The question that what a researcher is trying to answer is known as a research question. Original data should be used to address a sound research topic, and the interpretations should do so.
What does the term "biodiversity" mean?The variety that animals, plants, fungal, and even germs like bacteria that make up our ecological landscape are all included in what is known as biodiversity. These many species and critters collaborate in complicated web-like ecosystems to keep things in balance & support life.
Briefing:To compare species richness, genetic diversity, and functional diversity for the location, researchers might look into the following questions:
How is the ecosystem's climate?
How much sunshine is received by each ecosystem?
Which species are present in each ecosystem?
What ecological functions are demonstrated in each ecosystem?
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Animals that are segmented and have jointed appendages and an exoskeleton are members of the phylum
a. True
b. False
Answer: True
have a good day.
Explanation:
a cross results in three phenotypes. a null hypothesis of recessive epistasis is tested. your calculated chi-square value is 5.4. assuming a p value of 0.05, do you reject the null hypothesis?
If the test result is statistically significant (P 0.05), the test hypothesis is unreliable or needs to be rejected.
What does P (0.05) mean in chi-square?
According to the ASA panel, the P value is "the probability that, given a certain statistical model, a statistical summary of the data (for example, the sample mean difference between the two compared groups) would be equal to or more extreme than its observed value."
P > 0.05 implies that the null hypothesis is likely to be true.
One less than the P value represents the probability that the alternative hypothesis is true.
The test hypothesis must be rejected if the test result is inaccurate or statistically significant (P 0.05).
No effect was detected if the P value was higher than 0.05.
We presumptively reject the null hypothesis until we have enough information to conclude otherwise. There are just two results that can arise from a hypothesis test. When p-value is less than or equal to significance level, the null hypothesis is rejected. The alternative hypothesis is supported by evidence.
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Why might the cricket genome have eleven times as many base pairs as that of drosophila melanogaster?
There must be more non-coding DNA in crickets. They include the genetic code for an enzyme that builds DNA from an RNA template.
The information molecule is DNA. It offers the information necessary to create proteins, another class of significant molecule. Your cells each have 46 significant genetic structures dispersed throughout these instructions. Genes are the many tiny DNA fragments that make up these chromosomes.
Today, DNA serves three unique purposes: genetic, immunological, and functional, each of which relies in a different way on the letters and the sugar-phosphate backbone and is significantly different from the others. In contemporary cells, ribonucleotide reductases disassemble ribonucleotides di- or tri to create DNA precursors.
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TRUE/FALSE. the 9:3:3:1 ratio exhibited in the f2 generation of a dihybrid cross is a genotypic ratio.
This statement is FALSE that the 9:3:3:1 ratio exhibited in the f2 generation of a dihybrid cross is a genotypic ratio.
A dihybrid crosses two characteristics. One allele for each attribute displays total dominance since both parents are heterozygous. This indicates that although the phenotype is dominant, both parents carry recessive alleles. The dihybrid cross's anticipated phenotypic ratio is 9: 3: 3: 1.
All plants in the F1 generation are heterozygous yellow round (YyrRr). When this plant is self-pollinated, nine yellow round plants, three yellow wrinkled plants, three green round plants, and one green wrinkled plant are produced in the F2 generation. Dihybrid phenotypic ratio 9:3:3:1 refers to this. This Mendel is referred to as the "Law of Independent Amount."
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Look at the highlighted condons on the mrna. Use the menus to select the proper base pairs and make the anticodons
The correct base pairs and the anticodons are UAC, CUU, AUC.
Anticodon is defined as a succession of the three bases present on the exchange RNA (tRNA). Anticodon is free to the bases on courier RNA (mRNA). During interpretation, anticodon matches with the codon on a strand of mRNA. Anticodon on the tRNA guarantee that the right amino corrosive will be added for the making of polypeptide chain during interpretation interaction of the protein combination.
It is consequently, the anticodon are the integral nucleotide base succession of the codons on mRNA. For the codes given on mRNA are AUG GAA and UAG, then the anticodons will be UAC, CUU and AUC on tRNA.
Hence, correct base pairs are UAC,CUU,AUC.
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(Complete question) is:
Look at the highlighted condons on the mrna. Use the menus to select the proper base pairs and make the anticodons.m RNA has a sequence of GAU ,CUA, AGU, AAU ,GCC ,GGA ,AUA ,CUA, GCC . The first highlighted codon is AUG. The second is GAA. The third is UAG.
If a tuna fish farm required 26 pounds of fish to produce 1 pound of tuna is this a sustainable farm?
Answer:
no it's not.
Explanation:
since youre consuming a 26 pounds compared to its original weight of the fish
How do the photoperiodism and vernalization affect the flowering and dormancy of plants?
The modulation of physiology or development in relation to day duration is known as photoperiodism. Some plant species can only blossom and go into reproductive times of the year due to photoperiodism.
What is photoperiodism ?Plants may adjust to seasonal variations in their surroundings through photoperiodism, which is a reaction to changes in daylength. Although blooming is the most well-studied manifestation of photoperiodism in plants, additional reactions to daylength include bud hibernation and bulb or tubers initiation.
What influences the photoperiodism?Although photoperiodic responses may be adequately anticipated, an organism's response can also vary depending on temperature, food, and other external conditions. Animals' usual migration, reproduction, and coat or plumage changes can be generated out of season by manipulating the length of the day artificially.
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Why do you think it is important for bear to be different
Analysis:
Bears are important links in food webs and help maintain populations of deer and other prey species through predation. At one time, bears were widespread across the United States. However, threats such as habitat loss and unregulated hunting greatly reduced the areas where they can be found.
Although the bear safety rhyme “If it's brown, lay down. If it's black, fight back. If it's white, goodnight” sounds like good advice, you have to know why a bear is attacking you before you can decide the best way to respond. It mainly describe each type of bear to maintain the ecosystem.
Bears are one of the most intelligent land animals in North America. They have the largest and most complex brains compared to other land mammals their size and they rely on this brain for a number of behaviors. Bears are among the most beloved wild animals.
Bear Symbol represents strength, family, vitality courage and health. The bear is thoughtful and independent, with little need for fellowship. The bear is also self-contained and strong-willed in nature.
For example:
1/ The extinction of the grizzly bears would leave a significant impact on an ecosystem. We know that grizzle bears feed on herbivores species. So, if there are no grizzly bears, the number of herbivores species will increase and as a result number of plant species will decrease since herbivores depend on plants.
2/ When attacking humans, black bears will rear up on their hind legs and knock victims over with their paws. They then make one or two bites on an arm or leg and finish with a snap to the head, this being the most dangerous part of the attack.
Amazing Facts About the Bear
Bears are extraordinarily intelligent animals. ...
Bears grieve deeply for others. ...
Bears have excellent senses of smell, sight and hearing. ...
Some species of Asiatic bear build nests in the trees. ...
Bears care deeply about family members.
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a sudden, traumatic, complete transection of the spinal cord results in what type of injury below the site?
A complete transection of the spinal cord occurs as a result of a sudden, traumatic transection Flaccid paralysis.
what is Flaccid paralysis ?
Flaccid paralysis is a neurological illness characterised by weakness or paralysis and decreased muscle tone for no apparent reason (e.g., trauma). This aberrant situation can be caused by illness or damage to the nerves that control the implicated muscles. If the somatic nerves to a skeletal muscle are severed, the muscle will show flaccid paralysis. Muscles become limp and unable to contract when they reach this stage. This illness can be lethal if it affects the breathing muscles, causing asphyxia. It also happens at the spinal shock stage in total transection of the spinal cord caused by accidents such as gunshot wounds.
A complete transection of the spinal cord occurs as a result of a sudden, traumatic transection Flaccid paralysis.
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why was he only able to travel at night in the second part of the movie the martian
In the second part of the movie, Mark Watney (the Martian) had to travel at night in order to conserve power and to avoid detection by Martian rovers. Traveling during the day would have required the use of solar energy which would have been too risky due to the risk of detection. Additionally, the night-time temperatures were cooler which allowed for more efficient use of his limited power supply.
In a bee colony1) Few adult workers, brood pattern is spotty, drone brood or drone adults are not necessarily present2) Few adult workers, brood few and irregular, multiple eggs in cells, lots of adult drones, brood limited to drone brood3) Lots of adult workers, lots of capped brood, lots of young larvae, lots of eggs, no queen cells4) Lots of adult workers, lots of capped brood, lots of young larvae, few or no eggs, queen cells present and at various stages of development5) Moderate number of adult workers, moderate amount of capped brood, no young larvae, no eggs, ripe queen cells present, multiple queen cells present with tips opened6) Moderate number of adult workers, moderate amount of capped brood, no young larvae, no eggs, opened queen cells present, some queen cells present opened at the sides7) Moderate number of adult workers, moderate amount of capped brood, moderate number of eggs and young larvae, 2-3 queen cells of similar age8) Moderate number of adult workers, lots of eggs and young larvae, no capped brood
Solitary bees live and nurture their young on their own. Without the assistance of another bee, each female bee constructs and protects her own nest, lays her own eggs, and harvests nectar and pollen for her brood.
1) This circumstance indicates that the colony lacks a queen and has laying workers. If the colony is left without a queen for an extended length of time, it may develop laying workers since worker bees are females with ovaries and the ability to lay eggs. They will, however, be able to lay only infertilized eggs.
2) This state of bees in honey bees indicates that the queen is generating inbred progeny for a variety of causes. Perhaps the queen is a weak queen, meaning she did not mate properly or was unable to produce a large number of eggs, or she was forced to mate with their brothers due to low bee density. Worjer bees detect inbred eggs and expel them from the hive after the queens oviposit them, resulting in a splotchy brood pattern.
3) This scenario occurs when the colony is a fresh swarm that is rapidly growing. The existence of adult workers and a large number of capped brood suggests that the queen was present at some stage.
4) There are many adult workers present in a bee colony, as well as many capped broods and queen cells at various developmental stages, indicating that the colony has swarmed to a new home, with the old queen abandoning the previous hive as the new queen will soon emerge from the queen cells.
5) This signifies that the colony has swarmed and may swarm again once the new queen develops. Moderate mature workers and capped brood with numerous queen cells indicate that one group of bees swarmed to create a new hive with its old queen and that the next group will swarm soon after the new queen is hatched.
6) This signifies that the colony will swarm again soon and is prepared to swarm once the queen is fully matured for mating and egg laying after mating.
7) This circumstance indicates that the bee colony has surpassed its queen. When the present queen is not doing well in the hive, the female worker bees develop a new queen to supersede or take the old queen's position. As a result, bees create more than one cell in a hive to assure the birth of a healthy queen.
8) This state in a hive indicates that the colony has swarmed and will not swarm again. A hive with a lot of eggs indicates that the colony is swarming and will continue to swarm if there are too many queen cells. As a result of the swarming of colonies, there are no capped broods.
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the chordate group includes these animals. a. arthropods b. mollusks c. invertebrates d. cnidarians e. vertebrates
The chordate group includes (c) vertebrates.
Any animal that belongs to the phylum Chordata, which also contains the most highly evolved animals, the vertebrates (subphylum Vertebrata), as well as the tunicates (subphylum Tunicata) and cephalochordates, is referred to as a chordate (subphylum Cephalochordata). Some classifications pair the chordates with the phylum Hemichordata.
As the name suggests, a chordate has a strong, dorsal supporting rod at some point in its life cycle (the notochord). The gill openings that open from the throat to the external, a tail that extends behind and above the anus, a hollow nerve cord above (or dorsal to), and an endostyle (a mucus-secreting structure) or its derivative between the gill slits are further characteristics of chordates. (A distinguishing trait might only exist in the developing embryo and vanish when the embryo develops into the adult form.) The nearly allied phylum Hemichordata has a relatively similar body arrangement.
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an anthropologist finds a fossil in africa that appeared less than 100,000 years ago. to which species could the specimen belong?homo neanderthalensishomo habilishomo erectushomo sapiens
Anthropologists discover many fossils from various species of human-like ancestors in Africa. The fossil that is less than 100,000 years old could, potentially, belong to Homo neanderthalensis, Homo habilis, Homo erectus, or Homo sapiens.
Homo neanderthalensis is the best candidate for the fossil in question. This species is believed to have lived in Europe and the Middle East from about 400,000 to 40,000 years ago. It is possible that some individuals migrated to Africa and survived until recently. Homo neanderthalensis was short and stocky, but otherwise similar to Homo sapiens in anatomy.
Homo habilis is another possibility. This species is believed to have evolved in Africa between 2.8 million and 1.5 million years ago. It had a smaller brain than Homo neanderthalensis and Homo sapiens, and a less advanced tool-making culture.
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Answer:D is correct
Explanation:
Part C
in a separate location, take notes from the sources you have identified. This might take place over two or mo
notes will provide the details for your presentation. While taking notes, consider using these reading strategi
your notes, select one piece of evidence supporting or opposing the idea that natural gas is a clean energy so
in the space provided.
Answer:
When making notes about sources in an academic paper, you must show the origin and effectiveness of that source.
We can arrive at this answer because:
A research source is an academic material that has been consulted to provide information for other academic work.In addition, these sources must provide evidence and data that proves that how information conveyed in academic work is correct.In this case, when evaluating the use of a source, you should look at the origin of that source and whether it is efficient, that is, whether it can support academic work.
You have not provided enough information for your question to be answered specifically. However, I hope the above information can help you.
Explanation:
Which best explains why a satellite accelerates?
It is always changing direction.
It is constantly slowed by gravity.
It does not have forces acting on it.
It is weightless when it is in orbit.
identify each of the following reactions as an isomerization, phosphorylation, or phosphate transfer.
The final compound from the reaction of isomerization is fructose-6-phosphate, phosphorylation is fructose-1,6-bisphosphate and phosphate transfer is 3-phosphoglycerate.
Isomerization: Isomerization is required for the transformation of n-butane to isobutane, which serves as extra feedstock to alkylation units, as well as the conversion of conventional pentanes and hexanes to higher branching isomers for gasoline blending.
glucose-6-phosphate → fructose-6-phosphate
dihydroxy acetone phosphate--> glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate dihydroxy acetone phosphate → glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate
Phosphorylation: The process of attaching a phosphoryl molecule to a peptide is known as phosphorylation. This process is essential in biological systems for free energy storage and transfers via the energy transport mechanism.
fructose-6-phosphate → fructose-1,6-bisphosphate
glucose ÷ right arrow glucose-6-phosphateglucose→glucose-6-phosphate
Phosphate Transfer: When one phosphate group is eliminated by dissolving a phosphoanhydride bond, a process known as hydrolysis occurs, releasing energy and converting ATP to adenosine diphosphate (ADP).
phosphoenolpyruvate → pyruvate;
1,3-bisphosphoglycerate → 3-phosphoglycerate
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gingival papillae that are enlarged and expand out of the interproximal spaces are described as: group of answer choices a) blunted papilla b) bulbous papilla c) cratered papilla d) soft, spongy tissue
Option B is Correct - bulbous papilla
Papilla bulgous. a papilla that has grown larger and seems to protrude from the interproximal area. Bowed papilla. The interproximal gap is unfilled and papillae are flat. Papilla with cracks.
Inflammation alone can lead to gingival hyperplasia. Plaque accumulation on the teeth from food, bacteria, and poor cleanliness habits frequently results in the irritation. The gums may become red and painful from the inflammation, and bleeding may result.
The gingivae are soft and discolored in chronic inflammatory gingival hypertrophy, which is the most typical type. Scaling and root planning are common periodontal procedures used to treat this condition, which is brought on by tissue edema and infectious cellular infiltration brought on by extended exposure to bacterial plaque.
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which method or methods of controlling eukaryotic gene expression is noot employed in prokaryotic cells? select all that apply.
The following methods of controlling eukaryotic gene expression are NOT employed in prokaryotic cells:
controlling how an RNA transcript is splicedcontrolling which mRNAs are exported from the nucleus to the cytosolRibonucleic acid (RNA) is a nucleic acid found in any and all living cells that is structurally similar to DNA. RNA, unlike DNA, is typically single-stranded. An RNA molecule has a foundation made of varying phosphate groups and sugar ribose, instead of the deoxyribose that exists in DNA.
There are several varieties of RNA. The term "messenger RNA" refers to mRNA which is read by ribosomes to construct proteins. While all forms of RNA are responsible for protein construction, mRNA serves as the messenger.
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Complete question :
Which of these method(s) of controlling eukaryotic gene expression is NOT employed in prokaryotic cells?
A. controlling how often a gene is transcribed
B. controlling how an RNA transcript is spliced
C. controlling which mRNAs are exported from the nucleus to the cytosol
D. controlling which mRNAs are translated into protein by the ribosomes
E. controlling how rapidly proteins are destroyed once they are made
Classify the following traits as specific to either cells or viruses, or shared by both. Unique to cells: Shared by cells: and viruses Unique to viruses: Answer Bank: can actively respond to environmental stimuli contain genetic material protected by a protein coat can autonomously carry out biological processes contain genetic material capable of undergoing evolution by natural selection contain organelles that are bound by membranes
The traits which are: Unique to cells : can actively respond to environmental stimuli contain genetic material protected by a protein coat can autonomously carry out, shared by cells and viruses:
Contain genetic material capable of undergoing evolution by natural selection contain organelles that are bound by membranes, specific to viruses: contain genetic material capable of undergoing evolution by natural selection contain organelles that are bound by membranes
What are viruses?
A virus is a sub-microscopic infectious entity that can only replicate inside of live cells. All forms of life, including bacteria and archaea, as well as animals and plants, are susceptible to virus infection.
When a host cell is infected, it is frequently required to create thousands of copies of the original virus quickly. When not inside an infected cell or in the process of infecting a cell, viruses exist as independent particles, or virions. These virions are made up of the genetic material, which is long molecules of DNA or RNA that encode the structure of the proteins by which the virus acts; (ii) a protein coat, the capsid, which surrounds and protects the genetic material; and (iii) in some cases, an external envelope of lipids.
Every living organism relies on cells. Furthermore, it is regarded as the smallest unit of life and a fundamental structural, functional, and biological unit.A virus is a small infectious agent that is often referred to as a pathogen due to its non-living nature. However, they attach themselves to cells and rapidly replicate the original virus.To know more about viruses from the given link
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diuretics work to lower blood pressure by a. promoting vasodilation. b. decreasing blood volume. c. increasing sodium retention.
Diuretics work to lower blood pressure by b. decreasing blood volume.
Diuretics increase water flow out of the body. They do so by decreasing the sodium reabsorption. For the purpose, they also interact with Renin-Angiotensin system in the body, which is concerned with salt and water concentration in the body. The increase in sodium increases the solute concentration on outer side. To balance the solute and solvent concentration, water moves out. The water is removed that decreases the plasma volume.
Now, this water and salt can be excreted this achieving the intended function. The application of these medications is in the medical conditions hypertension, heart failure and edema.
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A microcope ha three objective len 4x 10x and 40x. The objective on a microcope that will magnify an object 40x i?
Students in grades 1-8 will often purchase a monocular compound microscope with three objective lenses: 4x, 10x, and 40x for a total magnification of 400x.
A high-power objective lens paired with a 10x eyepiece yields a total magnification of 400x, providing you with a remarkably detailed image of the specimen in the slide.
A microscope typically has three or four objective lenses. They usually invariably include powers of 4x, 10x, 40x, and 100x. When used in conjunction with a 10x (common) eyepiece lens, the overall magnification is 40x (4x times 10x), 100x, 400x, and 1000x.
Because 40 x 10 = 400, the total magnification of this microscope using the 40x lens would be 400 times.
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state whether each of the following components is present in dna only, rna only, or both dna and rna: a. deoxyribose b. guanosine monophosphate c. uracil d. ump
a) Deoxyribose is shown to be a DNA-specific component.
b) Guanosine monophosphate is shown to exclusively be a part of RNA.
c) It is established that uracil is a substance found solely in RNA.
d) RNA is found to have UMP as a component.
A chemical called deoxyribose is only present in DNA. It's one among the structural components of the nucleotide. DNA The components of a nucleotide are a deoxyribose sugar, a nitrogen base, and a phosphate group. A nitrogen base called uracil is unique to RNA. In RNA, uracil and adenine are base pairs. The RNA nucleotide uridine monophosphate () is made up of a nitrogen base, a five-carbon ribose sugar unit, and a phosphate group.
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which cells function as professional antigen presenting cells? multiple answers apply and all should be chosen.
Professional antigen-presenting cells (APCs) are immune cells specialized in presenting antigens to T cells. The main types of professional APCs are dendritic cells (DC), macrophages, and B cells.
Dendritic cells have the broadest spectrum of antigen presentation and are required for the activation of naive T cells. DCs present antigens to both helper T cells and cytotoxic T cells. It can also perform cross-presentation, the process of presenting exogenous antigens on MHC class I molecules to cytotoxic T cells.
Antigen-presenting cells are the first cells to interact with antigens and are involved in the processing, presentation, and interaction of antigens with the immune system. T cell antigen receptor.
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Which of the following is a strategy that some middle- and upper-class women have used to balance the demands of work and home? a. demanding that their husbands complete most chores b. doing more of certain chores c. hiring other women to do domestic work d. demanding the abolition of housework
Hiring other women to do domestic work is a strategy that some middle- and upper-class women have used to balance the demands of work and home.
Although women's work increases middle-class salaries, it also puts a strain on family time that needs to be alleviated.In recent decades, middle-class incomes have only slightly increased, and the majority of those increases are due to more women finding employment and receiving greater wages. However, with the majority of women now working, that source of income growth is dwindling. Women's labour force participation has increased since the last recession, although overall growth seems to have stagnated.
Whatever gains in middle-class earnings we have seen may completely disappear in the absence of new policies and practises that involve greater sharing of the costs of unpaid work in the house, more assistance for time-constrained working families, and higher pay for both men and women. That's why they hire other women for household work.
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to excite or inhibit an action potential in a receiving neuron, a neurotransmitter must cross the
To excite or inhibit an action potential in a receiving neuron, a neurotransmitter must cross the synaptic cleft.
When an action potential reaches the axon terminal of the presynaptic neuron, it triggers the release of neurotransmitter molecules into the synapse. These neurotransmitter molecules bind to receptors on the postsynaptic neuron, activating or inhibiting the postsynaptic neuron's ability to generate an action potential. The process of transmitting an action potential from one neuron to another across a synapse is called neurotransmission. It plays a crucial role in the communication between neurons and is essential for the proper functioning of the nervous system. In summary, to excite or inhibit an action potential in a receiving neuron, a neurotransmitter must cross the synaptic cleft between the presynaptic neuron and the postsynaptic neuron.
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all visceral organs receive dual innervation from both the sympathetic and parasympathetic divisions of the ans.
The statement is false.
Most organs are innervated by both sympathetic and parasympathetic nerves, but some organs, including the adrenal medulla, arrector pili muscles, sweat glands, and most blood vessels, receive only sympathetic nerves.
The heart and lungs have dual innervation. The action of the vagus nerve on cardiac pacemaker cells slightly affects the pace and force of contraction of the heart muscle. this is a parasympathetic role.
The abdominal and pelvic organs receive motor innervation from autonomic nerves derived from both the sympathetic and parasympathetic nervous systems.
Sensory nerves originating from the same visceral structures also travel along sympathetic and parasympathetic fibers. The thermoregulatory response to elevated heat is mediated by disruption of the sympathetic nervous system. Most disorders of the autonomic nervous system reflect abnormal smooth muscle control.
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the function of genes is to control the production of a. amino acids. b. structural proteins. c. all proteins. d. enzymes.
The function of genes is to control the production of all proteins. The process of replication, followed by transcription and translation are responsible for the production of all proteins.
What function do proteins serve in the human body?A few of the crucial biological functions of proteins include: Many proteins operate as catalysts to speed up certain metabolic pathways' chemical processes. Collagen, a structural component of connective tissues, is one of the fibrous proteins that make up the tissues holding the skeletal components together.
How do amino acids work?The fundamental chemical that forms the basis of proteins is an amino acid. Twenty distinct amino acids exist. A protein is made up of one or more polypeptide chains, or chains of amino acids, the sequence of which is encoded by a gene. While the body can synthesis some amino acids, others cannot and must be received from diet.
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when a scientific study yields the same results when it is repeated by the original or other researchers, it is said to exhibit:
When a scientific study yields the same results when it is repeated by the original researcher or other researchers, it is said to exhibit repeatability. The scientific study is sometimes repeated for a better result.
What is the scientific study?The scientific study is done to prove the hypothesis or to observe the result of the experiments, and sometimes one scientific study is done many times for better results because in a scientific study there is some chance of getting false results, although the procedure is taken care of.
Hence, when it is repeated by the original researcher or other researchers, it is said to exhibit repeatability.
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you've just had a near miss in your car. your pulse is racing and you notice your pupils are wide open when you look in your rearview mirror. what part of your autonomic nervous system is activated?
The part of the autonomic nervous system that is activated when you have a near miss in your car is the sympathetic nervous system.
The sympathetic nervous system is responsible for the activation of the “fight or flight” response. This response is triggered when the body perceives a threat, such as a near miss in a car. When the sympathetic nervous system is activated, it causes the heart rate to increase, the pupils to dilate, and other physical and mental reactions that prepare the body to either fight or run away from the perceived danger.
In the case of a near miss in a car, the body is preparing for either a fight to defend itself, or an escape from the perceived danger. This response is essential for survival and is controlled by the autonomic nervous system.
Our sympathetic nervous system also releases hormones like adrenaline and cortisol, which increase our alertness and help us focus on the task at hand. This is why we feel so tense and alert after a near miss in our car – our body is preparing us for possible danger.
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Around what does Earth revolve?
The earth revolves around the sun