Suppose the sample space for a probability experiment has 48 elements. If items from the sample space are selected without replacement, how many different ways can you select all of the items?

An expression is defined as a set of numbers, variables, and mathematical operations. The correct option is B.

In mathematics, an expression is defined as a set of numbers, variables, and mathematical operations formed according to rules dependent on the context.

The expression that has a "x" term with a coefficient of 1 is the expression that has positive one in from of the term that has x in the expression.

Now, If all the options are observed, then it can be found that the second option has x term with leading coefficient as 1.

Hence, the correct option is B.

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In attachment I have answered this problem.

The value of x {0 < x < (π/2)} satisfying (cos x / cosec x + 1) + (cos x / cosec x-1) = 2 ​is x = π/4.

Since cos x /(cosec x + 1) + cos x /(cosec x - 1) = 2 ​

Taking the L.C.M (cosecx + 1)(cosecx - 1), we have

[cosx(cosecx - 1) + cosx(cosecx + 1)]/(cosecx + 1)(cosecx - 1) = 2

[cosxcosecx - cosx + cosxcosecx + cosx]/(cosec²x - 1²) = 2

[cosx/sinx - cosx + cosx/sinx + cosx]/(cosec²x - 1²) = 2

[cotx - cosx + cotx + cosx]/(cosec²x - 1) = 2

collecting like terms, we have

[cotx + cotx + cosx - cosx ]/(cosec²x - 1) = 2

[2cotx + 0]/(cosec²x - 1) = 2

2cotx/(cosec²x - 1) = 2

cotx/(cosec²x - 1) = 1

Since cot²x + 1 = cosec²x ⇒ cot²x = cosec²x - 1

So, cotx/(cosec²x - 1) = 1

cotx/cot²x = 1

1/cotx = 1

tanx = 1

Taking inverse tan of both sides, we have

x = tan⁻¹(1)

x = 45°

x = 45 × π/180

x = π/4

So, the value of x {0 < x < (π/2)} satisfying (cos x / cosec x + 1) + (cos x / cosec x-1) = 2 ​is x = π/4.

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[tex]\huge\underline\mathtt\colorbox{cyan}{3/8}[/tex]

[tex]\huge\mathsf\colorbox{white}{}[/tex]

Total shared part:

1/4 + 1/8

Taking LCM and adding:

2/8+1/8

Adding gives:

3/8

Answer:

The equation

Step-by-step explanation:

I need the equation so I can answer your question.

Given function:-

Degree of the given function is the highest power of the variable.

We have variable x there.

So, we can say:

Degree = 6 ( an even degree)

And leading coefficent is the coefficent of highest power term.

We have highest power term is 2x^6.

So, the leading coefficent is : 2 (Positive number)

For even degree and positive leading coefficent, end behaviour is

x --> ∞  f(x) = +∞

x-->-∞   f(x) = +∞

it will be equal to the photo

median 5

Answer:

P=140cm

Step-by-step explanation:

P=2(l+w)

d=w2+l2

Solving forP

P=2w+2d2﹣w2=2·30+2·502﹣302=140cm

Hope This Kind of Helps

Answer: 140cm

P=2(l+w)  

P=2w+2d2﹣w2=2·30+2·502﹣302=140cm

Answer:

480

we round up because the last number is bigger than 5

Answer:

3

Step-by-step explanation:

4x+2=5x-1

4x - 5x = -1 -2

x = 3

Answer:

  width: 37.9 ft

  height: 39.7 ft

Step-by-step explanation:

Sometimes it is easier to work these problems by finding the average of the length and width. If that value is x, then the length is x+0.9, and the width is x-0.9. The area is ...

  A = LW

  1504.6 = (x +0.9)(x -0.9) = x^2 -0.81

  1505.41 = x^2

  x = √1505.41 ≈ 38.7996

  width = x -0.9 = 38.8 -0.9 = 37.9

  height = 38.8 +0.9 = 39.7

The width of the door is approximately 37.9 ft; the height is about 39.7 ft.

Answer: 24

Step-by-step explanation

8-8-16-24-32-40

6-6-12-18-24-30-36

Answer:

C I think.

Step-by-step explanation:

I don't know for sure, but A, B and D all talk about adding or subtracting the answers together, while C tells us to find the fraction of a fraction so I'm pretty sure you multiply. Hope this helps!

Check the picture below.

so then γ ≈ 180 - 69 - 43, γ ≈ 68.

Answer:

76

Step-by-step explanation:

38 multiplied by 2 = 76

Answer:

76

Step-by-step explanation:

2*38 is as follows

8*2=16

2*30=60

now simply put, 16+60=76

Answer:

1-2

Step-by-step explanation:

honestly idek what this stuff is I just need points

Answer:

D. Compound interest accrues on the interest, as well as the

principal.

Answer:

D. Compound interest accrues on the interest, as well as the

principal.

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

[tex]g(x) = {x}^{2} - 2[/tex]

To find g(2) - 2 first find g(2) by substituting the value of x that's 2 into the original expression after that subtract 2 from the final answer obtained.

We have

[tex]g(2) = {2}^{2} - 2 \: \: \: \: \: \: \: \: \: \: \\ = 4 - 2 = 2 \\ \\ \\ g(2) - 2 = 2 - 2 = 0[/tex]

We have the final answer as

Hope this helps you

we need the image to solve the problem

The value of x from the expression is [tex]\frac{ln8-8}{3}[/tex]

Given the exponential function [tex]e^{3x+8}=8[/tex]

Take the natural logarithm of both sides:

[tex]lne^{3x+8}=ln8\\3x +8=ln8[/tex]

Subtract 8 from both sides:

[tex]3x-8+8=ln8-8\\3x=ln8-8[/tex]

Divide both sides by 3:

[tex]\frac{3x}{3} =\frac{ln8-8}{3}\\x= \frac{ln8-8}{3}[/tex]

Hence the value of x from the expression is [tex]\frac{ln8-8}{3}[/tex]

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Answer:

Either one: the two line have a point in common, or infinite: they are the same line.

Answer:

(0,-3), (1,1)

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

$92.43 / 0.74 = $124.91

The total bill is equal to $124.9

A percentage is a number or ratio that can be expressed as a fraction of 100. If we have to calculate the percent of a number, divide the number by the whole and multiply by 100. Hence, the percentage means, a part per hundred. The word percent means per 100. It is represented by the symbol “%”

Given here, the given bill as 74% of the total bill as $92.43

Thus the total bill must be = 92.43×100/74

                                            = $124.9

Hence, The total bill is equal to $124.9

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[tex]e^{2x} = \ln(y^3)\\\\\implies e^{2x} = 3 \ln y\\\\\implies \dfrac{d}{dx} e^{2x} = 3\dfrac{d}{dx}( \ln y)\\\\\implies 2e^{2x} = 3 \cdot \dfrac 1y \cdot \dfrac{dy}{dx}\\\\\implies 3\dfrac{dy}{dx} = 2ye^{2x}\\\\\implies \dfrac{dy}{dx} = \dfrac{2y}3 e^{2x}[/tex]

Answer:

f(x)=|x+6|

Step-by-step explanation:

it moves 6 to the left!

Answer:

B. slope

Step-by-step explanation:

By knowing that S is bisected by the line shown, we will conclude that PD = 8

So here we know that PC = 8, we also can see that:

Notice that because the blue line bisects S, the angle at "S" on both of these right triangles is the same, and because both of these are right triangles, both must have a 90° angle.

Finally, if two angles are equal, then the 3 angles must be equal between these two triangles.

And notice that both of these triangles share one side, then:

Triangles we know for sure that triangles PCS and PDS have the same angles and one equal side.

This implies that the triangles are congruent, thus, the measures of the corresponding sides must be the same.

Then the length of the shorter side of both triangles must be the same, in triangle PCS the short leg measures 8 units, then in triangle PDS the short leg, PD, also must measure 8 units.

So you are correct.

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If you know how to set up the format for long division, the answer is 9.5 because 4 goes into 3 zero times, and you don't necessarily need to write down the zero on top since it equals nothing in a whole number. then, 4 goes into 38 nine times. (yes 38 because you didn't do anything with the 3 so you just make it 38) 4 × 9 = 36. it doesn't exactly make 38, so you take away 36 from 38 and you are left with a remainder of 2. then to get no remainder, add a zero to the end of 38. so it would look something like 4/380 so you take down the zero next to the 2 so it makes 20, 4 × 5 = 20 and you are left with a remainder of 0 and the answer: 9.5 ( P.S.: added the decimal because it wasn't exactly equal when doing 4 × 9 so we had to add a zero)

Answer:

17% off a $35 dresser

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

Of course you don't agree with Suzie's conjecture - if there is a counterexample (and there is) to a conjecture, that conjecture is false.

Additional note:

Any sum of consecutive odd numbers starting with 1 is a perfect square. It can be proven mathematically, but the pleasant "proof" is to look at actual geometrical squares drawn from unit squares (like in your notebook).

When you have a square of NxN (N^2 unit squares), to go to the next square you need to add N on one side, N on a neighboring side, and 1 to fill the missing unit, for a total of adding 2N+1 squares and ending up with (N+1)x(N+1).

Because you can start from a 1x1 square and then add 2*1+1 = 3 to go to 2x2, then add 2*2+1=5 to go to 3x3 and so on.

Step-by-step explanation:

Timmy is not the brightest person for making this Venn diagram. He just needed to find 1 counterexample.