Question 50 Marks: 1 The suitability of soil for the subsurface disposal of sewage and other wastewater can be determined by a study of soil characteristics and theChoose one answer. a. soil survey b. soil percolation test c. rate of sewage flow d. amount of rainfall

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Answer 1

The suitability of soil for the subsurface disposal of sewage and other wastewater can be determined by a study of soil characteristics and the soil percolation test.

The suitability of soil for subsurface disposal of sewage and other wastewater can be determined by conducting a soil percolation test, which involves observing how quickly water drains through the soil. This test helps to determine the rate at which wastewater can be absorbed by the soil without causing pollution or contamination.

A soil survey may also be conducted to assess the overall suitability of the soil in the area, but the percolation test is the primary method for determining the soil's ability to handle wastewater disposal. The rate of sewage flow and the amount of rainfall in the area may also be considered, but they are not the primary factors in determining the suitability of the soil.

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Question 11
Perhaps our single most significant source of radiation exposure is:
a. Radon
b. Cosmic radiation
c. Alpha particles
d. Gamma rays

Answers

Perhaps our single most significant source of radiation exposure is, (B).  Cosmic radiation is correct option.

High-energy particles that come from the universe and have the ability to enter the atmosphere of the Earth are referred to as cosmic radiation. Protons, gamma rays, and other radiation types fall within this category. For people who frequently fly, such as airline crew members and frequent travelers, as well as astronauts who spend a lot of time in space, cosmic radiation is a substantial source of radiation exposure. People who work in environments with greater elevations, such as mountain climbers and pilots, may potentially be exposed to cosmic radiation.

However, based on variables like height, latitude, and solar activity, the exposure to cosmic radiation can differ. Cosmic radiation is regarded as one of the most major sources of radiation exposure, along with radon, alpha particles, and gamma rays.

Therefore, the correct option is (b).

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at steady state, a 1 m thick wall has a temperature difference (between the left and right surfaces) of capital delta t equals 5 k. if the wall's thermal conductivity is k equals 10 space fraction numerator w over denominator m k end fraction, what is the heat flux across this wall? (assume 1d conduction heat transfer.)

Answers

The magnitude of the heat flux across the wall is [tex]50 W/m^2[/tex] at steady state, a 1 m thick wall has a temperature difference.

To calculate the heat flux across the 1 m thick wall at steady state, we can use Fourier's Law of Heat Conduction. The formula is: q = -k * (dT/dx)
where q is the heat flux ([tex]W/m^2[/tex]), k is the thermal conductivity (10 W/m·K), dT is the temperature difference (5 K), and dx is the thickness of the wall (1 m).
Now, plug in the given values:
q = -10 * (5 K / 1 m)
q = [tex]-50 W/m^2[/tex]
Since we're considering 1D conduction heat transfer and the heat flux is negative, it means the heat is transferred from the higher temperature side to the lower temperature side.

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a filter is 18 feet wide and 20 feet long. The maximum filtration rate allowed for this unit is 6.0 gpm/ft2. what is the highest flow rate that this filter can process

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The highest flow rate that this filter can process is 2,160 gpm.

The maximum filtration rate allowed for a filter depends on the filter's size and the permissible flow rate per unit area of the filter. In this case, the filter has an area of 18 feet x 20 feet = 360 square feet.

The surface area of the filter is:

18 feet x 20 feet = 360 square feet

To determine the maximum flow rate, we need to multiply the surface area by the maximum filtration rate allowed:

360 square feet x 6.0 gpm/ft2 = 2,160 gallons per minute (gpm)

Therefore, the highest flow rate that this filter can process is 2,160 gpm.

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With a 1/16" ball penetrator and a penetration depth of 0.082 mm, this makes

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It appears that a penetration depth of 0.082mm would result in a superficial Rockwell hardness value of approximately 18, using a 1/16" ball penetrator and the corresponding test load.

However, as you mentioned, there are various superficial Rockwell scales that use different combinations of penetrators and test loads.

It's important to use the appropriate scale for the material being tested and to follow standardized testing procedures to ensure accurate and reproducible results.

The Rockwell hardness test requires a specific testing procedure, including the use of a calibrated hardness tester, a specific type of penetrator, and standardized testing conditions.

The hardness values obtained from this test are dependent on the material being tested, and cannot be determined solely based on penetration depth.

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correct form of question would be

With a diamond or ball penetrator and a penetration depth of 0.082mm this makes 100 – 0.082/0.001 = 18 superficial Rockwell.

Due to the different combinations of penetrators and test loads, there is a great number of superficial Rockwell scales, whichare labelled with different letters. The respective letter is also preceded by a number which indicates the total load used in the test (see Table 2)

Penetrator- F=441,3N / F=294,2N / F=147,1N /

Diamond Cone = 45 N / 30 N / 15 N

Ball 1/16"1,5875mm= 45 T / 30 T / 15 T

Ball 1/8"* = 45 W / 30 W / 15 W

Ball 1/4"* = 45 X / 30 X / 15 X

Ball 1/2"* = 45 Y / 30 Y / 15 Y

a mass m is attached to an ideal massless spring. when this system is set in motion, it has a period t . what is the period if the mass is doubled to 2 m ?

Answers

The period of a mass-spring system is given by T = 2π√(m/k), where m is the mass of the object attached to the spring and k is the spring constant. Since the spring is ideal and massless, k remains constant when the mass is changed.

Using the equation T = 2π√(m/k), we can find the period when the mass is doubled. Let's call the new period T2 and the original period T1.

T1 = 2π√(m/k)
T2 = 2π√(2m/k)

To find the relationship between T1 and T2, we can take the ratio of the two equations:

T2/T1 = √(2m/k)/√(m/k)
T2/T1 = √(2)

Therefore, when the mass is doubled, the period of the system increases by a factor of √(2).

The period of the mass-spring system will increase by a factor of √(2) when the mass is doubled.

We can conclude that increasing the mass of an ideal massless spring system will increase its period. In this case, doubling the mass will increase the period by a factor of √(2).

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Question 20
Which one of the following is the greatest genetic concern in terms of exposure to ionizing radiation?
a. Mutations that accumulate in the gonads
b. Blood-borne infections
c. Increased frequency of dominant gene mutations
d. Chromosomal damage in adolescents

Answers

The greatest genetic concern in terms of exposure to ionizing radiation is mutations that accumulate in the gonads. Option a is correct.

Ionizing radiation has the potential to cause mutations in DNA, which can lead to genetic changes in offspring. Mutations that accumulate in the gonads, which are the cells that produce sperm and eggs, have the potential to be passed down through generations. This can lead to an increased risk of genetic disorders, such as cancer or birth defects, in future offspring.

While other forms of genetic damage can also occur with exposure to ionizing radiation, such as chromosomal damage, mutations in the gonads have the greatest potential impact on future generations. Therefore, it is important to limit exposure to ionizing radiation, particularly during reproductive years. Option a is correct.

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An object moving in a straight line at a constant speed (a=0) is in

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Answer:

uniform motion

Explanation:

Uniform motion is defined as the motion of an object in which the object travels in a straight line and its velocity remains constant along that line as it covers equal distances in equal intervals of time.

In an oscillating LC circuit, the total stored energy is U and the maximum charge on the capacitor is Q. When the charge on the capacitor is Q/2, the energy stored in the inductor is closest to:

Answers

In an oscillating LC circuit, the total stored energy is divided between the capacitor and the inductor. When the charge on the capacitor is Q/2, the energy stored in the capacitor is also half of its maximum value.

Therefore, the energy stored in the inductor is also closest to half of its maximum value, which is U/2. This is because the energy oscillates back and forth between the capacitor and the inductor, with the charge on the capacitor and the current in the inductor both reaching their maximum values at opposite times during each cycle. So, when the charge on the capacitor is at its midpoint, the energy stored in the inductor is also at its midpoint.

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44. What is the magnitude of the centripetal acceleration of a point on the rim of the grindstone?
A) zero m/s2
B) 0.5 m/s2
C) 1.0 m/s2
D) 2.0 m/s2
E) 4.0 m/s2

Answers

The centripetal acceleration of a point on the rim of a grindstone is determined by the formula a = v^2/r, where a is the acceleration, v is the velocity, and r is the radius of the circle. In this case, we assume that the grindstone is rotating at a constant speed, which means that the velocity of any point on the rim is constant.

Therefore, the magnitude of the centripetal acceleration depends only on the radius of the circle.Since the question does not provide any information about the radius of the grindstone, we cannot determine the magnitude of the centripetal acceleration. However, we can conclude that options A and B are incorrect because the centripetal acceleration cannot be zero if the grindstone is rotating, and it cannot be less than 0.5 m/s^2 because that is the minimum acceleration required to keep an object moving in a circle.
Therefore, the correct answer must be either C, D, or E, depending on the radius of the grindstone. If the radius is relatively small, the acceleration will be closer to 4.0 m/s^2 (option E), while if the radius is relatively large, the acceleration will be closer to 1.0 m/s^2 (option C). The centripetal acceleration of a point on the rim of a grindstone is determined by the formula a = v^2/r, where a is the acceleration, v is the velocity, and r is the radius of the circle. In this case, we assume that the grindstone is rotating at a constant speed, which means that the velocity of any point on the rim is constant.
In summary, the magnitude of the centripetal acceleration of a point on the rim of a grindstone depends on the radius of the circle and is given by the formula a = v^2/r. We cannot determine the exact answer without knowing the radius of the grindstone, but we can eliminate options A and B as incorrect.

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at what speed do a bicycle and its rider, with a combined mass of 90 kg , have the same momentum as a 1500 kg car traveling at 6.0 m/s ? express your answer to two significant figures and include the appropriate units.

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100 m/s speed do a bicycle and its rider, with a combined mass of 90 kg , have the same momentum as a 1500 kg car traveling at 6.0 m/s

To find the speed at which the bicycle and its rider have the same momentum as the car, we can use the momentum formula:
momentum = mass × speed
First, let's find the momentum of the car:
momentum car = (1500 kg) × (6.0 m/s) = 9000 kg m/s
Now we want the bicycle and its rider to have the same momentum:
momentum bicycle = momentum car = 9000 kg m/s
We can now use the mass of the bicycle and its rider (90 kg) to find the speed at which they have the same momentum:
speed bicycle = momentum bicycle / mass bicycle
speed bicycle = 9000 kg m/s

90 kg = 100 m/s
Therefore, the bicycle and its rider need to travel at a speed of 100 m/s to have the same momentum as the car.

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Why are there some areas in cities where wind speed is zero?

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There are a few reasons why certain areas in cities may have zero wind speed. One possible explanation is the presence of tall buildings or other structures that create a wind shadow.

This occurs when the buildings obstruct the flow of air, causing it to slow down or stop entirely in the space behind the structure. Another factor that can contribute to zero wind speed is topography. If an area is situated in a valley or other low-lying area, it may be shielded from the wind by the surrounding terrain. Additionally, weather conditions can affect wind speed, so it's possible that certain areas experience calm conditions due to a lack of wind at the time.
In cities, some areas may experience zero wind speed due to factors such as tall buildings, urban structures, and topography. These elements can obstruct and disrupt wind flow, creating areas of calm or stagnant air. This phenomenon is known as wind shadow or wind sheltering.

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Place the following in sequence: A) Hubble makes his discoveries; B) Cosmic background radiation is first detected; C) Lemaitre proposes his theory

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The correct sequence is:

C) Lemaitre proposes his theory --> A) Hubble makes his discoveries --> B) Cosmic background radiation is first detected.

Lemaitre proposed his theory of the expanding universe, which later became known as the Big Bang theory, in the 1920s. Hubble's observations in the 1920s and 1930s provided evidence for the expansion of the universe and the relationship between distance and recession velocity for galaxies.

The cosmic microwave background radiation, which is the afterglow of the Big Bang, was first detected in 1964 by Arno Penzias and Robert Wilson.

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Equipment rated 100 ampere or less must have the conductor sized no smaller than the 60 degree column of Table 310-15(B)(16). Equipment rated at more than 100 ampere must have the conductors sized no smaller than for the 75 degree column of Table 310-15(B)(16)(True/False)

Answers

True. According to the National Electric Code (NEC), equipment rated at 100 amperes or less must have conductors sized no smaller than the 60-degree column of Table 310-15(B)(16).

This is because smaller conductors can overheat and cause damage to the equipment or even create a fire hazard. On the other hand, equipment rated at more than 100 amperes requires conductors sized no smaller than the 75-degree column of Table 310-15(B)(16). This is because larger equipment requires more power and larger conductors can handle the increased current without overheating.

It is important to note that these sizing requirements are minimum standards and it is always recommended to consult a licensed electrician to ensure the proper sizing and installation of conductors for your specific equipment. Failure to properly size conductors can result in equipment damage, personal injury, or even death.

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(Table 352-30) 1 inch rigid nonmetallic conduit must be supported every _____ feet.

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According to Table 352.30 of the National Electrical Code (NEC), 1 inch rigid nonmetallic conduit must be supported at intervals not exceeding 10 feet.

The National Electrical Code (NEC) is a standard that provides guidelines for the safe installation and use of electrical wiring and equipment in the United States. The NEC is updated every three years to incorporate new technology, safety advancements, and other changes in the electrical industry.

Table 352.30 of the NEC specifies the maximum spacing between supports for rigid nonmetallic conduit. The spacing requirements are based on the diameter of the conduit, the weight of the conduit and the contents it carries, and the temperature of the surrounding environment.

In the case of 1 inch rigid nonmetallic conduit, Table 352.30 specifies that the conduit must be supported at intervals not exceeding 10 feet. This means that there must be a support bracket or hanger installed at least every 10 feet along the length of the conduit to prevent it from sagging or breaking under its own weight.

Proper support of conduit is important for ensuring that electrical systems are safe and reliable. Unsupported conduit can become damaged, causing electrical faults, shorts, or even fires. By following the NEC guidelines for conduit support, electricians and contractors can ensure that electrical systems are installed and maintained safely and effectively.

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Question 63
Which one of the following is probably least susceptible to microwave induced injury?
a. Eyes
b. Urinary bladder
c. Gastrointestinal test
d. liver

Answers

The urinary bladder is probably the least susceptible to microwave-induced injury among the given options. Microwave energy has a higher chance of affecting tissues with higher water content, such as the eyes, gastrointestinal tract, and liver.

The urinary bladder, on the other hand, has less water content and is less likely to be affected by microwave radiation.The eyes, gastrointestinal tract, and liver are organs that contain tissues with higher water content and are therefore more susceptible to microwave-induced injury, as microwaves can be absorbed by water molecules and generate heat. However, the urinary bladder is a muscular organ that stores urine and does not contain as much water content compared to other organs, making it less likely to be as susceptible to microwave-induced injury. Nonetheless, it's important to note that microwave radiation should be used with caution and in accordance with safety guidelines to minimize potential risks to all organs and tissues in the body.

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a straight length of wire carries a current of 50 a in a region where a uniform magnetic field has a magnitude of 0.100 t. the field is directed at an angle of 30 degrees away from the wire. there is a force on the wire measured to be 10n. how long is the wire?

Answers

The equation F = BILsinθ, where F is the force on the wire, B is the magnitude of the magnetic field, I am the current in the wire, L is the length of the wire, and θ is the angle between the magnetic field and the wire. Plugging in the given values, we get10 = 50 Lsin30Simplifying this equation, we get. L = 4 meters Therefore, the length of the wire is 4 meters.


The solve this problem, we will use the formula for the magnetic force on a current-carrying wire.F = I * L * B * sin(θ)
where F is the force, I am the current, L is the length of the wire, B is the magnitude of the magnetic field, and θ is the angle between the magnetic field and the direction of the current. We are given the following information = 10 I = 50 A
B = 0.100 T θ = 30 degrees First, we need to convert the angle to radians θ = 30 degrees × π radians / 180 degrees = π/6 radians Now, we can plug the given values into the formula and solve for L10 N = 50 A * L * 0.100 T * sin(π/6) Divide both sides by 50 A * 0.100 T * sinπ/6 L = 10 N / 50 A * 0.100 T * sinπ/6 Calculate the length L ≈ 3.464 m So, the length of the wire is approximately 3.464 meters.

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Question 31
Backsiphonage may be prevented by all of the following methods except
a. Hydrostatic loops
b. Vacuum breakers
c. Air gap separation
d. Backpressure units

Answers

Backsiphonage may be prevented by all of the following methods except d. Backpressure units

Backsiphonage is the reverse flow of potentially contaminated water into the potable water supply due to a reduction in pressure. Various methods can be used to prevent backsiphonage, including:
a. Hydrostatic loops: These are vertical loops of piping that create a physical barrier to prevent the backflow of water.
b. Vacuum breakers: These devices break the vacuum in the water supply line, preventing water from flowing backwards.
c. Air gap separation: This is a physical separation between the water supply outlet and the receiving vessel, creating a barrier that prevents backsiphonage.
However, backpressure units are not designed to prevent backsiphonage. Instead, they are used to prevent backpressure backflow, which occurs when the pressure downstream of a connection becomes greater than the pressure upstream.

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A puck is sliding on the ice with 25 J of kinetic energy. After 3 seconds, the puck comes to a stop and has no more kinetic energy. Find the work done on the puck.

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The work done on the puck is -25 J, after  3 seconds, the puck comes to a stop and has no more kinetic energy.

What is work done?

Work done is described  as the amount of force needed to move an object a certain distance.

The work-energy principle states that the work done on an object is equal to the change in its kinetic energy.

The change in kinetic energy is:

ΔK = Kf - Ki = 0 - 25 = -25 J

Note that the  negative sign indicates that the kinetic energy of the puck decreased.  

W = ΔK = -25 J

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Galileo discovered that when air resistance can be neglected, all objects fall with the same _______.

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Galileo discovered that when air resistance can be neglected, all objects fall with the same acceleration, which is approximately 9.81 meters per second squared (m/s^2) near the surface of the Earth.

Galileo's discovery of the universality of free fall was a significant contribution to the development of physics and mechanics. Prior to his experiments, it was commonly believed that heavier objects fell faster than lighter objects. However, Galileo demonstrated through his experiments that this was not the case, and that all objects fall with the same acceleration in the absence of air resistance.

Galileo's experiments involved rolling balls of different masses down inclined planes and measuring their motion. By carefully controlling the angle of the incline and the distance traveled by the balls, Galileo was able to show that the acceleration of the balls was independent of their mass. He also observed that the acceleration due to gravity was constant, and that it did not depend on the velocity or direction of motion.

Galileo's discovery of the universality of free fall laid the foundation for the development of classical mechanics, which is the branch of physics that deals with the motion of objects under the influence of external forces. It also played a crucial role in the development of the theory of gravitation by Isaac Newton, who used Galileo's work as a starting point to develop his laws of motion and the law of universal gravitation. Today, the principle of the universality of free fall is a fundamental concept in physics and is used in a wide range of applications, including in the design of spacecraft and in the study of the structure and evolution of the universe.

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a man pushes a 15 kg block to the west with an acceleration of 0.1 m/s/s. using newton's second law of motion, what is the total force used?

Answers

The total force used by the man to push the block to the west is 1.5 N (Newtons).

Hi! I'd be happy to help you with your question. To find the total force used by a man pushing a 15 kg block to the west with an acceleration of 0.1 m/s², we can use Newton's second law of motion.



Newton's second law states that Force (F) equals mass (m) multiplied by acceleration (a), or F = m × a.

Step 1: Identify the mass (m) and acceleration (a).
Mass (m) = 15 kg
Acceleration (a) = 0.1 m/s²

Step 2: Apply Newton's second law of motion formula.
F = m × a

Step 3: Substitute the values and calculate the force.
F = 15 kg × 0.1 m/s²

F = 1.5 N

So, the total force used by the man to push the block to the west is 1.5 N (Newtons).

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The man applied 1.5 N (Newtons) of force in total to move the block in the west.

Hi! I'd be delighted to answer your query. Newton's second equation of motion can be used to calculate the total force applied by a man pushing a 15 kg block with an acceleration of 0.1 m/s2 to the west.

According to Newton's second law, force (F) is equal to mass (m) times acceleration (a), or F = m a.

Determine the mass (m) and acceleration (a) in step 1.

Weight (m) = 15 kilogramme

0.1 m/s2 is the acceleration (a).

Step 2: Use the calculus for Newton's second law of motion.

F = m × a

Step 3: Calculate the force by substituting the values.

F = 15 kg × 0.1 m/s²

F = 1.5 N

The man utilised 1.5 N (Newtons) of force in total to push the block in a westward direction.

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can someone do my physics test please? 100P

Answers

your answer is c bro but if not then it's b

because you just choose c or b either one should work if you right it down right

A plane speeds up to 320m/s from 300m/s in 5 seconds. Assuming the plane was traveling in a straight line, what was it's average acceleration during those 5 seconds.

Answers

The calculate the plane's average acceleration, we need to use the formula. average acceleration = final velocity - initial velocity / time the plane's final velocity is 320m/s, its initial velocity is 300m/s, and the time it took to speed up is 5 seconds.


The plane's average acceleration during those 5 seconds was 4m/s^2.To find the average acceleration of the plane during the 5 seconds, you can use the formula. Average acceleration = Final velocity - Initial velocity / Time In this case, the final velocity plane speed is 320 m/s, the initial velocity is 300 m/s, and the time is 5 seconds. Average acceleration = 320 m/s - 300 m/s / 5 Average acceleration = 20 m/s / 5 s Average acceleration = 4 m/s² So, the plane's average acceleration during those 5 seconds was 4 meters per second squared 4 m/s² while traveling in a straight line.

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What kind of expansion do ideal gases undergo?

Answers

Answer:

Isothermal Expansion

Explanation:

This shows the expansion of gas at constant temperature against weight of an object's mass (m) on the piston. Temperature is held constant, therefore the change in energy is zero (U=0). So, the heat absorbed by the gas equals the work done by the ideal gas on its surroundings

The average distance from Earth to the sun is 9.3 × 107 miles. How many kilometers isthis?A) 1.5 × 108 km D) 1.7 × 10-8 kmB) 1.5 × 105 km E) 1.5 × 1011 kmC) 5.6 × 107 km

Answers

The  distance from Earth to the sun is approximately 1.5 x 10^8 kilometers.

To convert miles to kilometers, we can use the conversion factor 1 mile = 1.609344 kilometers.

So, to find the distance from Earth to the sun in kilometers, we can multiply the given distance in miles by the conversion factor:

d (km) = 9.3 x 10^7 miles x 1.609344 km/mile
d (km) = 1.496 x 10^8 km

Therefore, the distance from Earth to the sun is approximately 1.5 x 10^8 kilometers.

The closest answer choice is A) 1.5 x 10^8 km, which is the correct answer.

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Two slits spaced 0. 0720 mm apart are 0. 800 m from a screen. Coherent light of wavelength λ passes through the two slits. In their interference pattern on the screen, the distance from the center of the central maximum to the first minimum is 3. 00 mm. The intensity at the peak of the central maximum is 0. 0700 W/m2. What is the intensity at point on the screen that is 2. 00 mm from the center of the central maximum? What is the intensity at point on the screen that is 1. 50 mm from the center of the central maximum?

Answers

The intensity at a point on the screen 2.00 mm from the center of the central maximum is approximately 0.034 W/m². The intensity at a point on the screen 1.50 mm from the center of the central maximum is approximately 0.024 W/m².

I = Imax cos² (πd sin θ / λ),

where Imax is the intensity at the center of the interference pattern, d is the distance between the two slits, θ is the angle between the line connecting the point on the screen to the center of the interference pattern and the line perpendicular to the screen, and λ is the wavelength of the light.

To find the angle θ, we can use the small angle approximation:

sin θ ≈ θ ≈ y/L,

where y is the distance from the center of the interference pattern to the point on the screen, and L is the distance between the slits and the screen.

We are given d = 0.0720 mm, λ = unknown, L = 0.800 m, Imax = 0.0700 W/m², and the distance from the center of the central maximum to the first minimum y = 3.00 mm.

Using the given distance y, we can find the value of sin θ:

y/L = sin θ,

3.00 mm / 0.800 m = sin θ,

sin θ = 0.00375.

Now we can solve for the wavelength λ:

Imax cos² (πd sin θ / λ) = I,

0.0700 W/m² cos² (π(0.0720 × 10⁻³ m)(0.00375) / λ) = I,

cos² (π(0.0720 × 10⁻³ m)(0.00375) / λ) = I / 0.0700 W/m²,

π(0.0720 × 10⁻³ m)(0.00375) / λ = ± cos⁻¹ (√(I / 0.0700 W/m²)),

λ = π(0.0720 × 10⁻³ m)(0.00375) / cos⁻¹√(I / 0.0700 W/m²)),

λ = 5.70 × 10⁻⁷ m (for the positive root).

Now we can find the intensities at the given distances from the center of the central maximum.

For y = 2.00 mm:

sin θ = y/L = 2.00 mm / 0.800 m = 0.00250,

I = Imax cos² (πd sin θ / λ)

I = 0.0700 W/m² cos² (π(0.0720 × 10⁻³m)(0.00250) / (5.70 × 10⁻⁷ m))² ≈ 0.034 W/m².

So the intensity at a point on the screen 2.00 mm from the center of the central maximum would be approximately 0.034 W/m².

For y = 1.50 mm:

sin θ = y/L = 1.50 mm / 0.800 m = 0.001875,

I = Imax cos² (πd sin θ / λ)

I= 0.0700 W/m² cos² (π(0.0720 × 10⁻³m)(0.001875) / (5.70 × 10⁻⁷ m))² ≈ 0.034 W/m².

I ≈ 0.024 W/m².

So the intensity at a point on the screen 1.50 mm from the center of the central maximum would be approximately 0.024 W/m².

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In a Camber airfoil, the Center of Pressure (CP)a.) moves to the rear of the wing at low AOAb.) moves backward as AOA increases c.) moves forward as AOA increases d.) both a and c

Answers

In a cambered airfoil, the Center of Pressure (CP) c.) moves forward as Angle of Attack (AOA) increases.

In a Camber airfoil, the centre of pressure (CP) is the point on the airfoil where the total aerodynamic force can be considered to act. The position of the CP changes with the angle of attack (AOA) of the airfoil.

At low AOA, the CP is located towards the front of the airfoil. As the AOA increases, the CP moves towards the rear of the airfoil. However, as the AOA continues to increase, the CP eventually moves towards the front of the airfoil again.

This means that the CP moves forward as AOA increases in a Camber airfoil. Therefore, the correct answer is c) moves forward as AOA increases.

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a large block of ice is being pushed on a frozen pond by layla and nadia. layla pushes the block to the right with a force of 40 n and nadia pushes the block to the left with a force of 70 n. what is the net force on the block of ice?

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30N is the net force on the block of ice for a large block of ice is being pushed on a frozen pond by layla and nadia

The net force on the block of ice is the result of combining the forces pushing in opposite directions. Layla pushes to the right with a force of 40 N, while Nadia pushes to the left with a force of 70 N. To find the net force, we need to subtract the smaller force from the larger force, since they are in opposite directions.

When forces are in balance, there is no net force, hence there is no net force.

There is either no movement or steady movement when something is in balance.

Equal in size and directed in the opposite direction, balanced forces are. When forces are evenly distributed, motion remains unchanged.
So, the net force on the block of ice is:
70 N (Nadia's force) - 40 N (Layla's force) = 30 N
Therefore, the net force on the block of ice is 30 N to the left, since Nadia's force is greater than Layla's force.

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(362-28) All cut ends of electrical nonmetallic tubing shall be trimmed inside and ____ to remove rough edges.

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All cut ends of electrical nonmetallic tubing shall be trimmed inside and deburred to remove rough edges.

When working with electrical nonmetallic tubing, it is important to ensure that all cut ends are properly trimmed and deburred.

Deburring is the process of removing any rough edges or burrs that may be present on the cut end of the tubing. This is important because rough edges can damage wires or cables that are being pulled through the tubing, or can cause injury to the person handling the tubing. To deburr the tubing, a deburring tool or file can be used to smooth out the edges of the cut. Once the edges are smooth, the tubing can be safely used for electrical installations.

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a circular loop of wire lies flat on a level table top. a bar magnet is held stationary above the circular loop with its north pole point downward. as viewed from above, in what direction does the induced current flow in the loop of wire? a circular loop of wire lies flat on a level table top. a bar magnet is held stationary above the circular loop with its north pole point downward. as viewed from above, in what direction does the induced current flow in the loop of wire? an induced current flows clockwise in the loop of wire. an induced current flows counterclockwise in the loop of wire. no current is induced in the loop of wire. the direction of the induced current cannot be determined from the given information.

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The induced current flows clockwise in the loop of wire. When a bar magnet is held stationary above a circular loop of wire with its north pole pointing downward, as viewed from above, the induced current in the loop of wire will flow counter clockwise.

This is due to Lenz's law, which states that the direction of the induced current flows clockwise in the loop of wire. current will be such that it opposes the change in magnetic flux that is producing it. In this case, the counterclockwise current creates a magnetic field opposing the downward magnetic field of the north pole of the bar magnet. the direction of the magnetic field will be down in the plane at the center. The magnetic field produced by a current-carrying wire loop will be in a single direction at the center. The direction of magnetic field at the center of a current-carrying circular loop is perpendicular to the plane of the loop.

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A light ray moving through CR39 at an angle of 49 degrees exits into another medium at an angle of 27.48 degrees. What is the index of the second medium? What is this medium?

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The index of refraction of the second medium is therefore approximately 1.496. The medium is crown glass.

We can use Snell's law to solve for the index of refraction of the second medium:

n₁ * sin(theta₁) = n₂ * sin(theta₂)

where n1 is the index of refraction of the first medium (which is presumably air, with an index of refraction close to 1), theta1 is the angle of incidence (49 degrees), n₂ is the index of refraction of the second medium, and theta₂ is the angle of refraction (27.48 degrees).

Plugging in the given values, we get:

1 * sin(49) = n₂ * sin(27.48)

Solving for n₂, we get:

n₂ = sin(49) / sin(27.48) ≈ 1.496

To determine the identity of the second medium, we can consult a table of refractive indices. Based on the index of refraction we just calculated, the second medium is likely a type of glass, such as crown glass.

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