Question 1 (Mandatory) (1 point) The marginal cost curve a) intersects the ATC at its minimum point. b) intersects the AFC at its minimum point. c) always declines. d) is always S-shaped.

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Answer 1

The correct answer is option A: The marginal cost curve intersects the ATC at its minimum point.


Marginal cost (MC) is the additional cost incurred in producing one extra unit of a product. Average total cost (ATC) is the total cost per unit of output, which includes both fixed and variable costs. The point where the MC curve intersects the ATC curve is the minimum point of the ATC curve. This is because when the MC is below the ATC, adding an extra unit of output will lower the average cost. Conversely, if the MC is above the ATC, adding an extra unit of output will increase the average cost. Therefore, the point of intersection is where the average cost is at its lowest.
AFC stands for Average Fixed Cost, which is the fixed cost per unit of output. AFC continuously declines as the output increases since fixed costs are spread over more units.
The marginal cost curve is not always S-shaped, as it depends on the shape of the total cost curve. However, the marginal cost curve always declines initially and then may increase as the output increases.

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Related Questions

while watching her favorite tv show, amanda noticed an ad for a new brand of toothpaste. although amanda had never heard of this particular brand, the ad made her aware of the brand and, by the end of the ad, amanda was favorably disposed to the brand. which two objectives did this ad accomplish?

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The ad for the new brand of toothpaste accomplished the following two objectives:  the ad achieved both the objectives of creating brand awareness and influencing attitude towards the brand.

Awareness: The ad made Amanda aware of the brand. Prior to watching the ad, Amanda had never heard of this particular brand. The ad created brand awareness and introduced Amanda to the brand. Attitude: By the end of the ad, Amanda was favorably disposed to the brand. The ad was successful in creating a positive attitude towards the brand and in influencing Amanda's perception of the brand. Amanda's positive attitude towards the brand may encourage her to consider purchasing it in the future. Both creating brand awareness and influencing attitude towards the brand are critical components of a successful branding strategy. Without creating awareness, a brand cannot generate interest or attract potential customers. Without influencing attitude towards the brand, customers may not develop a positive emotional connection with the brand, which can negatively impact brand loyalty and customer retention. Therefore, it is essential for marketers to focus on both creating brand awareness and influencing attitude towards the brand in order to achieve long-term success.

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A monopolist has the following total cost function: TC = 100q - (1/2)q? The demand function facing the monopolist is: P = 200 - 39 a. Government regulations require this form to produce a positive amount and to set price equal to average cost. To comply with these requirements, what quantity should the monopoly produce and what price should it charge? b. If the above monopolist is free to maximize its profits, which price will it charge?

Answers

A. Monopoly quanity: 2.6 units. Monopoly price: $89.40.

B. Profit maximising price:  $121.24

a. To comply with the government regulations, the monopolist should produce the quantity at which price equals average cost.

First, let's find the monopolist's marginal cost (MC) function by taking the derivative of the total cost (TC) function:

MC = dTC/dq = 100 - q

Then, the average cost (AC) function can be found by dividing total cost by quantity:

AC = TC/q = 100 - (1/2)q

To set price equal to average cost, we need to solve for q in the demand function:

P = 200 - 39q = AC

Substituting AC for P:

200 - 39q = 100 - (1/2)q

Simplifying:

38.5q = 100

q = 2.6

Therefore, the monopolist should produce 2.6 units of output to comply with the regulations. To find the price, we can substitute q into the demand function:

P = 200 - 39(2.6) = 89.4

Therefore, the monopolist should charge a price of $89.40 to comply with the regulations.

b. To maximize profits, the monopolist should produce the quantity at which marginal revenue (MR) equals marginal cost (MC).

To find MR, we can use the demand function:

P = 200 - 39q

Total revenue (TR) is price times quantity:

TR = Pq = (200 - 39q)q = 200q - 39q^2

Marginal revenue is the derivative of total revenue with respect to quantity:

MR = dTR/dq = 200 - 78q

Setting MR equal to MC:

200 - 78q = 100 - q

Solving for q:

q = 1.96

Therefore, the monopolist should produce 1.96 units of output to maximize profits. To find the price, we can substitute q into the demand function:

P = 200 - 39(1.96) = 121.24

Therefore, the monopolist will charge a price of $121.24 to maximize profits.

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A DSS can be custom-made by assembling the system from a variety of tools including databases, Web servers and clients, and analytical engines, often from several vendors. true or false

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The statement is true because a Decision Support System (DSS) is a computer-based information system that helps users make decisions by analyzing data and models.

A DSS can be designed and customized to meet the specific needs of an organization by assembling various tools and technologies such as databases, web servers and clients, and analytical engines from different vendors. This allows for flexibility in designing a system that is tailored to the unique needs and requirements of the organization, rather than being limited to a pre-packaged solution.

As such, a DSS can be highly customizable and adaptable to changing business needs, making it a powerful tool for decision-making.

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According to data collected by Spencer Harrison, employees engaged in creative work were more likely to seek feedback when they were:
a. Motivated to improve their work
b. Extroverted
c. Curious
d. Creatively blocked

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According to data collected by "Spencer-Harrison", employees engaged in "creative-work" were more likely to seek feedback when they were (c) Curious.

According to the research conducted by "Spencer-Harrison", employees engaged in "creative-work" were more likely to seek feedback when they had a high level of curiosity.

This is because curious individuals tend to be more open to learning and seeking out more new experiences, which can help them improve their work.

Additionally, the curiosity can drive the individuals to explore new ideas and perspectives, which may lead them to seek feedback from others.

Therefore, the correct option is (c).

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What is the effect on present value when net income increases?a. conformityb. depreciationc. increasesd. decreases

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When net income increases, the effect on present value can be significant. Present value is the value of an investment or asset today, and it is calculated by discounting future cash flows back to their current value. When net income increases, it can lead to an increase in future cash flows, which in turn can increase the present value of the investment or asset.



The increase in net income can also lead to an increase in the discount rate used to calculate the present value, as investors may perceive the investment as less risky or more valuable. This can further increase the present value of the investment.

On the other hand, if net income decreases, the present value of the investment or asset may decrease as well, as future cash flows may be lower, and the investment may be perceived as riskier.

In summary, when net income increases, the present value of an investment or asset is likely to increase, while a decrease in net income may lead to a decrease in present value. It is important to consider net income when calculating present value, as it can have a significant impact on the value of an investment or asset.

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consider a bond with a zero percent coupon rate with 20 years to maturity. with a face value of $1,000. the price will this bond trade if the ytm is 6% is closest to: group of answer choices $312 $306 $335 $215

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The price at which a zero percent coupon bond with 20 years to maturity and a face value of $1,000 will trade at a yield to maturity of 6% is $335.

A zero percent coupon bond means that the bond does not make any interest payments throughout its life, but instead pays the face value at maturity. In this case, the face value is $1,000 and the maturity is 20 years.
The yield to maturity (YTM) is the total return anticipated on a bond if the bond is held until it matures. It takes into account the bond's current market price, par value, coupon interest rate, and time to maturity.
To calculate the price of the bond at a YTM of 6%, we can use the bond pricing formula:
Bond price = (Face value) / (1 + YTM)n
Where n is the number of years to maturity.
Plugging in the values for this bond, we get:
Bond price = (1,000) / (1 + 0.06)^20
Bond price = $335.06

Therefore, the closest answer choice to the price at which this bond will trade at a YTM of 6% is $335.

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Kimani sells life insurance and is considering buying a $50,000 Cadillac for business purposes (thus, the expense reduces her taxable income). If Kimani is in the 40 percent marginal tax bracket, how much after-tax income will she have to give up in order to enjoy the Cadillac?a. $30,000b. $20,000c. $25,000d. $70,000

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Kimani will have to give up $30,000 of after-tax income in order to enjoy the $50,000 Cadillac.

Kimani is in the 40 percent marginal tax bracket, which means that for every additional dollar of income, she will have to pay 40 cents in taxes. If she buys the $50,000 Cadillac for business purposes, this expense can be deducted from her taxable income.

The amount of income that Kimani will have to give up to enjoy the Cadillac is equal to the cost of the Cadillac minus the tax savings from deducting the expense from her taxable income.

Tax savings = $50,000 x 40% = $20,000

After-tax cost of the Cadillac = $50,000 - $20,000 = $30,000

Therefore, the answer is (a) $30,000.

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an appliance manufacturing company has retained earnings of $90,000 as of december 31, 2020. the pro-forma income statement projects net income of $25,000 for 2021. the company expects to declare their annual dividend on march 1, 2021 of $0.75 per share and has a total of 100,000 shares outstanding. what will the projected retained earnings account be as of december 31, 2021?

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The projected retained earnings account as of December 31, 2021 will be $90,000 - $50,000 = $40,000.

To calculate the projected retained earnings account as of December 31, 2021, we need to consider the beginning retained earnings, net income for 2021, and the annual dividend payment.

The beginning retained earnings as of December 31, 2020, is $90,000. The projected net income for 2021 is $25,000. To calculate the total annual dividend payment, multiply the dividend per share ($0.75) by the total shares outstanding (100,000), which equals $75,000.

Now, add the net income to the beginning retained earnings, then subtract the annual dividend payment:
Projected retained earnings = ($90,000 + $25,000) - $75,000 = $40,000

As of December 31, 2021, the projected retained earnings account will be $40,000.

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Identify at least two monopolies operating in Ontario. What istheir pricing strategy?Discuss the barriers to entry that exist.

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Two common examples of monopolies in Ontario include the LCBO (Liquor Control Board of Ontario) and Hydro One (electricity provider).

The pricing strategy of monopolies is typically to maximize profits by setting prices at a level that is higher than the marginal cost of production. This is because monopolies have the ability to limit output and charge higher prices without fear of competition.

The barriers to entry for monopolies can be significant, which allows them to maintain their dominant position in the market. Some common barriers to entry include high capital costs, regulatory barriers, control over essential resources or distribution channels, and economies of scale.

For example, Hydro One controls the electricity transmission and distribution infrastructure in Ontario, making it difficult for new competitors to enter the market.

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The consumer price index was 177.1 in 2001 and 179.9 in 2002. Therefore, the rate of inflation in 2002 was about:
A) 1.6 percent.
B) 4.1 percent.
C) 3.4 percent.
D) 2.8 percent

Answers

The consumer price index was 177.1 in 2001 and 179.9 in 2002. Therefore, the rate of inflation in 2002 was about: A) 1.6 percent.

What is consumer price index (CPI)?

The Consumer Price Index (CPI) is a measure of the average change over time in the prices paid by urban consumers for a market basket of goods and services. The CPI is often used as an indicator of inflation or deflation in an economy.

To calculate the rate of inflation between two years using the consumer price index (CPI), we can use the following formula:

Inflation rate = ((CPI in year 2 - CPI in year 1) / CPI in year 1) x 100%

Using the given data, we can calculate the inflation rate in 2002 as follows:

Inflation rate = ((179.9 - 177.1) / 177.1) x 100%

Inflation rate = (2.8 / 177.1) x 100%

Inflation rate = 0.0158 x 100%

Inflation rate = 1.58%

Therefore, the rate of inflation in 2002 was about 1.6 percent (option A).

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a(n) _______ is a dissenting shareholder’s right to have his/her shares appraised and to receive monetary compensation from the corporation for their value

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An appraisal right is a dissenting shareholder's right to have his/her shares appraised and to receive monetary compensation from the corporation for their value.

What is meant by appraisal rights?

Appraisal rights are a legal protection that allows shareholders who dissent or object to a proposed corporate action, such as a merger, consolidation, or share exchange, to have their shares independently appraised to determine their fair value. If the shareholder disagrees with the proposed action or the price offered for their shares, they may exercise their appraisal rights and demand that the corporation buy back their shares at the fair value determined by an appraisal process.

The purpose of appraisal rights is to protect minority shareholders from potential unfair treatment in corporate actions that could result in a loss of value or control of their shares. By exercising appraisal rights, dissenting shareholders have the opportunity to receive fair compensation for their shares, as determined by an independent appraisal, rather than being forced to accept the terms of the proposed corporate action.

It's important to note that the specific rules and procedures for exercising appraisal rights may vary by jurisdiction and the type of corporate action involved, as they are governed by applicable corporate laws and regulations. Shareholders considering exercising appraisal rights should seek legal advice and follow the appropriate legal processes in their jurisdiction to protect their rights and interests.

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Generating brand new ideas is necessary for achieving innovation.
True or False?

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Generating brand-new ideas is necessary for achieving innovation.True

Generating new ideas is essential for achieving innovation. Innovation is the process of developing and implementing new ideas to improve products, services, or processes. Without new ideas, it is impossible to achieve innovation.

New ideas can come from many sources, such as research, customer feedback, brainstorming, and experimentation. Generating new ideas is not only important for creating innovative products and services, but also for staying competitive in today's rapidly changing business environment. Companies that continuously generate new ideas and implement them successfully are more likely to grow and succeed than those that do not.

In summary, generating brand new ideas is crucial for achieving innovation, and it is a necessary component of a successful business strategy.

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suppose the pay-per-view network decides to broadcast call the midwife. assuming the pay-per-view network has the monopoly right to broadcast the show, how much will they charge for each episode, and how many viewers will they have? price per episode: $ number of viewers per episode: million c. relative to part b, how much additional surplus would be gained for each episode if pbs broadcast call the midwife free of charge? additional surplus: $ million

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If a pay-per-view network broadcasts an announcement and charges, then the cost per episode is $8, and there are 2 million viewers per episode.

With an episode costing $4 and 3 million viewers, the money generated is $4 * 3 = $12 million. With an episode costing $8 and 2 million viewers, the company will make 16 million dollars. $1 million in viewers per episode times $12 is $12 million in revenue. Therefore, it's ideal for them to charge $8 as they will generate the most money at this pricing. The cost per episode is $8, and there are 2 million viewers per episode.

C) If the programme is openly broadcast, there will be an additional surplus of $2,50,000, or $0.25 million, per episode.

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A shortcoming of the unemployment rate for the US is that Select an answer and submit. For keyboard navigation, use the up/down arrow keys to select an answer a it excludes discouraged workers and part time workers who would prefer to be working full time. b it does not distinguish between living-at-home teenagers and head of household unemployed. с it does not take into account the length of time being unemployed. d it does not identify demographic differences: men, women, people of color, and age.

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A shortcoming of the unemployment rate for the US is that it excludes discouraged workers and part time workers who would prefer to be working full time.

The correct answer is a) it excludes discouraged workers and part-time workers who would prefer to be working full time. The unemployment rate only considers individuals who are actively seeking employment and are currently without a job. It does not include individuals who have given up looking for work, known as discouraged workers, or those who are working part-time but would prefer full-time employment.

This means that the unemployment rate may underestimate the true level of unemployment and may not accurately reflect the labor market's health.

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Why do Firms Create new products?5 reasons

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There are several reasons why firms create new products:

Meeting customer needs and preferences: One of the primary reasons for creating new products is to meet the changing needs and preferences of customers. As customer tastes and preferences change over time, firms need to develop new products that can meet these evolving demands.

Competitive advantage: Firms may create new products to gain a competitive advantage over their rivals. By introducing innovative products, firms can differentiate themselves from competitors and gain a larger share of the market.

Increasing revenue and profits: Creating new products can be a way for firms to increase their revenue and profits. By developing products that are in high demand, firms can generate additional sales and profits.

Expanding into new markets: New products can be a way for firms to expand into new markets or customer segments. By developing products that appeal to different customer groups, firms can increase their market share and reach new customers.

Improving efficiency and productivity: Creating new products can also be a way for firms to improve their efficiency and productivity. By developing products that are more efficient to produce or use, firms can reduce their costs and improve their bottom line.

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(c) How does the ADF procedure change if you believe that the error sequence Ut is serially correlated?

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If you believe that the error sequence Ut is serially correlated, the Augmented Dickey-Fuller (ADF) procedure will need to be modified. In this case, you cannot simply rely on the standard ADF test statistic to determine whether or not the time series is stationary.

One approach to dealing with serially correlated errors is to use a modified version of the ADF test, such as the Phillips-Perron (PP) test. The PP test is similar to the ADF test, but it allows for the possibility of serial correlation in the error term. Specifically, the PP test uses a different set of critical values than the standard ADF test, which are adjusted to account for the presence of serial correlation.

Another approach is to estimate a more complex model that includes additional variables to capture the serial correlation in the error term. For example, you could use an autoregressive integrated moving average (ARIMA) model to capture the dynamics of the error term. This approach would require more data and more parameters to estimate, but it may provide a more accurate representation of the underlying data generating process.

Overall, if you believe that the error sequence Ut is serially correlated, it is important to adjust your testing procedure accordingly in order to obtain reliable results.

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in event marketing, an activity that involves organizing suppliers of goods or services who will be present at an event.

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The term that best describes this concept in event marketing is vendor management.

Vendor management refers to the process of identifying, selecting, and coordinating the various suppliers of goods or services who will be present at an event. This can include vendors such as food and beverage providers, equipment rental companies, entertainment providers, and marketing and advertising agencies.

Effective vendor management is critical to the success of an event, as it ensures that all necessary resources are in place and that vendors are aligned with the goals and objectives of the event. Key activities involved in vendor management may include vendor selection, contract negotiation, logistics planning, and ongoing communication and coordination with vendors throughout the event planning and execution process.

Overall, vendor management is an important aspect of event marketing, as it helps to ensure that all necessary resources are in place and that the event is executed successfully. By working closely with vendors and managing their involvement in the event, event marketers can create a seamless and engaging experience for attendees, while achieving their desired goals and objectives.

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which of the following statements are correct? check all that apply. the price of his shares will rise if arcadia issues additional shares of stock. expectations of a recession that will reduce economywide corporate profits will likely cause the value of karim's shares to decline. the dow jones industrial average is an example of a stock exchange where he can purchase arcadia stock.

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Here are the correct statements: 1. Expectations of a recession that will reduce economywide corporate profits will likely cause the value of Karim's shares to decline.


The other two statements are incorrect: - The price of Karim's shares may not necessarily rise if Arcadia issues additional shares of stock. Issuing more shares can dilute the value of existing shares, which might cause the price to fall or remain unchanged depending on various factors. The Dow Jones Industrial Average is not an example of a stock exchange. It is a stock market index that tracks the performance of 30 large, publicly-owned companies trading on the New York Stock Exchange (NYSE) and the NASDAQ. Arcadia stock would be purchased on a stock exchange like the NYSE or NASDAQ, not the Dow Jones Industrial Average.

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for a large firm that produces and sells automobiles, which of the following costs would be fixed costs? (select all that apply) group of answer choices the rent that the firm pays for office space in a suburb of st. louis the unemployment insurance premium that the firm pays to the state of missouri, which is calculated based on the number of worker-hours that the firm uses. the cost of the steel that is used in producing automobiles the $100,00 payment that the firm pays each year for accounting services

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The fixed costs for the large firm that produces and sells automobiles are the rent for office space and the annual payment for accounting services, while the cost of steel and the unemployment insurance premium are variable costs.

Fixed costs are expenses that do not vary with the level of production or sales volume. They are incurred regardless of how much the company produces or sells. In the case of the large automobile firm, the rent for the office space in a suburb of St. Louis is a fixed cost since the company pays the same amount of rent regardless of how many cars it produces or sells. Similarly, the $100,000 payment that the firm pays each year for accounting services is a fixed cost, as the amount remains the same regardless of the production or sales volume. In contrast, variable costs are expenses that vary directly with the level of production or sales volume. In the case of the automobile firm, the cost of steel that is used in producing automobiles is a variable cost, as it increases with the production volume. The unemployment insurance premium that the firm pays to the state of Missouri based on the number of worker-hours that the firm uses is also a variable cost. It increases as the firm hires more workers or increases the number of work hours.

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when we adjust the wacc to reflect flotation costs, this approach multiple choice raises only the cost of external equity. reduces the cost of debt. reduces each capital source's effective cost. raises each capital source's effective cost.

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Flotation costs refer to the expenses spent when a corporation issues new securities, such as fees paid to underwriters, legal fees, and printing costs.

When we adjust the WACC to reflect flotation costs, this approach raises each capital source's effective cost. Flotation costs refer to the expenses incurred when a company issues new securities, such as fees paid to underwriters, legal fees, and printing costs. These costs reduce the net proceeds that the company receives from the issuance, which in turn increases the effective cost of capital for each source of funding. Therefore, to accurately reflect the impact of flotation costs on the WACC, each capital source's effective cost must be adjusted upward.

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during the 1920s, the primary economic problem facing the united states had to do with quizlt

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During the 1920s, the primary economic problem facing the United States had to do with income inequality and overproduction.

The 1920s, also known as the "Roaring Twenties," were characterized by rapid economic growth and prosperity, leading to a significant increase in consumer spending. However, this growth was not equally distributed among the population, resulting in a large income gap between the rich and the poor.

Additionally, overproduction of goods led to a surplus in the market, causing prices to drop and contributing to the onset of the Great Depression. Industries such as agriculture and manufacturing faced significant challenges due to overproduction, as supply exceeded demand.

This imbalance contributed to high levels of debt, unemployment, and economic instability, ultimately leading to the stock market crash of 1929 and the subsequent Great Depression.

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Fiscal policy refers to a. the effect of changes in the money supply on interest rates. b. reductions in private sector borrowing when there's a budget deficit.c. changes in the level of government spending or taxes. d. the Fed's choice of interest rates.

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Fiscal policy refers to changes in the level of government spending or taxes. For that reason the correct option is C.

It plays a crucial role in balancing the economy and ensuring accurate accounting of business and money flows. It requires careful judgment and adaptation to changes in demand and the overall economic environment.

Any errors in fiscal policy can have a significant impact on the economy, making it important to have accurate accounting and a deep understanding of economic principles.

Therefore, fiscal policy is a necessary tool used by governments to balance the economy, manage demand, and support businesses. Through accurate accounting and economic judgment, authorities adapt fiscal policies to minimize errors and maintain a healthy economic environment.

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In which circumstance would the Federal Reserve be MOST likely to pursue a contractionary monetary policy?

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High inflation rates and rising prices would make the Federal Reserve most likely to pursue contractionary monetary policy under these circumstances. Here option A is the correct answer.

Contractionary monetary policy involves the Federal Reserve taking actions to decrease the money supply and increase interest rates. This policy is typically pursued when the economy is overheating and inflation is a concern. By reducing the money supply, the Federal Reserve can make it more expensive for individuals and businesses to borrow money, which can slow down spending and reduce inflationary pressures.

Slow economic growth and high unemployment are typically addressed through expansionary monetary policy, which involves increasing the money supply and lowering interest rates to encourage borrowing and spending.

Low-interest rates and a weak currency may be addressed through expansionary monetary policy as well to stimulate economic growth. Increased government spending and higher deficits are usually addressed through fiscal policy, which involves changes to government spending and taxation.

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Complete question:

Which of the following circumstances would the Federal Reserve be MOST likely to pursue a contractionary monetary policy?

a. High inflation rates and rising prices.

b. Slow economic growth and high unemployment.

c. Low interest rates and a weak currency.

d. Increased government spending and higher deficits.

Share of disposable income: what has happened in the last century?

Answers

In 2022, there will likely be a rise in per capita disposable income, which could create an opportunity for the sector. The personal savings rate is the proportion of discretionary income that is set aside for retirement or other future needs.

The amount to be deducted from a person's wages for payments to third parties or past taxes is determined by the federal government using that person's disposable income. The level of consumer expenditure on goods and services is assumed to have a strong link across time with changes in real disposable income. This connection between current real disposable income and household spending and saving was the main emphasis of the Keynesian theory of consumption.

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13. During the Great Depression years from 1930-1933, both the currency ratio cand the excess reserves ratio e rose dramatically. What effect did these factors have on the money multiplier?

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During the Great Depression the currency ratio and the excess reserves ratio both rose dramatically during this time. These factors had a significant impact on the money multiplier, which decreased as a result.

This was due to the fact that the money multiplier is calculated based on the ratio of the money supply to the monetary base, and with the currency and excess reserves ratios both increasing, the monetary base was also increasing, but the money supply was not keeping pace.

With the great depression the economy was in a state of turmoil and many businesses were struggling. The accounting practices at the time were not as accurate as they are today, which led to errors in judgment regarding the demand for money.

As a result, the money multiplier decreased, which further exacerbated the economic problems of the time. In order to adapt to these circumstances, policymakers had to carefully monitor these ratios and adjust their policies accordingly to try to stabilize the economy.

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as a manager, susan is trying to establish a climate of positivity. she has hired two people who leave every interaction happier, more energized, and uplifted. they simply make others feel good. in addition, susan made assignments based on the strengths of her team members and based on what they do best. and most importantly, she has been firm on the team members when they make mistakes. if a mistake is made, the offending team member is replaced. which principle of establishing a climate of positivity has susan violated?

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Susan has violated the principle of establishing a climate of positivity by being too harsh and unforgiving when team members make mistakes.

Susan has violated the principle of establishing a climate of positivity by being too harsh and unforgiving when team members make mistakes. While it is important to hold team members accountable for their actions, replacing them immediately after making a mistake can create a culture of fear and negativity. A positive climate should prioritize encouragement, support, and growth for team members, while also addressing mistakes and weaknesses in a constructive and collaborative way.

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Active asset managers select investments based primarily upon:a. inefficient market pricing of the investmentb. efficient market pricing of the investmentc. minimum time needed to achieve projected investment returnsd. minimum number of investments needed to achieve projected investment returns

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In general, active asset managers choose assets largely based on the investment's inefficient market price.

In general, active asset managers select investments based primarily upon inefficient market pricing of the investment. This means they look for opportunities where they believe the market has mispriced an investment, and they aim to capitalize on that mispricing to generate alpha or excess returns. The minimum time needed to achieve projected investment returns and the minimum number of investments needed to achieve those returns may also be important considerations for active asset managers, depending on their investment strategy and objectives.

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Active asset managers choose assets largely based on: the shortest amount of time required to realize expected investment returns. Option C is Correct.

An actively managed stock fund's performance or risk is evaluated by the active manager using an index as a benchmark. If a company's sustainability has not been thoroughly investigated, an investor may choose to forego an investment if it is not included in a certain index.

Analyzing market trends, economic and political data, and company-specific news are all part of active asset management. Active investors make purchases or sales after examining this kind of data. Compared to fund managers who replicate the holdings of assets included on an index, active managers seek to increase returns. Option C is Correct.

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Correct Question:

Active asset managers select investments based primarily upon:

a. inefficient market pricing of the investment.

b. efficient market pricing of the investment.

c. minimum time needed to achieve projected investment returns.

d. minimum number of investments needed to achieve projected investment returns.

Market for ABC company’s clothingABC clothing company produces clothing that is sold online and in catalogs, which is catered to a lower income consumer.Suppose the company’s demand curve for 2019 was the following:Qd = 2000 – 150P +1.1A + 15PDEFAnd the company’s supply curve wasQs = 250 + 5P,whereQd is the quantity of product demanded for ABC company clothingP = the average price of goods produced by ABC companyA = Advertising expenditures in dollarsPDEF = the average price of DEF clothing, a competitor’s clothing, in dollarsQs is the quantity of product supplied for ABC company’s clothingDraw the market for all catalog clothing in 2019, assuming typical demand and supply curves. Label the equilibrium price p2019 and the equilibrium quantity q2019.

Answers

To draw the market for all catalog clothing in 2019, we need to plot the demand and supply curves for ABC company's clothing.

The demand curve is Qd = 2000 – 150P +1.1A + 15PDEF. This means that the quantity of ABC company's clothing demanded by consumers depends on the price of the clothing, advertising expenditures, and the price of DEF clothing (a competitor's clothing). As the price of ABC clothing increases, the quantity demanded decreases. Similarly, as advertising expenditures and the price of DEF clothing increase, the quantity demanded increases.

The supply curve is Qs = 250 + 5P. This means that the quantity of ABC company's clothing supplied by the company depends on the price of the clothing. As the price of ABC clothing increases, the quantity supplied increases.

To find the equilibrium price and quantity, we need to find the point where the demand and supply curves intersect. We can do this by setting Qd = Qs:

2000 – 150P +1.1A + 15PDEF = 250 + 5P

Simplifying this equation, we get:

1750 – 145P + 1.1A + 15PDEF = 0

To solve for P, we need more information about A and PDEF. Assuming typical demand and supply curves, we can estimate the equilibrium price and quantity for ABC company's clothing.

Let's assume that A = $100,000 and PDEF = $20. Plugging in these values, we get:

1750 – 145P + 110,000 + 15(20) = 0

Simplifying this equation, we get:

145P = 118,250

P = $815.52 (rounded to the nearest cent)

To find the equilibrium quantity, we can plug this price into either the demand or supply curve. Let's use the supply curve:

Qs = 250 + 5P

Qs = 250 + 5($815.52)

Qs = 4,032.60 (rounded to the nearest unit)

Therefore, the equilibrium price for ABC company's clothing in 2019 was $815.52 and the equilibrium quantity was 4,033 units.

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Transaction costs Group of answer choices are incurred in the production process due to externalities. are eliminated when the government intervenes in a market with externalities. can keep private parties from solving externality problems. increase when taxes are imposed to correct negative externalities.

Answers

Transaction costs refer to the expenses incurred in the process of buying or selling goods and services in a market.

These costs may include fees for legal services, transportation expenses, and other related expenses.

However, in the case of externalities, transaction costs may increase due to the presence of certain factors that affect the production process.
Externalities are the effects that the production or consumption of goods and services have on third parties that are not directly involved in the transaction.

These externalities can be positive or negative and can lead to inefficiencies in the market.

For example, pollution from a factory may negatively affect the health of nearby residents, and this negative externality is not reflected in the market price of the goods produced by the factory.
When the government intervenes in a market with externalities, it can help to eliminate transaction costs by correcting the negative externalities.

This is done through the imposition of taxes or regulations that force producers to internalize the costs of their actions.

By internalizing the costs, producers are incentivized to reduce the negative externality, which ultimately leads to a more efficient market.

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Binary integer programming problems are those where all the decision variables restricted to integer values are further restricted to be binary variables, true or false?

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Problems with binary integer programming are those in which all the decision variables are further constrained to only have binary values. This statement is true.

Binary integer programming problems are a special type of integer programming problem where all decision variables are restricted to binary values. In other words, each decision variable can take only two possible values, typically 0 or 1.

Binary integer programming problems are of great importance in various fields, including logistics, production planning, and scheduling. They are often used to model decision-making problems in which a decision must be made between two mutually exclusive options, such as whether to accept or reject a project, hire or not hire an employee, or buy or not buy a certain product.

Binary integer programming problems can be solved using a variety of techniques, including branch and bound, cutting planes, and heuristics. However, finding the optimal solution to a binary integer programming problem can be challenging, especially for large-scale problems. As a result, many solvers use a combination of exact and heuristic methods to efficiently find good solutions to these problems.

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