muscularis Intra mural plexus is the name given to the plexus found between layers of muscle.
The myenteric plexus, a component of the enteric neural system, is located in the gastrointestinal tract between the longitudinal and circular layers of muscularis externa. It is present in the esophageal, stomach, and intestinal muscles.
Although the present ganglion cell bodies belong to parasympathetic innervation, fibers from sympathetic innervation also reach the plexus. The submucous plexus provides secretomotor innervation to the mucosa closest to the gut lumen. The myenteric plexus (or Auerbach's plexus) provides motor innervation to both layers of the muscular layer of the gut. It develops from cells in the medulla oblongata's vagal trigone, also referred to as the nucleus ala cinerea, the parasympathetic nucleus of origin for the tenth cranial nerve (vagus nerve).
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marco and natalia, two curious students, are interested in what happens in a plant seed very early in germination - before anything turns green. they put seeds dehydrated in a dark sealed container and measure (a) the amount of lipids and carbohydrates in the seed and (b) the amount of oxygen and co2 in the headspace (see the experimental setup below). they add water to initiate germination. very early after adding water they remeasure (a) and (b) from above. their data is displayed in the charts below.
Through respiration, the seed uses CO2 to oxidize some lipids to CO2 and transforms the remaining lipids to produce the majority of the increase in carbohydrates.
The ideal response is b.
How does a plant germinate?Germination is the process by which a seed transforms into a seedling. To germinate, seeds require the correct amount of moisture, oxygen, and temperature. When seeds are in a dormant state, they wait to germinate when the environment is favorable for their survival and growth.
What three phases make up germination?The germination process involves three main steps. These include increased metabolic activity, hydration, and cell swelling. The seed imbibes (absorbs) water to start the germination process.
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t cells are differentiated into two groups based on their glycoproteins: cd4 or cd8. which of the following is true of cd4 t cells?
According to the supplied remark, t cells were differentiated into either the cd4 or cd8 group depending on their glycoproteins. They develop into plasma cells.
What use does a glycoprotein serve?The immune system is one of several physiological processes that are affected by glycoproteins, which are molecules made up of protein and carbohydrate chains. Most viruses contain glycoproteins that aid in their ability to enter host cells and which can also be useful therapeutic or prophylactic targets.
What exactly are glycoproteins and where are they made?A protein and a covalently linked carbohydrate. Glycoproteins, which are created during the glycosylation process in the Golgi apparatus, are crucial parts of plasma membranes, where proteins extend all through the lipid bilayer.
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what are the biochemical cycles
Answer:water, carbon, nitrogen, and phosphorus
in the short-term, gains in ___ are a good indicator of nutritional status. the best indicator of long-term nutritional status in a child is gains in .
A person's intake of energy and/or nutrients can be deficient, excessive, or unbalanced in the case of malnutrition. The phrase "malnutrition" refers to
Anthropometric tests to evaluate growth and development, particularly in young children, are the most commonly used markers of nutritional status in a community. Doctors use the medical terminology "overweight" or "obesity" to determine if someone has a. Indicators of nutritional status for the CDC Growth Charts include obesity, overweight, underweight, and short stature. The percentage of low height-for-age indicates the cumulative impact of undernutrition and infections since birth, and even before birth. On a growth chart, percentiles are used to rank people or groups and show where they fall.
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3. What is the probability of a type BO mother and a type AO father having a type O child?
Answer:
B: 75% ////// O: 25%
Explanation:
So each child has a 75% of being B and a 25% chance of being O. Note that genetically, not all of the B blood type kids are the same. The BB child will only pass down the B version of the gene. The BO child can pass on their O gene version.
select the characteristics of slow-twitch muscle fibers. check all that apply. check all that apply few capillaries are present.few capillaries are present. these fibers are also known as white fibers.these fibers are also known as white fibers. myoglobin is present in high concentration.myoglobin is present in high concentration. mitochondria are numerous in these fibers.
The characteristics of slow-twitch muscle fibers are : myoglobin is present in high concentration and mitochondria are numerous in these fibers.
What kind of muscles have slow twitch fibers?
Slow-twitch muscle fibers are resistant to fatigue and concentrated on prolonged, delicate movements and postural control. Compared to fast-twitch fibers, they are more aerobic and have more mitochondria and myoglobin. Because of their blood supply, type I or red fibers are another name for slow-twitch fibers.
Since they have a lot of mitochondria, slow-twitch muscles are aerobic muscles, which means they utilise oxygen to produce ATP, the energy currency. If you have enough oxygen, they can sustain you.
The majority of your muscles are composed of a combination of slow- and fast-twitch muscle fibers. However, the soleus muscle in your lower leg and the muscles in your back that are responsible for maintaining your posture primarily consist of slow-twitch muscle fibers. Additionally, quick twitch muscle fibers make up the muscles that move your eyes.
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while the____will be most active during the encoding of a face stimulus, the____will be active during the delay period.
The answer to this question is fusiform gyrus and prefrontal cortex respectively.
What is fusiform gyrus?The temporal and occipital lobes' basal surfaces are connected by a structure called the fusiform gyrus, also called the occipitotemporal gyrus.
It is the biggest part of the human ventral temporal cortex, a functionally distinct area important for categorization of visual stimuli.
The fusiform gyrus has been linked to high-level visual processing activities, namely the processing of data related to faces, bodies, and stimuli with high spatial frequency, even though its exact role is still unknown.
The relationship between the fusiform gyrus' physical makeup and its physiological role is still up for debate.
Clinical applications including surgical planning for glioma removal and awake craniotomies may benefit from clarification of the fiber-bundle anatomy and functional linkages present in the fusiform gyrus.
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the sense of taste is also known as the sense of taste is also known as maculation. sublation. olfaction. gustation. proprioception.
Gustation is another name for the taste sense.
What in biology is gustation?Gustation is the term used to describe the recognition of taste with sensory neurons in the oral cavity, primarily on the tongue. The nose is covered with thousands of tiny bumps known as papillae, and each one of these contains millions of taste buds.
What is the gustation process?Gustation is the gustatory system's perception of the flavor or flavors of food that has been consumed. When molecules in food or any other substances interact with taste receptor cells found in the taste buds, taste is produced. In the oral mucosa, particularly on the tongue, are the taste buds.
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Which of the following types of cells would be produced by meiosis?
A) a haploid animal cell
B) a diploid unicellular organism
C) a diploid plant cell
D) a diploid animal cell
Answer:
a haploid animal cell
Explanation:
the answer is a haploid animal cell
TDQ1: If cells only ever went through the G0, G1, S, and G2 phases (collectively called interphase) of the cell cycle, how would it impact growth in living organisms? What would or wouldn't happen?
G2
This is the last phase before the cell enters mitosis. During G2, the cell grows and prepares for mitosis by producing the structures needed for the upcoming cell division. Another checkpoint at the end of G 2 determines if the cell has the required components to proceed into mitosis and divide.
Mitosis
Although it is the shortest phase of the cell cycle, mitosis is a time of great activity. Mitosis divides the nucleus, distributing DNA to each daughter cell. Mitosis goes through the steps of prophase, metaphase, anaphase, telophase, and ends with cytokinesis.
This answer is highlighted general aspect of cell cycle. A cell's life cycle can be compared to the cell cycle. In other words, it refers to the sequence of growth and development processes a cell.
Interphase and the mitotic (M) phase are the two main stages of the cell cycle in eukaryotic cells, or cells having a nucleus. The cell grows and copies its DNA during interphase. The cell physically expands during G 1, also known as the first gap phase, duplicates organelles, and produces the molecular building blocks required for subsequent processes.
The cell creates a full copy of the DNA in its nucleus during the S phase. During the M phase, the centrosomes aid in the separation of DNA. The cell grows more, produces proteins and organelles, and starts to restructure its internal structure in preparation for mitosis during the second gap phase, or G 2. The cell divides into two new cells during the mitotic (M) phase using its replicated DNA and cytoplasm. Mitosis and cytokinesis are separate division-related mechanisms that occur during the M phase.
Hence, cell cycle stages occur one after another.
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which of the following concepts was most at play in the murder of kitty genovese and the failure of others to assist her?
The bystander effect became a subject of significant interest following the brutal murder of American woman Kitty Genovese in 1964.
The bystander effect happens when the presence of others deters a person from meditating in a crisis circumstance, against a domineering person, or during an attack or other wrongdoing. The more noteworthy the quantity of observers, the more uncertain it is for any of them to give assistance to an individual in trouble. Scientists have observed that spectators are less inclined to mediate assuming the circumstance is equivocal. On account of Kitty Genovese, a significant number of the 38 observers revealed that they accepted that they were seeing a "sweetheart's squabble," and didn't understand that the young lady was really being killed.
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A trained person can produce more ATP more quickly than untrained person because regular training increases the number of mitochondria in the cells. t/f
A trained person can produce more ATP more quickly than an untrained person because regular training increases the number of mitochondria in the cells is True.
Aerobic exercise also strengthens the heart and lungs and promotes oxygen delivery to muscles during high-intensity activity. This improved oxygenation allows your muscles to burn more fat. The anaerobic energy system produces significantly less ATP than the aerobic energy system leading to the accumulation of lactate.
It consists of fast-twitch muscles such as lifting. Blood vessels widen and become more elastic blood pressure drops, and new capillaries are formed. All of these changes lead to long-term health benefits from regular exercise. A training effect occurs when the system is trained above normal.
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g you have a different mutant mouse who has low blood glucose in response to stress and you do not know where the mutation is. to help find out, you remove their pituitary gland and transplant a normal pituitary gland into this mouse. afterward this mouse still has low blood glucose in response to stress. given this data, this mouse might have a mutation in . . .group of answer choicescrhthe crh receptoractheither the crh receptor or acth
According to the given information,mouse might have mutation in a)CRH. So,correct option is a.
Hereditarily designed mice have instigated changes, including the transgenes, designated transformations (knockouts or knockins), and retroviral, proviral or the artificially actuated mutations. Transgenic mice convey a portion of unfamiliar DNA integrated into their genome through the non-homologous recombination (e.g., pronuclear microinjection), disease with the retroviral vector or the homologous inclusion.
From the diagram, it can see that mouse have mutation in CRH, where the value of hypothalamus is very high. Mutations is favored when quantity of hypothalamus is very high. Corticotropin- releasing hormone (CRH) is considered as the significant controller of the hypothalamic-pituitary-adrenal (HPA) hub, includes the wide range of activities inside the focal sensory system and the fringe. The turn of the events and utilization of Crh knockout mice (Crh-/ - ) has been the significant instrument for tending to the physiologic and pathologic jobs of CRH.
Hence, option a is correct.
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(Complete question) is:
You take a different mutant mouse who also has a low blood glucose in response to stress. To help find out, you remove their pituitary gland and transplant a normal pituitary gland into this mouse. This time, the mouse's blood glucose goes back to normal. Given this data, this mouse might have a mutation in A) CRH B) the CRH receptor C) ACTH D) Either the CRH receptor or ACTH
operon operator repressor regulatory gene corepressor trp operon tryptophan lac operon allolactose inducible operon vs. repressible operon activator inducer cyclic amp positive vs. negative gene regulation differential gene expression histone acetylation dna methylation epigenetic inheritance control elements micrornas small interfering rnas nucleic acid hybridization in situ hybridization
Operons are a type of gene regulatory structure found in prokaryotes. They consist of an operator and a series of structural genes that are transcribed together as a single mRNA. The operator is a DNA sequence that binds repressor proteins, which can then bind to the operator and prevent transcription of the structural genes.
There are two types of operons: the trp operon, which controls the synthesis of tryptophan, and the lac operon, which controls the metabolism of lactose.
The repressor proteins that bind to the operator sequences of operons can be either repressible or inducible. Repressible operons are activated by a corepressor molecule, which binds to the repressor and causes it to unbind from the operator. Inducible operons, on the other hand, are regulated by an activator molecule, which binds to the repressor and causes it to bind to the operator, thus activating transcription.
In addition to operons, gene expression can also be regulated by other mechanisms. Cyclic AMP (cAMP) is a molecule that can bind to DNA and activate transcription. This process is known as positive gene regulation. Negative gene regulation, on the other hand, is the process by which a repressor protein binds to a DNA sequence and prevents transcription.
Differential gene expression is the process by which the same gene is expressed at different levels in different cells or tissues. This can be regulated by epigenetic modifications, such as histone acetylation and DNA methylation. These modifications are heritable, and can be passed on from one generation to the next, leading to a form of epigenetic inheritance.
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Explain in detail?
You sample the solid waste of three infants from three different families each week for 24 weeks. You find that the population of bacteria in the gut is dominated by one species for the first 12 weeks, and then shifts to another species. This shift in the biological composition of a community over time is called:
A. competition.
B. mutualism.
C. succession.
D. evolution.
E. ecology.
This shift in the biological composition of a community over time is called succession.
The process by which a region's species and habitat mix changes over time is referred to as ecological succession. These communities gradually replace one another until a "climax community" is reached, such as a mature forest, or a disturbance occurs, such as a fire. Ecological succession is a fundamental concept in ecology. The first species to appear in a new environment are mosses and lichens.
They prepare the ground for larger species to grow, such as grasses, shrubs, and, eventually, trees. Ecological succession is essential for the growth and development of an ecosystem. It begins colonization of new areas as well as recolonization of areas destroyed by biotic and climatic factors. As a result, organisms can learn to adapt to changes and survive in a constantly changing environment.
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The ancient remains of several human bodies have been discovered and legally need to be returned to the tribe that contains the closest descendents. You have been called as a witness in the resulting legal case to give your opinion. The jury is confused about the analysis you have done. Could you please explain it to them again? Drag the terms on the left to the appropriate blanks on the right to complete the sentences. Not all terms will be used. ResetHelp restriction map DNA extraction compared the sample to modern DNA samples DNA fingerprint VNTRs gel electrophoresis hybridization to a probe Southern blot polymerase chain reaction chromosome walking restriction enzymes controls 1. After obtaining the samples (preserved bone and muscle fragments), I conducted a ___________. 2. Because I suspected the ancient DNA would be degraded, I pretreated it with random primers and the Klenow fragment (a procedure found to help repair damage and aid amplification) and amplified the DNA using __________. 3. To make sure that the DNA I analyzed was indeed from the ancient sample, during these procedures, I used both positive and negative __________. 4. Following amplification, I used__________ to cut out the DNA fragments with the genes I wanted to study. 5. Then I used _____________to separate the DNA fragments. 6. I performed a ___________, in which I transferred the DNA onto a filter and then incubated the filter with a radiolabeled DNA sequence complementary to the gene I was interested in. 7. This final step with the radiolabeled DNA sequence is called_____________ . I can repeat this step for multiple genes. 8. I used several highly variable loci to create a specific ______________. 9. Finally, I___________ in order to determine the group most closely related to the individual who the sample was taken from.
To modern DNA samples DNA fingerprint VNTRs gel electrophoresis hybridization to a probe Southern blot polymerase chain reaction chromosome walking restriction enzymes controls DNA fragmentation.
1. After obtaining the samples (preserved bone and muscle fragments ) I conducted a DNA extraction.
2. Because I suspected the ancient DNA to be degraded, I treated it with random primers and Klenow fragments and amplified the DNA using a polymerase chain reaction.
3. To make sure the DNA I analyzed was from the ancient sample, during these procedures, I used both positive and negative controls.
4. Following amplification I used restriction enzymes to cut out the DNA fragments with the genes I wanted to study.
5. Then I used gel electrophoresis to separate the DNA fragments.
6. I performed a Southern blot, in which I transferred the DNA onto a filter and then incubated the filter with a radiolabelled DNA sequence complementary to the gene I was interested in.
7. This final step with the radiolabelled DNA is called hybridization to a probe. I can repeat this step for multiple genes.
8. I used several highly variable loci to create a specific DNA fingerprint.
9. Finally, I compared the sample to modern DNA samples in order to determine the group most closely related to the individual who the sample was taken from.
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which of the following represents inversion chromosomal mutation in this sequence of dna 5' c t a g t t g c a a t 3' 5' c t a t t g g c a a t 3' 5' c t a g g c a a t 3' 5' c t a g t t g t g c a a t 3' 5' c t a g t t g c a a t 3'
use the labels to correctly identify components involved in the maintenance of the resting membrane potential.
The elements involved in maintaining the permeability of the cell membrane include the K+ leak channel, Na+ leak channel, Na+-K+ pump, and ATP ADP-K+.
What does a human membrane do?Body membranes are incredibly thin tissue sheets that line body cavities, cover organs inside of hollow organs, and cover the body's surface. The epithelium and connective tissue walls are the two basic types of bodily membranes. Mucous membranes, peritoneal glands, synovial glands, and meninges are subcategories.
What in biology is a membrane?A bilayer of lipid molecules makes up the double sheet that makes up biological membranes. Generally speaking, this structure is known as the lipid bilayers. Membrane proteins and glucose are important components of biological membranes in addition to the different lipids that are found there.
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suppose an organism with genotype aabbee undergoes a meiotic non-disjunction in meiosis i of the chromosomes that carry the a gene. all three genes assort independently on different chromosomes. if the gametes produced by this organism fused with gametes of an organism with genotype aabbee, indicate the percentage of zygotes with each of the following genotypes that are formed:
Suppose an organism with genotype aabbee undergoes a meiotic non-disjunction in meiosis i of the chromosomes that carry the a gene. 68% of zygotes with each of the following genotypes that are formed.
A chromosome is a lengthy DNA molecule that contains all or a portion of an organism's genetic code. The very long, thin DNA fibers in most chromosomes are covered with packing proteins; in eukaryotic cells, the histones are the most significant of these proteins. In order to preserve the integrity of the DNA molecule, these proteins condense and adhere to it with the help of chaperone proteins. These chromosomes exhibit a complicated three-dimensional structure that is crucial for controlling transcription. Under a light microscope, chromosomes are typically only discernible during the metaphase of cell division (where all chromosomes are aligned in the center of the cell in their condensed form). Sister chromatids are the new name for the linked copies. A metaphase chromosome is an X-shaped structure that forms during metaphase and is highly compressed, making it the easiest to recognize and study. Chromosomes are most compacted in animal cells during the chromosome segregation process known as anaphase. Genetic diversity is greatly influenced by chromosomal recombination during meiosis and subsequent sexual reproduction.
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which of the following is true regarding the electron transport chain? (select all that is/are true) group of answer choices it occurs in the cytoplasm of a cell. it occurs in the mitochondria of a cell protons are actively pumped from the inner membrane space to the matrix via the ets complexes. molecular oxygen (o2) is required for it to operate nadh donates a hydride to complex i, which donates electrons to complex iii then to complex iv with o2 being the final electron acceptor.
It occurs in the mitochondria of a cell protons are actively pumped from the inner membrane space to the matrix via the ets complexes, is the correct statement about the electron transport chain.
Mitochondria ar membrane-bound cell organelles (mitochondrion, singular) that generate most of the energy required to power the cell's organic chemistry reactions. energy made by the mitochondria is keep in a very little molecule known as ATP (ATP).
The mitochondrial matrix is that the website of the tricarboxylic acid (TCA) cycle, a series of catalyst reactions initiated by the conversion of pyruvate and fatty acids to acetyl group coenzyme A (acetyl-CoA). Pyruvate and fatty acids ar transported into mitochondria from the protoplasm by membrane-bound permeases.
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The function of Peyers patches is ?
Answer:
Explanation:
Peyer's patches play an important role in immune surveillance of materials within your digestive system. Immune surveillance refers to the process by which your immune system recognizes and destroys potential pathogens.
TRUE/FALSE. deciduous forests are typically located at higher latitudes (closer to the poles) than coniferous forests.
The above statement is false. An evergreen forest with cone-bearing trees is known as a coniferous forest. This biome is home to pines, tamarack, and fir.
Why is the fir forest so significant?Conifers serve a significant role globally by sequestering carbon, in addition to offering habitat and food for wildlife. Compared to temperate or tropical forests, coniferous forests remove three times more carbon from the atmosphere.
Where can you mostly find coniferous forests?The largest biome on land is the coniferous forest. The northern regions of Asia, Europe, and North America are home to the coniferous forest biome. The Himalayan region is the right response.
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recombinant dna contains a segment of foreign dna is defined as a mix of human and animal dna is created from embryonic stem cells is a technique for repairing damaged dna
A DNA molecule made in vitro that contains sequences from two or more sources or organisms is known as recombinant DNA.
recombinant DNA is the process of inserting DNA molecules from two distinct species into a host organism in order to generate novel genetic combinations that are beneficial to agriculture, industry, science, and medicine. The primary objective of laboratory geneticists is to isolate, characterize, and manipulate genes because the gene is the primary focus of all genetics. In spite of the fact that it is moderately simple to detach an example of DNA from an assortment of cells, finding a particular quality inside this DNA test can measure up to tracking down a tough-to-find little item. Take into consideration the fact that the DNA in each human cell is approximately 2 meters (6 feet) long. As a result, a large amount of DNA will be present in a small tissue sample.
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If you added one more proton to an atom of silver, then what element would it become? Palladium (Pd) Cadmium (Cd) Gold (Au)
In which of the following ocular conditions is the direction of gaze a factor in intraocular pressure determination?
A) Chronic Angle glaucoma
B) Thyroid ophthalmopathy
C) Central retinal vein occlusion
D) Iritis with secondary glaucoma
Chronic Angle glaucoma (a) is an ocular condition in which the direction of gaze is a factor in intraocular pressure determination.
If not properly identified and treated, chronic closed-angle glaucoma, also known as chronic angle-closure glaucoma, can result in irreversible visual loss. This exercise focuses on how the interprofessional team contributes to the analysis and treatment of persistent closed-angle glaucoma. Elevated intraocular pressures are a symptom of the progressive optic neuropathy known as glaucoma.
Glaucoma causes a decrease of visual field and, in its last stages, may result in total blindness. Glaucoma is divided anatomically into open-angle and closed-angle conditions. The trabecular meshwork is mechanically blocked by the peripheral iris in a closed-angle anatomical arrangement.
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If a skeletal muscle cell has depleted its stores of ATP how will the altered transport properties of the NKA transporter affect cytosolic calcium concentrations (increase, decrease, no change) relative to normal? Why?
The sodium potassium ATPase (NKA), which pumps 3 sodium out and 2 potassium in, becomes inactive during ATP depletion. The effect is an increase in intracellular calcium levels.
Inhibiting the reciprocal interchange of sodium (into the cell) and calcium (out of the cell), the intracellular sodium levels rise as a result.Ions are moved into and out of cells by the sodium-potassium pump. Both during and after stimulation, it helps keep a cell's resting potential constant. Maintaining a low sodium and high potassium content within the cell controls the potential of the cell membrane.Amino acids, glucose, and other vital nutrients are transported via a large number of secondary active transporters, which are membrane-bound transport proteins that are triggered by Na export.The sodium-potassium pump keeps the osmolarity of cells constant, which controls cell volume. Cell volume is regulated by osmosis. This process keeps the concentration of different nutrients and chemicals under control.To know more about sodium check the below link:
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The Golgi tendon organ (GTO) is a nerve found in muscles. One of the GTO’s tasks is to create a reflex that limits the tension placed upon a muscle.
What is the effect of plyometric training on this GTO reflex?
Plyometric training increases the effect of the GTO reflex.Plyometric training increases the effect of the GTO reflex. , ,
Plyometric training functions within the control of the GTO reflex.Plyometric training functions within the control of the GTO reflex. , ,
Plyometric training is not involved with the GTO reflex.Plyometric training is not involved with the GTO reflex. , ,
Plyometric training reduces the effect of the GTO reflex.Plyometric training reduces the effect of the GTO reflex. , ,
The main effect of plyometric training on this GTO reflex is that it reduces the effect of the GTO (Golgi Tendon Organ) reflex. Thus, the correct option is D.
What is the effect of plyometric training on GTO reflex?The Golgi tendon organ (GTO) is found in the tendon which is present near the junction of tendon and muscle fibers in the body. It responds to a tendon stretch, or a muscle contraction, by sending the action potentials so that muscle tension increases in these junctions.
Plyometric exercises are the activities which have been shown to be an effective method of improving a number of different physical qualities such as strength and jump height, running economy, agility, sprint speed and endurance of a person. The exercises or activities which are involved in Plyometric exercise are characterized by explosive muscle extension and contraction mechanisms.
Plyometric training is found to effect the GTO reflex as it reduces the effect of the GTO reflex.
Therefore, the correct option is D.
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Svetlana asks Dr. Miller for information related to Alzheimer’s disease. Dr. Miller decides to send Mary Ellen, an RMA, into the room to review a patient education brochure that discusses the progression of the disease. What information should this brochure include?
This brochure should indicate the stages of Alzheimer’s disease progression.
What is the Alzheimer’s disease?The Alzheimer’s disease is described as a progressive disease that destroys memory and other important mental functions.
Alzheimer's is a degenerative disease that affects the elderly. The cause of the Alzheimer’s disease is still not yet known, but it is believed that it is influenced by genetic factors.
This Alzheimer’s disease causes degeneration of the frontal and temporal lobes, impairing the individual's cognitive functioning.
The disease has four stages of development which include:
pre-dementia, early stage, intermediate stage, and terminal stage.There is still no Alzheimer's disease but it can be treated with anticholinesterase drugs that aims to delay symptoms and degeneration.
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use the list of choices below for the following question: i. helicase ii. dna polymerase iii iii. ligase iv. dna polymerase i v. primase which of the enzymes covalently connects segments of dna?
Enzymes which covalently connects segments of DNA is v)primase. So, correct option is v.
Primase is a catalyst that blends short RNA groupings called groundworks. These preliminaries act as a beginning stage for DNA union. Since primase produces RNA particles, the protein is a kind of RNA polymerase. Primase capabilities by integrating short RNA groupings that are reciprocal to a solitary abandoned piece of DNA, which fills in as its format.
Primase is important that groundworks are blended by primase before DNA replication can happen. This is on the grounds that the chemicals that incorporate DNA, which are called DNA polymerases, can join new DNA nucleotides to a current strand of nucleotides. Hence, primase serves to prime and establish a groundwork for DNA blend.
Hence, option v is correct.
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For the difference between the domestic tomato, Solanum esculentum, and its wild South American relative, Solanum chmielewskii, the environmental variance accounts for 13 percent of the total phenotypic variance of fruit weight, for 9 percent of the total variance of soluble-solid content, and for 11 percent of the total variance in acidity. What are the broad-sense heritabilities of these traits?
A sexually compatible wild tomato species known as Lycopersicon parviflorum has mostly gone unused in tomato breeding. In an interspecific cross between the wild species L.
Parviflorum and the elite processing tomato Lycopersicon esculentum E6203, the Advanced Backcross QTL (AB-QTL) technique was employed to search this genome for QTLs controlling traits of agronomic value (LA2133). 133 genetic markers were used to genotype a total of 170 BC2 plants (131 RFLPs; one PCR-based marker, I-2, and one morphological marker, u, uniform ripening).
In duplicated field trials conducted in California, Spain, and Israel, about 170 BC3 families were cultivated. They were then graded on 30 horticultural features. A total of 199 significant putative QTLs, ranging from 1 to 19 QTLs discovered for each characteristic, were found for all the traits. Despite the overall inferior phenotype of the wild species, at least one QTL was found for which the L. parviflorum allele was associated with an agronomically favorable effect for 19 (70%) traits (excluding traits for which effects of either direction are not necessarily favourable or unfavourable).
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