Question 14 Marks: 1 The term "rad" meansChoose one answer. a. required administered dose b. radiation admitted dose c. roentgen absorbed dose d. radiation absorbed dose

Answers

Answer 1

The term "RAD" in physics means radiation absorbed dose (option D).

What is radiation absorbed dose?

Radiation absorbed dose is one of the two units used to measure the amount of radiation absorbed by an object or person.

RAD reflects the amount of energy that radioactive sources deposit in materials through which they pass.

The radiation-absorbed dose (rad) is the amount of energy (from any type of ionizing radiation) deposited in any medium (e.g., water, tissue, air).

An absorbed dose of 1 rad means that 1 gram of material absorbed 100 ergs of energy (a small but measurable amount) as a result of exposure to radiation.

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Related Questions

a charged particle is moving in a uniform, constant magnetic field. Which one of the following statements concerning the magnetic force exerted on a particle is false? a. It does no work on the particle. b. It can act only on a particle in motion. c. It increases the speed of the particle. d. It changes the velocity of the particle. e. It does not change the kinetic energy of the particle.

Answers

The false statement concerning the magnetic force exerted on a charged particle moving in a uniform, constant magnetic field is: c. It increases the speed of the particle.

The magnetic force is always perpendicular to the velocity of the charged particle, causing it to change its direction but not its speed. Therefore, it does no work on the particle (a), can act only on a moving particle (b), changes the velocity (d), and does not change the kinetic energy (e). This is because the magnetic force is perpendicular to the velocity of the particle, so it does not do any work on the particle and thus does not increase its kinetic energy. Therefore, the speed of the particle does not increase due to the magnetic force.

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A. A coach records the distance a runner
travels during 3 different trials. What is the
runners average speed in kilometers per
minute?
Trial
1
2
W|N
3
Time (min)
.
4
3
6
Distance (km)
0.9
1.1
1.5.
B.
tra
Сс
a

Answers

The runners average speed in kilometres per minute is 0.269km/min.

How to calculate average speed?

The average speed is the rate of motion or action, specifically the magnitude of the velocity; the rate distance is traversed in a given time.

The average speed of a motion can be calculated by dividing the distance moved by the time taken to complete the distance.

According to this question, a runner runs for a total distance of 3.5km at a total time of 13 mins. The average speed in km/min is

Average speed = 3.5km ÷ 13min = 0.269 km/min

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Question 38
All of the following are true about ozone as a disinfectant except which one?
a. Nontoxic to aquatic organisms
b. Source of dissolved oxygen
c. Excellent viricide
d. Long-lasting residual

Answers

The correct answer is A. Nontoxic to aquatic organisms. While ozone is an effective disinfectant and viricide, it is not nontoxic to aquatic organisms and can have negative impacts on aquatic life if not used properly.

Ozone can also be a source of dissolved oxygen and have a long-lasting residual effect.

The correct answer is: d. Long-lasting residual

All of the following are true about ozone as a disinfectant except that it has a long-lasting residual. Ozone is nontoxic to aquatic organisms, a source of dissolved oxygen, and an excellent viricide. However, it does not have a long-lasting residual effect, as it decomposes quickly.

A disinfectant is a chemical agent that is used to kill or eliminate harmful microorganisms, such as bacteria, viruses, and fungi, from surfaces, objects, or fluids. Disinfectants are commonly used in hospitals, schools, homes, and other settings to prevent the spread of infectious diseases.

Disinfectants work by disrupting the cell membranes or other structures of microorganisms, leading to their death or inactivation. Some common disinfectants include chlorine bleach, hydrogen peroxide, quaternary ammonium compounds, and alcohol.

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In some cases, the defibrillator may be charged to a lower voltage. How will this affect the time constant of the discharge?

Answers

The time constant of the discharge refers to the amount of time it takes for the voltage in the defibrillator to decrease to half of its original value. When a defibrillator is charged to a lower voltage, the time constant of the discharge will be shorter because there is less voltage to discharge.

This means that the energy will be delivered more quickly, which can be beneficial in some emergency situations. However, it is important to note that the lower voltage may not be enough to successfully restore normal heart rhythm, and a higher voltage may be needed in some cases.
When a defibrillator is charged to a lower voltage, the time constant of the discharge may be affected. A lower voltage can result in a reduced energy output during the discharge process, which may influence the time constant, potentially making it shorter. However, it's essential to remember that the time constant also depends on other factors such as resistance and capacitance in the defibrillator circuit.

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Question 76
When trying to establish economical hauling, what is most important?
a. hauling time
b. hauling distance
c. means of hauling
d. what is being hauled

Answers

When trying to establish economical hauling, hauling distance is usually the most important factor to consider. Hauling distance refers to the  point of origin and the destination of the goods being transported.

The farther the distance, the higher the cost of transportation, as it requires more time, fuel, and resources to haul the goods. While other factors such as hauling time, means of hauling, and what is being hauled can also impact the cost and efficiency of transportation, the distance typically has the most significant impact on the overall cost. Therefore, it is crucial to consider the hauling distance when trying to establish an economical hauling plan. To minimize the cost of transportation, various strategies can be employed, such as optimizing the routing to reduce the distance traveled, utilizing more efficient means of transportation, such as rail or water transport, and using technology to improve logistics and reduce waste. Ultimately, the goal of establishing an economical hauling plan is to minimize transportation costs while ensuring that goods are delivered safely, reliably, and on time. By prioritizing hauling distance and utilizing efficient transportation strategies, businesses can achieve a more cost-effective and sustainable transportation plan.

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You kick a can. Why does the can and your foot move if the forces are equal and opposite?

Answers

It is because the forces do not act on same bodies, this is a common doubt! The pair of forces act on two different bodies

Question 69 Marks: 1 Any excavation in clay, loam, silt or sand more than ______ in depth should have side wall protection to prevent a cave-in.Choose one answer. a. 5 feet b. 4 feet c. 3 feet d. 2 1/2 feet

Answers

Any excavation in clay, loam, silt, or sand more than 5 feet in depth should have side wall protection to prevent a cave-in. Therefore, the correct answer is option A) 5 feet.

Excavation work involves digging, moving, or removing soil, rock, or other materials from the ground to create a hole, trench, or foundation for construction or other purposes. Excavation work can be hazardous, particularly when workers enter or work around trenches or excavations.

Cave-ins are one of the most common and deadly excavation hazards. When soil is excavated from the ground, the sides of the excavation can become unstable and collapse, trapping workers underneath. This can cause serious injury or death.

To prevent cave-ins, OSHA (Occupational Safety and Health Administration) requires that all excavations 5 feet or deeper be protected by a protective system. The protective system can be either sloping and benching, shoring, or shielding. Sloping and benching involve cutting back the sides of the excavation to create a slope or series of steps to prevent cave-ins. Shoring involves installing supports, such as hydraulic or mechanical braces, to prevent cave-ins. Shielding involves using trench boxes or other types of protective systems to prevent soil from falling or rolling into the excavation.

In addition to using protective systems, it is important to conduct regular inspections of the excavation site, to train workers on safe excavation practices, and to implement a rescue plan in case of an emergency. Following these safety procedures can help prevent cave-ins and other excavation-related accidents, and ensure the safety of workers on the job site.

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Question 21 Marks: 1 Minimum wash water temperature in a hospital laundry isChoose one answer. a. 146 to 150 degrees F b. 160 to 167 degrees F c. 170 to 178 degrees F d. 185 to 196 degrees F

Answers

The  option b, 160 to 167 degrees F, is likely the correct answer.

The primary goal of laundering healthcare linens is to remove soil and microbial contamination to prevent the spread of infections. The temperature of the wash water is a critical factor in achieving this goal because it directly affects the effectiveness of the cleaning and disinfection process.

According to the CDC guidelines, the minimum wash water temperature for processing healthcare linens is 160 to 165 degrees Fahrenheit (71 to 74 degrees Celsius). This temperature range is based on the fact that most bacterial pathogens and viruses are killed at temperatures above 160 degrees Fahrenheit.

It is important to note that different types of healthcare linens may have different temperature requirements based on their fabric type and level of contamination. For example, some delicate fabrics may require lower temperatures to prevent damage, while heavily soiled linens may require higher temperatures to ensure effective cleaning.

In addition to temperature, other factors such as the duration of the wash cycle, detergent selection, and mechanical action are also important in achieving effective cleaning and disinfection of healthcare linens. Proper training and adherence to established laundry protocols are essential to ensure that healthcare linens are processed safely and effectively.

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: 215) By applying the law of superposition ________ dates can be determined. A) conventional B) radiometric C) relative D) both relative and radiometric

Answers

The correct answer is C) Relative dates can be determined by applying the law of superposition.

This law states that in any undisturbed sequence of rocks, the oldest layer is at the bottom and each successive layer is younger than the one beneath it. By examining the relative positions of rock layers and fossils within them, geologists can determine the relative ages of rocks and the fossils they contain. Radiometric dating, on the other hand, involves using the decay of radioactive isotopes to determine the absolute age of a rock or mineral. The law of superposition states that in an undeformed sequence of sedimentary rocks, each layer of sediment is older than the one above it and younger than the one below it. This law is useful for determining the relative ages of sedimentary rocks, but it cannot be used to determine the absolute ages of rocks.

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If a ball is rolling down an inclined plane without slipping, which force is responsible for causing its rotation?

Answers

The force responsible for causing the ball's rotation as it rolls down an inclined plane without slipping is the torque force.


This force is generated by the ball's weight and the angle of the inclined plane, which causes the ball to rotate around its center of mass. As the ball moves down the inclined plane, the torque force creates rotational motion that helps the ball maintain its rolling motion without slipping. Without the inclined plane, the ball would not be able to generate enough torque to rotate and would slide or stop moving altogether.
If a ball is rolling down an inclined plane without slipping, the force responsible for causing its rotation is the frictional force. This force acts at the point of contact between the ball and the inclined plane, providing the necessary torque for the ball to rotate as it moves down the incline.

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1. Complete the following statement: The angular measure 1.0 radian is equal to
A) 0.0175°.
B) 57.3°.
C) 1.57°.
D) 3.14°.
E) 6.28°.

Answers

The correct answer is B) 57.3°. This is because a radian is a unit of angular measure defined as the angle subtended at the center of a circle by an arc equal in length to the radius of the circle.


Angular measure is a unit of measurement used to describe an angle or the amount of rotation from a fixed point. It is typically expressed in units of degrees, minutes, and seconds. To convert radians to degrees, you can use the conversion factor: 1 radian = (180/π) degrees.
1.0 radian * (180/π) = 57.3°
So, the angular measure 1.0 radian is equal to: B) 57.3°.

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based on the information, which ,begin emphasis,most,end emphasis, likely happens to a beam of light when it passes through water?answer options with 4 options1.it copies, or duplicates, itself.2.it bends, or changes direction.3.it creates a new light source.4.it is absorbed and disappears.

Answers

The correct answer is option it bends, or changes direction. When light passes through water, it undergoes refraction, which causes the beam to bend or change direction. This is due to the change in speed of light as it passes from one medium air to another water.


The information the option that is most likely to happen to a beam of light when it passes through water is: 2. It bends, or changes direction.When you put the idea you want to emphasize in any place other than the stress position, one of two things can happen. First, the reader will realize that the stress position is occupied by something that clearly isn’t worthy of emphasis. In this case, the reader must discern on her own what else in the sentence may be the most likely candidate for emphasis and thus may not interpret your prose as you intended. The chance for misinterpretation gets worse in sentences that are long, dense or sophisticated.

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50. Through how many revolutions did the wheel rotate during the 5.0 seconds of braking?
A) 10 rev
B) 2.0 rev
C) 9.6 rev
D) 5.0 rev
E) 0.4 rev

Answers

The wheel rotated 150 revolutions during the 5.0 seconds of braking. The closest option is c.

To answer this question, we need to know the rate of rotation of the wheel. Let's call this rate "r". We can find "r" by dividing the initial speed of the wheel by its radius:

r = v / r

r = 20 m/s / 0.5

r = 40 rev/s

Now we can use the formula for rotational motion:

θ = ωt + 1/2 αt²

where θ is the angle of rotation, ω is the initial angular velocity (in rev/s), t is the time, and α is the angular acceleration (which is negative in this case, since the wheel is slowing down).

We want to find θ when t = 5.0 s. We know that ω = 40 rev/s and α = -4 rev/s² (since the wheel is slowing down at a rate of 4 rev/s every second).

θ = ωt + 1/2 αt²

θ = (40 rev/s)(5.0 s) + 1/2 (-4 rev/s²)(5.0 s)²

θ = 200 rev - 50 rev

θ = 150 rev

Therefore, the wheel rotated 150 revolutions during the 5.0 seconds of braking. The answer is not listed, but the closest option is C) 9.6 rev, which is incorrect.

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a piece of a thick ring of metal with height h and resistance r is connected to a battery, creating a uniform current i throughout the piece of ring, as shown in the figure above. a second piece of a ring has height 2h but is otherwise identical to the first piece. the second piece of ring is connected to the battery in the same way as the first piece. what is the resistance of the second piece?

Answers

The resistance of the second piece of the thick ring of metal is half the resistance of the first piece, or R2 = r/2.

Given that a piece of a thick ring of metal with height h and resistance r is connected to a battery, creating a uniform current i throughout the piece of ring, and a second piece of a ring has height 2h but is otherwise identical to the first piece and is connected to the battery in the same way as the first piece, we can determine the resistance of the second piece by following these steps:


1. Recall the formula for resistance:

R = ρ(L/A)

where

R is resistance,

ρ is resistivity,

L is length, and

A is the cross-sectional area.


2. For the first piece, the cross-sectional area A1 is height h times width w, so A1 = hw.


3. For the second piece, the height is 2h. The cross-sectional area A2 is height (2h) times width w, so A2 = 2hw.


4. The ratio of the cross-sectional areas of the two pieces is

   A1/A2 = (hw)/(2hw)

              = 1/2.


5. Since the pieces are otherwise identical, their resistivities (ρ) are the same. The ratio of the resistances is

  R1/R2 = (ρL1/A1) / (ρL2/A2)

             = (L1/A1) / (L2/A2).

6. Both pieces have the same length, so L1 = L2. Therefore, the ratio of the resistances is

      R1/R2 = (1/A1) / (1/A2)

                 = A2/A1.


7. Substituting the ratio of the cross-sectional areas, we have R1/R2 = 1/2.

8. The resistance of the second piece is R2 = R1 * (1/2).

Thus, the resistance of the second piece of the thick ring of metal is half the resistance of the first piece, or R2 = r/2.

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When selecting a conductor for a circuit, always select the conductors not smaller than the _______ of the equipment.

Answers

When selecting a conductor for a circuit, always select the conductors not smaller than the "minimum ampacity" of the equipment.

This ensures that the conductor can safely handle the current passing through it without overheating or causing damage to the circuit or equipment.

The National Electrical Code (NEC) provides ampacity tables and formulas to help electricians and designers select the appropriate conductor size based on the expected load and installation conditions. It is important to note that selecting a conductor that is too small for the equipment it will supply can result in overheating, equipment damage, and even fire hazards while selecting a conductor that is too large for the load can result in increased material and installation costs.

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What is the resistance of a light bulb if a potential difference of 120 V will produce a current of 0.5 A in the bulb?
0.0042 0
0 0.5 0
O 60 n
O 240 h

Answers

Explanation:

Remember

  V = IR       which is    V/I = R      120 v / .5 A = 240 Ω

which statement about eddy currents is false? they can be used as a passive braking system, as no external power source is needed if permanent magnets are used. the mechanical energy that is lost when eddy currents are created returns when the eddy currents cease. the faster the conductor moves, the larger the eddy currents will be. they are created in solid conducting plates as they move in and out of magnetic fields. they can be prevented by cutting a slot in a solid conducting plate, to prevent electrons from being able to make a complete circuit.

Answers

The statement that eddy currents can be prevented by cutting a slot in a solid conducting plate, to prevent electrons from being able to make a complete circuit is false.

What are eddy currents?

Eddy currents are loops of electrical current that are induced within conductive materials when there is a change in magnetic field. When a magnetic field is applied or changes in strength, the eddy currents are produced within the material, which then creates a magnetic field that opposes the original field. This phenomenon is known as electromagnetic induction.

The eddy currents produce a magnetic field that opposes the change in the original magnetic field, which in turn creates resistance to the motion of the original magnetic field. This resistance is called eddy current loss, and it causes the material to heat up.

By cutting a slot in a solid conducting plate can increase the eddy currents because it can create smaller loops within the plate, which can result in more eddy currents being induced. To prevent eddy currents, laminated or layered conductive materials can be used, as the insulation between the layers reduces the current flow and minimizes the eddy currents.

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the specific heats of several metals are given in the table. if the same number of joules were applied to the same mass of each metal, which metal would show the greatest temperature change?

Answers

The specific heat of a substance is defined as the amount of heat energy required to raise the temperature of one unit of mass of the substance by one degree Celsius (or one Kelvin).

As a result, given the same level of energy input, the material with the smallest amount of specific warmth will experience the largest temperature change. We can see through the table of metal specific heats that copper, exhibiting a value of 0.385 J/g°C, is the metal with the smallest specific heat.

So, among the metals presented in the table, metal would experience the largest rise in temperature whether the same quantity of joule were put to the identical amount of each metal.

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Correct Question:

The specific heats of several metals are given in the table. if the same number of joules were applied to the same mass of each metal, which metal would show the greatest temperature change?

Question 10
Which one of the following is not natural source of radiation exposure?
a. Radioactive minerals
b. Cosmic radiation
c. Nuclear power plants
d. plants

Answers

Nuclear power plants is not a natural source of radiation exposure. Option (c) is correct.

Radiation exposure can occur from both natural and man-made sources. Options (a) radioactive minerals and (b) cosmic radiation are natural sources of radiation exposure. Radioactive minerals such as uranium and radon can be found in rocks, soil, and building materials, while cosmic radiation comes from the sun and other stars.

Option (d) plants can also be a natural source of radiation exposure due to naturally occurring radioactive isotopes in the soil. However, nuclear power plants are not a natural source of radiation exposure as they use man-made processes to generate nuclear power, which can result in the release of radioactive materials. Option (c) is correct.

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A spring is stretched from 0.25 meter to a length of 1.50 meters by a weight of 3.20 N. What is the spring contant? Step by step please

Answers

Answer:

2.56 N/m

Explanation:

The force exerted by a spring is given by the equation:

[tex]F_s = kx[/tex]

where [tex]k[/tex] is the spring constant, and [tex]x[/tex] is the distance that the spring is stretched or compressed from its equilibrium.

To find [tex]x[/tex], we will simply subtract the spring's initial position from its final position:

[tex]x = 1.50 m - 0.25 m\\x = 1.25 m[/tex]

It is given in the problem that the force exerted by the spring is 3.20 Newtons. So, we can solve the equation for [tex]k[/tex] and calculate the spring constant.

[tex]k = \frac{F_s}{x} \\k = \frac{3.20N}{1.25m} \\k = 2.56 N/m[/tex]

Question 60 Marks: 1 Diatomaceous earth filtersChoose one answer. a. should be integrated into pressure-tank systems b. can be used for public water supplies c. should be augmented by chlorination d. can be left unattended for long periods of time

Answers

Diatomaceous earth filters can be used for public water supplies, but they should be augmented by chlorination. Option A is the correct answer.

Diatomaceous earth filters are effective at removing small particles and can be used for public water supplies. However, they should be augmented by chlorination to ensure the complete removal of harmful microorganisms.

These filters consist of a thin layer of diatomaceous earth on top of a support structure. As water passes through the filter, particles are trapped in the diatomaceous earth layer.

Over time, the diatomaceous earth becomes clogged with particles and must be cleaned or replaced.

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The question is -

Diatomaceous earth filters:

a. Should be supplemented by a chlorination system

b. Should be integrated into a rapid sand filtration system

c. Can be used for a public water treatment system

d. Cane be used in a public sewer treatment system

Relative humidity indicates the:
-chance of cloud formation.
-nearness to saturation for the air.
-actual amount of water in the air.
-chance for evaporation of water.
-probability of precipitation.

Answers

Relative humidity indicates the nearness to saturation for the air, which means the amount of water vapor present in the air relative to the maximum amount the air can hold at that temperature. So the correct option is b.

Relative humidity indicates the nearness to saturation for the air. Relative humidity is a measure of the amount of moisture present in the air compared to the maximum amount of moisture the air could hold at a particular temperature, expressed as a percentage. It is a measure of how close the air is to being saturated with moisture. When the relative humidity is 100%, the air is fully saturated and cannot hold any more moisture, which often leads to the formation of clouds or precipitation. Conversely, when the relative humidity is lower, the air has the capacity to hold more moisture before reaching saturation. Relative humidity is an important parameter in weather forecasting, as it can affect various atmospheric processes such as cloud formation, evaporation, and precipitation.

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What do the initial momentsafter the Big Bang have incommon with the universeas it exists now?

Answers

The initial moments after the Big Bang and the current universe have a few things in common like Expansion; Radiation; Structure formation; etc.

Expansion: The universe has been expanding since the Big Bang, and this expansion is still happening. The initial moments after the Big Bang were characterized by a period of rapid inflation, and this expansion has continued to shape the structure of the universe we see today.

Radiation: The universe was filled with intense radiation in the initial moments after the Big Bang, and this radiation still exists in the form of the cosmic microwave background (CMB) radiation.

This radiation is thought to have been produced about 380,000 years after the Big Bang and has been traveling through space ever since, providing us with valuable information about the early universe.

Formation of structure: The initial moments after the Big Bang set the stage for the formation of the large-scale structure of the universe we observe today, such as galaxies, stars, and planets. The tiny fluctuations in the density of matter in the early universe were amplified by gravitational attraction over time, leading to the formation of these structures.

However, there are also many differences between the early universe and the universe as it exists now. For example, the universe was much hotter and denser in the early moments after the Big Bang, and there were no stars or galaxies yet.

The universe has also undergone many complex physical processes over billions of years, such as the formation of black holes and the evolution of stars, that were not present in the early universe.

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What is the approximate time of death if the body temperature was 10°C (50°F)?

Answers

If the body temperature was 10°C, the approximate time of death would be between 12 and 36 hours, depending on the surroundings and other variables.

What time does death occur?

However, it's crucial to note that the time of death can be influenced by several factors like the environment, clothing, and the person's physical state. The time of death can also be estimated by measuring the body temperature, also known as algor mortis.

After death, the body temperature decreases at a rate of roughly 1.5°C per hour, though this might change depending on the surroundings and other variables. It is impossible to pinpoint the exact time of death if the body temperature was 10°C, although it may indicate that death happened several hours earlier because the body temperature will continue to drop after death.

However, other techniques, like lividity, rigor mortis, and inspection of the stomach contents, are more accurate, hence it is not advised to utilize this method alone to establish the time of death. For a more precise estimation of the time of death, a forensic specialist should be consulted.

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(II) At the top of a pole vault, an athlete actually can do work pushing on the pole before releasing it. Suppose the pushing force that the pole exerts back on the athlete is given by acting over a distance of 0.20 How much work is done on the athlete

Answers

The question is asking for the work done on the athlete by the pushing force of the pole. The pushing force that the pole exerts back on the athlete is given as an external force. The work done by an external force is calculated using the formula W = Fd, where W is work, F is force, and d is the distance over which the force acts. In this case, the pushing force of the pole is given as an external force of unknown magnitude, but we are given the distance over which it acts, which is 0.20 meters. Therefore, we can use this distance along with the formula W = Fd to calculate the work done on the athlete:
W = Fd

We don't know the value of F, so we cannot solve for W directly. However, we do know that the pushing force of the pole is equal and opposite to the force exerted by the athlete on the pole. This is because of Newton's third law of motion, which states that for every action, there is an equal and opposite reaction. So, we can assume that the force exerted by the athlete on the pole is also equal in magnitude to the pushing force of the pole, but in the opposite direction. Therefore, we can rewrite the formula for work as:
W = -Fd
where the negative sign indicates that the work done is in the opposite direction to the force.
Now, we can substitute the given values into the formula to find the work done on the athlete:
W = -(F)(0.20)

We don't know the value of F, but we can assume that it is a positive value since the pole is pushing back on the athlete. Therefore, the negative sign in the formula will make the work done negative, indicating that it is in the opposite direction to the pushing force of the pole. Without knowing the value of F, we cannot calculate the exact amount of work done on the athlete. However, we can say that the work done will be negative and proportional to the magnitude of the pushing force of the pole, multiplied by the distance over which it acts.

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an electron is accelerated from rest through a potential difference of 50.0 kv. what is the total energy of the electron?

Answers

The total energy of the electron can be calculated using the equation:

Total energy = kinetic energy + potential energy

Since the electron is initially at rest, its kinetic energy is zero. Therefore, the total energy of the electron is equal to its potential energy, which is given by:

Potential energy = charge of electron x potential difference

The charge of an electron is -1.6 x 10^-19 coulombs, and the potential difference is 50.0 kV, which is equivalent to 50.0 x 10^3 volts. Substituting these values into the equation, we get:

Potential energy = (-1.6 x 10^-19 C) x (50.0 x 10^3 V) = -8.0 x 10^-16 J

Note that the negative sign indicates that the potential energy is negative, which means that the electron is moving from a higher potential to a lower potential. Therefore, the total energy of the electron is:

Total energy = kinetic energy + potential energy = 0 J + (-8.0 x 10^-16 J) = -8.0 x 10^-16 J

Again, the negative sign indicates that the total energy of the electron is negative, which means that the electron has lost energy as it moved through the potential difference.

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Question 70
Resource recovery can be expected to achiever no more than are __ duction in future landfill volume requirement.
a. 50 percent
b. 25 percent
c. 60 percent
d. 40 percent

Answers

Resource recovery can be expected to achieve no more than a 50 percent reduction in future landfill volume requirement. So, the correct answer is option a. 50 percent.

Resource recovery refers to the process of extracting useful materials from waste streams and transforming them into new products or energy sources. This can include recycling, composting, and other types of recovery technologies. By recovering resources from waste, the volume of waste that needs to be sent to landfills can be reduced. however, it is important to note that the success of resource recovery programs depends on a variety of factors, including the types of waste being generated, the availability of recovery technologies, and the public's willingness to participate in recycling.

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why does light refraction occur at the interface between two different media? some of the light is reflected , not selected the direction of the light changes , not selected incorrect answer: all of the above the speed of light is different in the two media , not selected the frequency of the light changes

Answers

The correct answer is "the speed of light is different in the two media." Light refraction occurs at the interface between two different media because the speed of light is different in each medium.

When light passes from one medium to another, its speed changes and this causes the light waves to bend. This bending is known as refraction. Some of the light is also reflected at the interface, but the primary reason for refraction is the change in speed. The frequency of the light remains the same, but the direction of the light changes due to the refraction.


 Light refraction occurs at the interface between two different media because the speed of light is different in the two media. When light travels from one medium to another, its speed changes, causing the direction of the light to change as well. This bending of light is known as refraction.

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Question 4 (1 point)
Which of the following adjusts the transparency or translucence of a shape or a layer?
A)fill
B)opacity
C)stroke
D)texture

Answers

Opacity adjusts the transparency or translucence of a shape or a layer. It is a measure of the degree to which light is allowed to pass through an object. Option B is correct.

The opacity setting is often used in graphic design and image editing software to control the visibility of layers, allowing designers to create interesting visual effects and overlays. When the opacity is set to 100%, the object is completely opaque and does not allow any light to pass through.

When the opacity is set to 0%, the object is completely transparent and allows all light to pass through. Intermediate values of opacity create varying degrees of transparency or translucence, allowing the underlying layers or background to show through to some extent.


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31) Where does most star formation occur in the Milky Way today? A) in the halo B) in the bulge C) in the spiral arms D) in the Galactic center E) uniformly throughout the Galaxy

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Most star formation in the Milky Way Galaxy today occurs in the Galactic spiral arms. These arms are regions of high density and concentration of gas and dust, which are necessary for the formation of stars.

As the Milky Way rotates, the spiral arms move through the Galaxy, sweeping up gas and dust and triggering the formation of new stars. The Galactic center is also a region of active star formation, but the conditions there are much more extreme and only certain types of stars can form. In contrast, the spiral arms offer a more conducive environment for a wider range of stars to form. Overall, star formation in the Milky Way is a complex and ongoing process, influenced by a variety of factors such as density, temperature, and chemical composition of the interstellar medium. Studying the locations and characteristics of star formation in the Galaxy can provide valuable insights into the evolution of our Galactic neighborhood and the formation of our own Solar System.

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