot forfeit, or take it back, for any reason.
Participants in a defined-benefit retirement plan need to understand the plan's vesting schedule so they know when they are eligible to receive full benefits. Pension vesting for employer contributions in a private pension plan is set by federal law and follows either a cliff vesting or a gradual vesting schedule.
Governmental and church pension plans are not subject to ERISA regulations. Exceptions to ERISA and breaks in your employment record with an employer can alter vesting and the amount of pension you're entitled to.
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As people buy more and more of a service, their consumer surplus Multiple Choice decreases. falls to zero. increases. becomes negative.
As customers buy more and more of a service, their consumer surplus becomes zero.
Consumer surplus is an economic measure of the advantages received by consumers. A consumer surplus occurs when the price that consumers pay for a product or service is less than the price that they are willing to pay.
When demand for a product or service is entirely elastic, the consumer surplus for that product or service is zero. This is due to buyers' willingness to match the product's or service's price. When demand is completely elastic, consumer surplus is unlimited since a change in price has no effect on demand.
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Return on investment (ROI) for a firm is _______. a. the firm's total assets multiplied by net profits after taxes b. a measure of the firm's effectiveness in generating profits with the available assets c. the margin of profit earned by the firm inclusive of the taxes payable by the firm d. lower than the previous year if the firm has performed better in the market
Return on investment (ROI) for a firm (B) measures management's overall effectiveness in generating profits with the available assets.
What is the return on investment?A ratio between net income and investment is known as return on investment or return on costs. A high ROI indicates that the returns on the investment outweigh the costs. ROI is used as a performance metric to assess an investment's effectiveness or to compare the effectiveness of multiple distinct investments.What are profits?The difference between an economic entity's revenue from its outputs and the opportunity costs of its inputs is what is known as a profit. It is equivalent to total income less total expenses, which includes both direct and indirect expenses.What are assets?Any resource that a company or other economic organization owns or controls is considered an asset in financial accounting. Anything that has the potential to provide positive economic value qualifies.The ownership value that can be turned into cash is represented by assets.Therefore, return on investment (ROI) for a firm (B) measures management's overall effectiveness in generating profits with the available assets.
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A start-up software company hires Kiera as its first human resource manager. Whenever a new position needs to be filled, Kiera sits down with the supervisor to gather facts that will be included in a realistic job preview. Kiera knows that the impact of job previews on candidates is limited, but she believes the effort is important anyway. Which statement best explains Kiera's decision to provide realistic job previews?
A) The recruiter is less important than personnel policies for affecting a candidate's decision.
B) Realism in the recruiter's message is the most researched aspect of recruiting.
C) Kiera feels pressure to exaggerate the negative qualities of each job vacancy.
D) Employees are highly sensitive to negative information.
E) Giving realistic information is not expensive or difficult, so it is worth even a small benefit.
Realism in the recruiter's message is the most researched aspect of recruiting.
What is a recruitment message?A recruiting tool called a Realistic Position Preview (RJP) is used to explain both the positive and negative aspects of a job. In essence, it is utilized to give a potential employee a truthful understanding of what the job entails.Recruitment messages are cold outreach letters that recruiters send to prospective employees in an effort to spark interest in open positions. Email and social media profiles can also be utilized to send recruitment messages, while LinkedIn is the most popular platform for recruiter outreach.What benefit can a realistic recruitment message offer?On the human side, it is also probable to improve the candidate experience to give a realistic overview of the position. Although employing a realistic job preview will certainly result in fewer candidates, it will raise the caliber of those who do apply.
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Effective sales promotion activities target: Group of answer choices employees only. customers only. employees, dealers and customers. dealers only.
Effective sales promotion activities target dealers and customers.
What is an effective sales promotion?
Sales promotion are all the activities and methods undertaken by a producer to increase sales of its products to the users or marketers of the products. The users of a product include customers and dealers are the marketers of the product. An effective sales promotion has to target both parties.
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The plan that gives employees some ability to adjust when they work, along with a predetermined core work time to meet high demand times is called
The plan that gives employees some ability to adjust when they work, along with a predetermined core work time to meet high demand times is called flextime.
Who are the employees?An employee is a person who has been engaged by an employer to do a certain task. Following a selection as an employee following an application and interview procedure, the employee is hired by the business. The candidate is chosen once the company determines that they are the most qualified candidate for the position for which they are employed.What is flextime?Flextime is a flexible work schedule that gives employees the freedom to change their workdays and choose or modify their start and end timings.Therefore, the plan that gives employees some ability to adjust when they work, along with a predetermined core work time to meet high demand times is called flextime.
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An increase in government spending raises income: a. and the interest rate in the short run, but leaves both unchanged in the long run. b. in the short run, but leaves it unchanged in the long run, while lowering investment. c. in the short run, but leaves it unchanged in the long run, while lowering consumption. d. and the interest rate in both the short and long runs.
An increase in government spending raises income (B) in the short run, but leaves it unchanged in the long run, while lowering investment.
What is government spending?All government purchases, investments, and transfer payments are included in what is known as government spending or expenditure. Government final consumption spending is defined in national income accounting as the purchase by governments of goods and services for immediate consumption, to primarily meet the individual or collective needs of the community. Government investment is defined as the purchase of goods and services by the government with the intention of generating future benefits, such as infrastructure investment or research spending (government gross capital formation). Together, these two categories of government spending—on final consumption and gross capital formation—make up one of the primary parts of the GDP.
Therefore, an increase in government spending raises income (B) in the short run, but leaves it unchanged in the long run, while lowering investment.
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The real-balances effect is illustrated by which of the following examples? multiple choice 2 The fees at your college fall. Your favorite pizza place offers a two-for-one pizza sale. You get a raise at work. You find a coffee shop that has your favorite coffee.
A good example of the real-balances effect is when your favorite pizza place offers a two-for-one pizza deal.
The impact of changes in the real value of money balances on spending. As prices rise during an inflationary period, the real purchasing power of the money that people already possess decreases. People should become more inclined to conserve money and less inclined to spend it as a result of this.
What exactly is the real-balances effect?The purchasing power of the public's amassed savings decreases as prices rise.
Who had developed the idea of a true balance effect?The following presumptions serve as the foundation for Don Patinkin's true balance effect theory: The actual magnitudes of economic variables could not be altered by money.
What is a real-balance effect implication?As prices rise, the portion of your wealth that you keep in cash depreciates somewhat. Growth in total supply has lagged behind growth in total demand.
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A classified balance sheet: Multiple Choice Randomly groups items into assets, liabilities and equity. Organizes assets and liabilities into subgroups. Measures a company's ability to earn net income. Reports the effect of profit and dividends on retained earnings. Reports operating, investing, and financing activities.
A classified balance sheet Organizes assets and liabilities into important subgroups that provide more information.
What is a Balance Sheet?A financial statement that lists a company's assets, liabilities, and shareholder equity at a certain point in time is referred to as a balance sheet. The foundation for calculating investor return rates and assessing the capital structure of a company is provided by balance sheets. The balance sheet is a financial statement that gives a quick overview of the assets and liabilities of a firm as well as the amount of shareholder investment. When doing basic analysis or calculating financial ratios, balance sheets can be utilized in conjunction with other crucial financial data. A company's balance sheet gives a quick snapshot of its financial situation at any one time. On its alone, it cannot provide an understanding of the tendencies manifesting over a longer time frame.Know more about Balance Sheet with the help of the given link:
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A bond is a Question 19 options: financial intermediary. certificate of indebtedness. certificate of partial ownership in an enterprise. None of the above is correct.
A bond is a b. certificate of indebtedness.
A zero percent debt certificate (zero percent I or simply C's I) is Treasury securities that do not earn interest. It is intended to be used as a source of funding for the purchase of eligible interest-bearing securities. There is no limit to the amount that CofI can hold.
Certificates of deposit (CDs), promissory notes, bond certificates, floaters, and other bonds are all called promissory notes because they are in the form of obligations issued by the government or legal entity that charges the owner. To the issuer's unsecured assets
Bonds are promissory notes that specify the borrower's obligations to bondholders.
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What is the correct order of regulatory agency jurisdiction changes to non-corporate California real estate syndicates since The Real Estate Syndicate Act's inception in 1970
The correct order of regulatory agency jurisdiction changes to non-corporate California real estate syndicates since The Real Estate Syndicate Act's inception in 1970
The Department of Corporations, The California Bureau of Real Estate, The Department of CorporationsWhat is Real Estate?Generally, Land plus the structures, roads, and other infrastructure added to it make up the improvements that make up the real estate.
In conclusion, Since The Real Estate Syndicate Act's introduction in 1970, the proper sequence of regulatory agency jurisdiction changes to non-corporate California real estate syndicates has been as follows:
Businesses, the State of California Real Estate Board, and the State of California Department of Corporations
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