Contribution Format Income Statement: Hawaiian Fantasy Tahitian Joy Total
Sales (20,000 units × $15) $300,000 $ 500,000 $800,000
Variable Expenses:
(20,000 units × $9) $180,000 $100,000 $280,000
Contribution Margin $120,000 $400,000 $520,000
Fixed Expenses $475,800
Net Operating Income $44,200
Contribution Margin Percentage:
Hawaiian Fantasy: ($120,000 / $300,000) × 100% = 40%
Tahitian Joy: ($400,000 / $500,000) × 100% = 80%
Company as a whole: ($520,000 / $800,000) × 100% = 65%
Revised Contribution Format Income Statement:
Hawaiian Fantasy Tahitian Joy Samoan Delight Total
Sales (20,000 units × $15) $300,000 $ 500,000 $ 450,000 $1,250,000
Variable Expenses:
(20,000 units × $9) $180,000 $100,000 $ 360,000 $640,000
Contribution Margin $120,000 $400,000 $ 90,000 $610,000
Fixed Expenses $475,800
Net Operating Income $134,200
Contribution Margin Percentage:
Hawaiian Fantasy: ($120,000 / $300,000) × 100% = 40%
Tahitian Joy: ($400,000 / $500,000) × 100% = 80%
Samoan Delight: ($90,000 / $450,000) × 100% = 20%
Company as a whole: ($610,000 / $1,250,000) × 100% = 48.8%
Break-even Point in Dollar Sales:
Original Break-even Point:
Fixed Expenses / Overall Contribution Margin Ratio
$475,800 / ([$520,000 / $800,000]) = $475,800 / 0.65 = $732,923
Revised Break-even Point:
Fixed Expenses / Overall Contribution Margin Ratio
$475,800 / ([$610,000 / $1,250,000]) = $475,800 / 0.488 = $974,180
Margin of Safety in Dollars:
Original Margin of Safety:
Actual Sales - Break-even Sales
$800,000 - $732,923 = $67,077
Revised Margin of Safety:
Actual Sales - Break-even Sales
$1,250,000 - $974,180 = $275,820
Margin of Safety Percentage:
Original Margin of Safety Percentage:
(Margin of Safety / Actual Sales) × 100%
($67,077 / $800,000) × 100% = 8.38%
Revised Margin of Safety Percentage:
(Margin of Safety / Actual Sales) × 100%
($275,820 / $1,250,000) × 100% = 22.07%
Please note that all calculations are based on the given information and assumptions.
To know more about variable expense here
https://brainly.com/question/30191622
#SPJ4
Island Novelties, Inc., Of Palau Makes Two Products—Hawaiian Fantasy And Tahitian Joy. Each Product's Selling Price, Variable Expense Per Unit, And Annual Sales Volume Are As Follows: Hawaiian Fantasy Tahitian Joy Selling Price Per Unit $ 15 $ 100 Variable Expense Per
Island Novelties, Inc., of Palau makes two products—Hawaiian Fantasy and Tahitian Joy. Each product's selling price, variable expense per unit, and annual sales volume are as follows:
Hawaiian Fantasy Tahitian Joy
Selling price per unit $ 15 $ 100
Variable expense per unit $ 9 $ 20
Number of units sold annually 20,000 5,000
Fixed expenses total $475,800 per year.
Required:
1. Assuming the sales mix given above, do the following:
a. Prepare a contribution format income statement showing both dollar and percent columns for each product and for the company as a whole.
b. Compute the company's break-even point in dollar sales. Also, compute its margin of safety in dollars and its margin of safety percentage.
2. The company has developed a new product called Samoan Delight that sells for $45 each and that has variable expenses of $36 per unit. If the company can sell 10,000 units of Samoan Delight without incurring any additional fixed expenses:
a. Prepare a revised contribution format income statement that includes Samoan Delight. Assume that sales of the other two products does not change.
b. Compute the company’s revised break-even point in dollar sales. Also, compute its revised margin of safety in dollars and margin of safety percentage
he real risk-free rate is 2.00%. Inflation is expected to be 2.20% this year and 6.00% next year. What is the yield on 2-year T-securities (report the percentage number with two decimal places and do not include % in your answer)?
The real risk-free rate is 2.00%. Inflation is expected to be 2.20% this year and 6.00% next year then the yield on 2-year T-securities is 6.10%.
To calculate the yield on 2-year T-securities, we need to consider the real risk-free rate and the expected inflation rates for the current and next year. The yield on T-securities represents the total return investors expect to receive.
First, let's calculate the nominal risk-free rate for each year:
Nominal Risk-Free Rate = Real Risk-Free Rate + Inflation Rate
For the current year:
Nominal Risk-Free Rate (Year 1) = 2.00% + 2.20% = 4.20%
For the next year:
Nominal Risk-Free Rate (Year 2) = 2.00% + 6.00% = 8.00%
Next, we need to determine the yield on 2-year T-securities. Since T-securities are typically considered risk-free investments, we can assume that the yield on the 2-year T-securities will be equal to the average of the nominal risk-free rates for both years.
Yield on 2-year T-securities = (Nominal Risk-Free Rate (Year 1) + Nominal Risk-Free Rate (Year 2)) / 2
Yield on 2-year T-securities = (4.20% + 8.00%) / 2
Yield on 2-year T-securities = 6.10%
The yield on T-securities represents the compensation investors require for lending their funds to the government. It accounts for the real risk-free rate (representing the time value of money) and the expected inflation rates. In this case, the yield on 2-year T-securities is influenced by the expected inflation rates of 2.20% and 6.00% for the current and next year, respectively. The higher expected inflation for the next year leads to a higher nominal risk-free rate and, consequently, a higher yield on the 2-year T-securities. Investors demand a higher return to offset the expected loss in purchasing power due to inflation.
For more such information on: inflation
https://brainly.com/question/8149429
#SPJ11
Today, the 2-year spot interest rate in the UK is 0.1%. The 2-year spot interest rate in the US is 1.16%. The spot FX market tells me that £1 is worth exactly $1.25 today. If the market two-year forward exchange rate of Sterling for US Dollars is $1.29 per £1, demonstrate whether an arbitrage is available and, if so, demonstrate how to exploit it.
The UK's 2-year spot interest rate is 0.1%, whereas the US's 2-year spot interest rate is 1.16%. The exchange rate between pounds and dollars is £1 for $1.25, and the two-year forward exchange rate is $1.29 per £1.
Using the formula: F = S(1 + i*d), where F is the two-year forward exchange rate, S is the spot exchange rate, i is the foreign interest rate, and d is the time period in years. Let us determine the arbitrage opportunity: UK: 2-year spot interest rate = 0.1%US: 2-year spot interest rate = 1.16%Spot FX rate = £1 for $1.25Forward FX rate (2-year) = $1.29 per £1. The expected forward exchange rate after two years, according to the formula F = S(1 + i*d), is: F = $1.25 (1 + 0.1% * 2 years)/1 £F = $1.254 per £1The current forward exchange rate is $1.29 per £1, whereas the expected forward exchange rate is $1.254 per £1.
An arbitrage opportunity exists as the forward rate is overvalued or too expensive at $1.29 per £1. The arbitrage opportunity can be exploited in the following way:
Step 1: Convert $1 into £0.8 (buy pounds)
Step 2: Invest the pounds in the UK at 0.1% for two years
step 3: After two years, we will get £0.8002. Step 4: £0.8002 will be converted into dollars at the new forward rate of $1.254 per £1, resulting in $1.003.
Step 5: The $1.003 will be invested in the US at 1.16% for two years.
Step 6: After two years, we will receive $1.0505.
Step 7: $1.0505 is converted back to pounds at the spot rate of $1.25 per £1, resulting in £0.8404.
Step 8: The £0.8404 is compared to the initial amount of £0.8 to determine the arbitrage profit:
Profit = £0.8404 - £0.8 = £0.0404
Hence, the arbitrage profit is £0.0404. Therefore, we can exploit the arbitrage opportunity.
To know more about arbitrage opportunity please refer:
https://brainly.com/question/15394730
#SPJ11
Briefly explain ONE of the parts of Henry Clay's proposed American System, a comprehensive plan to bring about economic improvement. Provide at least ONE piece of evidence to support your explanation.
¥ protective tariffs
¥ National Bank
¥ internal improvements
b) Briefly explain how ONE of the parts of Henry Clay's proposed American System would bring about economic improvement. Provide at least ONE piece of evidence to support your explanation .c) Identify and briefly explain the role played by ONE individual or group that was critical of one of the parts or the entire plan for an American System.
b) One part of Henry Clay's proposed American System was the implementation of protective tariffs. Clay believed that protective tariffs would help stimulate domestic manufacturing and protect American industries from foreign competition.
Imposing tariffs on imported goods, it would make foreign products more expensive and encourage consumers to buy domestically produced goods. One piece of evidence to support this is the Tariff of 1816, which was passed as a result of Clay's advocacy. The Tariff of 1816 was the first protective tariff in the United States, and it aimed to protect American manufacturers, particularly those in the textile industry, from competition with cheaper British imports. The tariff helped boost domestic production and encouraged the growth of American industries. c) One individual who was critical of Henry Clay's proposed American System was Andrew Jackson. Jackson, a political rival of Clay, argued against the establishment of a National Bank as part of the American System. He believed that the National Bank represented an undue concentration of power in the hands of the federal government and favored a more limited role for the central bank.
Learn more about protective tariffs here:
https://brainly.com/question/23421785
#SPJ11
Discuss the key features of the ‘Golden Age’ and ‘Stagflation' periods. According to your view, what is the key reason why Friedman's ideas about inflation became popular during the 'Stagflation' period?
The 'Golden Age' period was a time in the mid-twentieth century characterized by high economic growth, low unemployment, and rising living standards. The growth was facilitated by increased government spending on infrastructure, public services, and welfare programs.
Social welfare programs were also initiated, as well as the strengthening of trade unions, which led to increased labor bargaining power. The period was also characterized by relatively stable inflation rates, which helped to maintain low-interest rates.
On the other hand, the 'Stagflation' period was a period in the 1970s characterized by stagnant economic growth, high unemployment, and high inflation rates. This period was caused by the collapse of the post-World War II economic boom, increased competition from developing countries, and the OPEC oil embargo.
Inflation was caused by high demand for goods and services and an increase in the money supply. During the period, government spending was reduced, trade unions were weakened, and deregulation occurred.
Friedman's ideas on inflation became popular during the 'Stagflation' period due to his view that inflation was caused by an increase in the money supply.
He argued that the best way to control inflation was through monetary policy, and advocated for a reduction in the money supply. His ideas became popular due to the perceived failure of Keynesian economics during the period.
The Keynesian policy of stimulating the economy through increased government spending failed to reduce inflation and increase economic growth, and led to stagflation.
In conclusion, the key features of the 'Golden Age' and 'Stagflation' periods were characterized by different economic conditions. The 'Golden Age' period was characterized by high economic growth, low unemployment, and relatively stable inflation rates.
While, the 'Stagflation' period was characterized by stagnant economic growth, high unemployment, and high inflation rates.
Friedman's ideas on inflation became popular during the 'Stagflation' period due to his view that inflation was caused by an increase in the money supply and that the best way to control inflation was through monetary policy.
For more such questions on Golden Age
https://brainly.com/question/2194124
#SPJ11
How does Health System Acquisition effects patients? provide
citations
Health system acquisition refers to the process of one health system acquiring the assets, equity, or both, of another health system.
According to a study by Michael Chernew, Ph.D. et al. (2014), health system acquisition can lead to both positive and negative effects on patients. Below is a discussion of the effects of health system acquisition on patients. Positive effects of health system acquisition on patients include improved access to care, better quality of care, and reduced costs. Health system acquisition can enable patients to access a wider range of services as new facilities are added to the system. This can be especially beneficial in areas where there are limited healthcare options. Additionally, health system acquisition can lead to the standardization of clinical processes, which can result in better quality of care as well as improved patient outcomes. Negative effects of health system acquisition on patients include reduced patient choice, reduced access to care, and higher costs. When a health system acquires another system, patients may lose access to certain services that were previously available. Additionally, the acquisition can lead to higher costs as the larger system may have more bargaining power with insurers and other stakeholders. Patients may also have less choice in terms of healthcare providers within the system, which can be a disadvantage. Citations Chernew, M. E., et al. (2014). Effects of health care payment models on physician practice in the United States. Health Affairs, 33(4), 691-699.
To know more about healthcare visit:
https://brainly.com/question/12881855
#SPJ11
In the context of the Keynesian model, which of the following statements is incorrect?
Group of answer choices:
An increase in the marginal propensity to consume results in a steeper planned aggregate expenditure line
An exogenous payment from the government to households results in an unplanned increase in inventories
An exogenous collection of taxes from the government results in an unplanned increase in inventories
None of the other options
The incorrect statement in the context of the Keynesian model is "An exogenous collection of taxes from the government results in an unplanned increase in inventories."
In the Keynesian model, the level of output and income in an economy is determined by the aggregate demand and aggregate supply. The aggregate demand is composed of consumption (C), investment (I), government spending (G), and net exports (NX).
An increase in the marginal propensity to consume (MPC), which represents the proportion of additional income that households spend, does result in a steeper planned aggregate expenditure line. When the MPC increases, a greater proportion of income is consumed, leading to a higher level of planned aggregate expenditure for a given level of income.
An exogenous payment from the government to households, such as a transfer payment or subsidy, results in an unplanned increase in inventories. When households receive additional income from the government, they tend to spend a portion of it on goods and services. This leads to an increase in aggregate demand and, in the short run, firms may not have enough time to adjust their production levels, resulting in unplanned inventory accumulation.
However, an exogenous collection of taxes from the government does not result in an unplanned increase in inventories. When taxes are collected, households have less disposable income available for consumption. This reduces aggregate demand, and firms adjust their production levels accordingly to match the reduced demand, avoiding unplanned inventory accumulation.
Therefore, the statement "An exogenous collection of taxes from the government results in an unplanned increase in inventories" is incorrect in the context of the Keynesian model.
To learn more about Keynesian model refer here:
https://brainly.com/question/32242068
#SPJ11
You qualify for a $11,200 loan from the Crane Student Loans Program to help finance your education. Once you graduate, you start repaying this note payable at an interest rate of 4.8%. The monthly cas
It will take approximately 88 months to fully repay the $11,200 student loan from the Crane Student Loans Program with a monthly cash payment of $150, assuming an interest rate of 4.8%.
To determine the number of months required to repay the loan, we can use the formula for calculating the loan repayment period. The formula is given by:
n = -log(1 - (r * P) / A) / log(1 + r)
Where:
n = number of periods (months)r = monthly interest rateP = loan principal amountA = monthly cash paymentIn this case, the loan principal amount is $11,200, the monthly cash payment is $150, and the interest rate is 4.8%.
The annual interest rate must first be changed to a monthly interest rate. The yearly interest rate is multiplied by 12 to get the monthly interest rate, which is then expressed as a decimal. The monthly interest rate is 4.8% divided by 12 to equal 0.04.
Putting in the values into the formula, we will get:
n = -log(1 - (0.04 * 11200) / 150) / log(1 + 0.04)
n ≈ 88
Therefore, it will take approximately 88 months to fully repay the $11,200 student loan with a monthly cash payment of $150 at an interest rate of 4.8%.
For more questions on interest rate
https://brainly.com/question/28272078
#SPJ11
Complete Question:
You are eligible for a loan from the Crane Student Loans Programme for $11,200 to help pay for your study. After you graduate, you'll begin paying back this loan at a 4.8% interest rate. The $150 monthly cash payment. Generate a question based on this information. How many months will it take to fully repay the $11,200 student loan from the Crane Student Loans Program with a monthly cash payment of $150, assuming an interest rate of 4.8%? Please note that the question assumes a constant monthly payment of $150 and an interest rate of 4.8% for the duration of the loan repayment period.
A regression analysis is prepared using
a. multiple dependent and one independent variable
b. multiple dependent and multiple independent variables c. one dependent and multiple independent variables
d. one dependent and one independent variable
D. one dependent and one independent variable.
Regression analysis is a statistical technique used to model the relationship between a dependent variable and one or more independent variables. The specific type of regression analysis used depends on the number of dependent and independent variables involved.
a. Multiple dependent and one independent variable: In this case, there are multiple variables that are considered dependent variables, meaning they are being predicted or explained by a single independent variable. This scenario would typically require a different analytical approach, such as multivariate regression or simultaneous equation modeling.
b. Multiple dependent and multiple independent variables: When there are multiple dependent and independent variables, a multivariate regression analysis or multiple regression analysis is typically employed. This allows for examining the relationships between multiple independent variables and multiple dependent variables simultaneously.
c. One dependent and multiple independent variables: In this situation, there is a single variable that serves as the dependent variable, while there are multiple independent variables that are believed to influence or predict the dependent variable. This scenario is typically addressed using multiple regression analysis.
d. One dependent and one independent variable: This is the simplest form of regression analysis, where there is a single dependent variable that is being predicted or explained by a single independent variable. This type of regression analysis is known as simple linear regression and is commonly used to understand the linear relationship between two variables.
In summary, a regression analysis can involve various combinations of dependent and independent variables. The type of regression analysis chosen depends on the specific research question and the number of variables involved. The answer to the given question is option d, which refers to a scenario where there is one dependent variable and one independent variable.
For more such questions on dependent, click on:
https://brainly.com/question/29997658
#SPJ11
The Consumer Product Safety Commission is primarily responsible for protecting the public from misleading television ads for products.
True or False
The statement is false because it is not the responsibility of the Consumer Product Safety Commission (CPSC) to regulate or monitor television ads.
The CPSC is an independent agency in the United States government responsible for protecting the public from unreasonable risks of injury or death from consumer products.
The Federal Trade Commission (FTC), on the other hand, is primarily responsible for monitoring and regulating advertising practices, including television ads. They have the authority to take action against companies that use false or misleading advertising.
In summary, while the CPSC focuses on product safety, the FTC focuses on advertising practices to prevent misleading claims in advertising.
Learn more about television ads https://brainly.com/question/2255991
#SPJ11
11 Moving to another question will save this response. Question of 11 Question 8 3 points Se On January 1, 2020, Panda acquired 90% of the outstanding stock of Sama Inc. for $800,000. The fair value o
The carrying value of the remaining shares of Sama Inc. owned by Panda Corporation is $380,000.
The carrying value of an investment represents the amount recorded on the books of the investor. In this case, Panda Corporation owns 90% of Sama Inc.'s outstanding common stock. The carrying value of the investment in Sama Inc. is given as $800,000, and the fair value of the investment is $260,000.
To calculate the carrying value of the remaining shares, we need to consider the percentage of ownership. Since Panda Corporation owns 90% of Sama Inc., we can calculate the carrying value of the remaining shares as follows:Carrying value of remaining shares = Carrying value of investment in Sama Inc. - Fair value of investment in Sama Inc.Carrying value of remaining shares = $800,000 - $260,000 = $540,000
However, since Panda Corporation has sold half of its shares in Squirrel Inc. for $120,000, we need to adjust the carrying value of the remaining shares of Sama Inc. accordingly.Carrying value of remaining shares = Carrying value of remaining shares - (Sale proceeds from Squirrel Inc. shares x Percentage ownership)Carrying value of remaining shares = $540,000 - ($120,000 x 90%) = $540,000 - $108,000 = $432,000
Therefore, the carrying value of the remaining shares of Sama Inc. owned by Panda Corporation is $432,000.
For more questions on applications
https://brainly.com/question/30973361
#SPJ8
Complete Question:
Panda Corporation owns 90% of Sama Inc.'s outstanding common stock. The carrying value of the investment in Sam is $800,000 and the fair value is $260,000. Panda sells half its Squirrel Inc. shares for $120,000. What is the carrying value of the remaining shares?
What is a blooper? Television producer Kermit Schaefer first defined the word blooper to describe mistakes made on television, in radio, and in films. Today the word blooper is used to describe any embarrassing blunder. In this textbook we use the word blooper to refer to language mistakes made in writing and speech. At the end of each chapter, you will find a list of written and spoken bloopers. Many of these bloopers appeared in prestigious publications or were spoken by highly respected individuals. Using the skills you are learning in this class, try to identify why the following items are bloopers. Consult your textbook, dictionary, or reference manual as needed. Also think about what part of speech each blooper demonstrates. To see if you recognized the blooper, go to www.cengagebrain.com and use your access code to see the Spot the Blooper key.
Blooper 6: In a Washington Post article: "What drains out is an intensely sweet juice that is fermented into a pricey wine found on the desert lists of the finest restaurants."
A blooper is defined as any embarrassing mistake made in any form of media such as radio, television, films, writing, and speech.
The word blooper was first defined by television producer Kermit Schaefer. In this chapter, the word blooper is used to refer to language mistakes made in writing and speech.
At the end of every chapter, there are written and spoken bloopers. In this section, we will identify why certain items are bloopers. The Washington Post article "What drains out is an intensely sweet juice that is fermented into a pricey wine found on the desert lists of the finest restaurants" is a blooper. This blooper violates a few English grammar rules.
"Desert" is a noun that means a waterless and arid area, whereas "dessert" is the sweet dish served after the main course. The correct word to use here is dessert. Secondly, the word "lists" should be replaced with "menus". A desert list is not a common phrase in English language and is incorrect.
Therefore, the phrase "lists of the finest restaurants" should be replaced with "menus of the finest restaurants".Finally, the phrase "an intensely sweet juice that is fermented into a pricey wine" is incorrect. The wine is not fermented from juice but from grapes.
Therefore, the phrase "an intensely sweet grape juice that is fermented into a pricey wine" would be the correct phrase.
To know more about blooper visit:
https://brainly.com/question/30813798
#SPJ11
The primary role of business technology during the 1970s was to
a. support existing business by improving the flow of financial information.
b. empower workers by giving them access to greater amounts of information.
c. implement new production methods that relied on automated equipment.Incorrect
d. protect proprietary company information from outsiders.
Option a is correct. Support existing business by improving the flow of financial information.
During the 1970s, the primary role of business technology was to support existing business by improving the flow of financial information. This was a period when computers and information systems started to play a more significant role in business operations and decision-making.
Businesses began adopting computer systems and software to automate financial processes such as accounting, bookkeeping, and financial reporting. These technologies improved the efficiency and accuracy of financial information management, allowing businesses to streamline their operations and make more informed financial decisions.
The use of technology in the 1970s focused primarily on enhancing the flow of financial information within organizations. It facilitated tasks such as data entry, calculation, and data storage, reducing the reliance on manual processes and paperwork.
While empowering workers and implementing new production methods were also important aspects of business technology, they were not the primary roles during the 1970s. Worker empowerment and access to information became more prominent in later decades with the advent of personal computers, networking, and the internet. Similarly, the implementation of new production methods relying on automated equipment gained momentum in subsequent years with advancements in manufacturing technologies.
In conclusion, during the 1970s, business technology's primary role was to support existing business by improving the flow of financial information, enhancing efficiency, and facilitating better decision-making in financial management.
To know more about business , visit
https://brainly.com/question/18307610
#SPJ11
Discuss three organizational factors that can prevent a firm in fully realizing the benefits of a new information system and provide examples for each.
The three organizational factors that can prevent a firm in fully realizing the benefits of a new information system and provide examples for each are as follows:
1. Organizational culture is one of the critical factors that can prevent a firm from fully realizing the benefits of a new information system. The culture of an organization can have a significant impact on the acceptance and adoption of new technology.
2. Lack of employee training- The lack of employee training is another organizational factor that can prevent a firm from fully realizing the benefits of a new information system.
3. Resistance to change -resistance to change is another factor that can prevent a firm from fully realizing the benefits of a new information system. Some employees or stakeholders may not be comfortable with the changes brought about by the new system, leading to resistance and lack of adoption.:
To know more about organizational . here
https://brainly.com/question/25922351
#SPJ4
Suppose the price level is fixed, the MPC is 0.5, and the GDP gap is a negative $80 billion. To achieve full employment output (exactly), by how much should the government reduce taxes?
To achieve full employment output, the government should reduce taxes by $160 billion.
The MPC (Marginal Propensity to Consume) is a measure of how much individuals consume out of an additional dollar of income. In this scenario, with an MPC of 0.5, it means that for every additional dollar of income, individuals will consume 50 cents and save the remaining 50 cents.
The GDP gap represents the difference between the current level of real GDP and the potential or full employment level of GDP. A negative GDP gap indicates that the economy is producing below its full employment capacity.
To close the negative GDP gap and reach full employment output, the government can use fiscal policy tools, such as changes in taxes, to stimulate aggregate demand and increase economic activity. The government can achieve this by implementing a tax reduction.
Given the MPC of 0.5, the government would need to reduce taxes by twice the amount of the negative GDP gap to achieve full employment output. In this case, the negative GDP gap is $80 billion, so the government should reduce taxes by $160 billion (2 times $80 billion) to boost consumption, aggregate demand, and bridge the GDP gap.
Know more about taxes here:
https://brainly.com/question/12611692
#SPJ11
Assume a company has inventory valued at $50,000, its total current assets, including this inventory, total $90,000. Its total current liabilities total $20,000. Its quick ratio is: .5 1 1.8 less than 1
The quick ratio of the company is 2.
The quick ratio, also known as the acid-test ratio, is a financial metric used to assess a company's short-term liquidity and ability to meet its immediate obligations. It provides a more conservative measure of liquidity than the current ratio by excluding inventory from current assets. The formula for the quick ratio is:
Quick Ratio = (Current Assets - Inventory) / Current Liabilities
In this case, the total current assets including inventory amount to $90,000, and the total current liabilities are $20,000. To calculate the quick ratio, we need to subtract the value of inventory from the total current assets:
Quick Assets = Total Current Assets - Inventory
= $90,000 - $50,000
= $40,000
Now we can calculate the quick ratio:
Quick Ratio = Quick Assets / Current Liabilities
= $40,000 / $20,000
= 2
Since the quick ratio is greater than 1, it indicates that the company has sufficient quick assets to cover its current liabilities. However, it's important to note that the question states the total current assets including inventory, not the quick assets.
Therefore, the quick ratio should be recalculated using only the quick assets, which excludes the value of inventory.
As a result, the correct answer is that the quick ratio is less than 1, as the value of quick assets is lower than the current liabilities. This suggests a potential liquidity concern for the company, as it may struggle to meet its immediate obligations without relying on inventory.
For more question on quick ratio visit:
https://brainly.com/question/31327658
#SPJ8
One can use either Pv(Rate, NPer, Pmt, Fv, Type) or Price(Settlement, Maturity, Rate, Yld, Redemption, Frequency, Basis) to find the value of a bond. O True O False
The given statement: One can use either Pv (Rate, NPer, Pmt, Fv, Type) or Price(Settlement, Maturity, Rate, Y ld, Redemption, Frequency, Basis) to find the value of a bond is true. Both the functions PV and Price have the same objective, which is to compute the current value of a bond.
Although they are similar, their approach is different. The following is a brief overview of each: Pv (Rate, N Per, P mt, F v, Type): It calculates the current value of an investment, which can be a bond, using a discount rate. For example, if you invest $1,000 today at a 10% annual rate for two years, the current value of that investment will be $826.45. In this function, the variable Rate refers to the annual discount rate, N Per refers to the number of years, P mt refers to the annual payment (if any), FV refers to the future value of the investment (if any), and Type refers to whether the payment is made at the start or end of the year.
Price(Settlement, Maturity, Rate, Y ld, Redemption, Frequency, Basis): This function computes the price of a bond, which is the amount you must pay to purchase it. It takes into account the bond's face value, coupon rate, and maturity date, among other things. Settlement refers to the date on which the bond is purchased, while Maturity refers to the date on which it matures. Rate refers to the annual coupon rate, Y ld refers to the bond's annual yield, Redemption refers to the face value of the bond, Frequency refers to the number of coupon payments per year, and Basis refers to the day-count convention used to calculate interest.
To know more about bond visit.
https://brainly.com/question/31994049
#SPJ11
When GDP per person in China in 2016 is valued at ___ GDP per person in the United States is___ Simes that in China. A. purchasing power parity prices; 5.3 B. the market exchange rate: 6.3 C. the market exchange rate: 3.8 D. purchasing power party prices: 6.3
When GDP per person in China in 2016 is valued at A. purchasing power parity prices, GDP per person in the United States is 5.3 times that in China.
This is because the purchasing power parity (PPP) exchange rate of the yuan is significantly lower than the nominal exchange rate with the US dollar. This means that a yuan is worth more in China than it is in the United States. Therefore, the GDP per capita of China, which is measured in yuan, is higher when converted into dollars at the PPP rate than at the nominal exchange rate.
The PPP rate takes into account the cost of goods and services in each country, which can vary widely, and is therefore a more accurate measure of the relative value of currencies between countries. As of 2016, the PPP GDP per capita of China was approximately $15,400, compared to $57,300 for the United States. Therefore, GDP per person in the United States was 5.3 times that of China when measured at PPP prices. So the correct answer is A. A. purchasing power parity prices; 5.3
Learn more about GDP at :
https://brainly.com/question/15899184
#SPJ11
what was the smoot-hawley tariff act? aan act that placed high taxes on products imported in the usa. bit was a tariff to protect american rights cnone of the above dsmoot and hawley wanted to help americans have money to buy during the great depression
The Smoot-Hawley Tariff Act was an act that placed high taxes on products imported in the USA, but it ended up hurting the US economy by causing other countries to impose their own tariffs on American goods, which led to a decrease in international trade and worsened the effects of the Great Depression.
The Smoot-Hawley Tariff Act was a US law passed in 1930 that set high tariffs on imported products to protect American businesses from foreign competition. The act was named after two lawmakers, Reed Smoot and Willis C. Hawley, who helped author it. The Smoot-Hawley Tariff Act was meant to protect American businesses from foreign competition by raising the price of imported goods.
However, the act ended up hurting the US economy by causing other countries to impose their own tariffs on American goods. This led to a decrease in international trade and worsened the effects of the Great Depression.The Smoot-Hawley Tariff Act raised tariffs on more than 20,000 imported goods.
The tariffs ranged from 40% to 100% on products such as agricultural goods, textiles, and steel. The act was opposed by many economists and business leaders who argued that it would lead to a decrease in international trade and hurt the US economy.
For more such questions on economy
https://brainly.com/question/28210218
#SPJ11
Under IFRS and ASPE one of the formal principles which set out the criteria that must be satisfied before an expense can be recognized is: a. The expense cannot be reliably measured. b. There has been a decrease in future economic benefits caused by a decrease in an asset or an increase in a liability. c. There has been an increase in future economic benefits caused by a decrease in an asset or an increase in a liability. d. The ownership (or control) and benefits of the goods have been transferred to the customer, or the services have been provided to the customer.
The answer to the given question is that "Under IFRS and ASPE, one of the formal principles which set out the criteria that must be satisfied before an expense can be recognized is the d.
The ownership (or control) and benefits of the goods have been transferred to the customer, or the services have been provided to the customer".IFRS and ASPE stands for International Financial Reporting Standards (IFRS) and Accounting Standards for Private Enterprises (ASPE), respectively.
These are the formal standards of accounting, finance, and reporting in the business world. To maintain an accurate, systematic, and organized record of financial transactions, these principles need to be followed.In order to recognize an expense, IFRS and ASPE set out the criteria that must be satisfied. One of these criteria is that "The ownership (or control) and benefits of the goods have been transferred to the customer, or the services have been provided to the customer".
This means that the expense cannot be recognized until the ownership and benefits of goods have been transferred to the customer or the services have been provided to the customer.
Learn more about formal principles at https://brainly.com/question/31851363
#SPJ11
Which of the following statements regarding direct finance is true? A. Securities are assets for the firm that issues them and liabilities for the individual that buys them. B. Direct finance occurs when borrowers sell securities directly to lenders. C. Direct finance requires the use of financial intermediaries. D. In the United States, more funds flow through the direct financial channels than through indirect financial channels. Let's assume that a carpenter borrowed $2,000 to be paid off in a year to finance a machine that would make him work faster As a result, he is able to take on more projects and collect $400 more earnings in the first year, after paying off the principal of $2,000. However there is a 15% rental fee (interest) on his loan that he also has to pay off. The carpenter earned an extra $ in the first year (Round your response to the nearest dollar)
The carpenter has negative additional earnings of $1,900 in the first year after paying off the loan.
To calculate the carpenter's extra earnings in the first year after paying off the loan, we need to subtract the principal and the interest from the additional earnings.
Additional earnings = Extra projects - Loan principal - Interest
Loan principal = $2,000
Interest = 15% of $2,000 = $300
Extra projects = $400
Additional earnings = $400 - $2,000 - $300
Additional earnings = -$1,900
The carpenter has negative additional earnings of $1,900 in the first year after paying off the loan.
To know more about financial.click here:-
https://brainly.com/question/989344
#SPJ4
An investment offers $6,125 per year for 15 years, with the first payment occurring one year from now. Assume the required return is 8 percent. a. What is the value of the investment today? (Do not round intermediate calculations and round your answer to 2 decimal places, e.g., 32.16.) b. What would the value be if the payments occurred for 40 years? (Do not round intermediate calculations and round your answer to 2 decimal places, e.g., 32.16.) c. What would the value be if the payments occurred for 75 years? (Do not round intermediate calculations and round your answer to 2 decimal places, e.g., 32.16.) d. What would the value be if the payments occurred forever? (Do not round intermediate calculations and round your
a. The value of the investment today can be calculated using the present value formula for an annuity:
PV = PMT * [1 - (1 + r)^(-n)] / r
where PV is the present value, PMT is the annual payment, r is the required return rate, and n is the number of years.
Using the given information, we have:
PMT = $6,125
r = 8% = 0.08
n = 15
Substituting these values into the formula, we get:
PV = $6,125 * [1 - (1 + 0.08)^(-15)] / 0.08
PV ≈ $52,228.48
Therefore, the value of the investment today is approximately $52,228.48.
b. If the payments occurred for 40 years, we can use the same formula as in part (a), but with n = 40:
PV = $6,125 * [1 - (1 + 0.08)^(-40)] / 0.08
PV ≈ $71,885.55
The value of the investment today, if the payments occurred for 40 years, would be approximately $71,885.55.
c. If the payments occurred for 75 years, using the same formula:
PV = $6,125 * [1 - (1 + 0.08)^(-75)] / 0.08
PV ≈ $79,891.97
The value of the investment today, if the payments occurred for 75 years, would be approximately $79,891.97.
d. If the payments occurred forever, we have a perpetuity. The formula for the present value of a perpetuity is:
PV = PMT / r
Using the given information, we have:
PV = $6,125 / 0.08
PV = $76,562.50
Therefore, the value of the investment today, if the payments occurred forever, would be $76,562.50.
To know more about investment , visit
https://brainly.com/question/29547577
#SPJ11
For Blossom Company, variable costs are 70% of sales, and fixed costs are $156,000. Management's net income goal is $60,000 Compute the required sales in dollars needed to achieve management's target net income of $60,000. (Use the contribution margin approach.) Required sales $____
The contribution margin approach is used to determine the sales required to meet the management's net income objective of $60,000. We are given the following Blossom Company's variable costs are 70% of sales.The fixed costs are $156,000.Using the contribution margin approach
we can calculate the required sales as follows Contribution margin = Sales - Variable costsContribution margin ratio = Contribution margin / Sales Let x be the total sales. The contribution margin can be computed by multiplying the sales by the contribution margin ratio. Contribution margin ratio = (Sales - Variable costs) / Sales0.30 = (x - 0.70x) / xContribution margin = 0.30xFixed costs = $156,000Target net income = $60,000Using the contribution margin approach, we have:Net income = Sales - Variable costs - Fixed costs$60,000 = x - 0.70x - $156,000Solving for x:x = ($60,000 + $156,000) / 0.30x = $720,000
The management's target net income of $60,000 can be achieved by determining the required sales using the contribution margin approach. Let x be the total sales.Variable costs are 70% of sales, which can be represented as 0.70x. The contribution margin is determined as follows Contribution margin = Sales - Variable costsContribution margin ratio = Contribution margin / Sales Using the contribution margin ratio, we can calculate the contribution margin as follows:Contribution margin ratio = (Sales - Variable costs) / Sales0.30 = (x - 0.70x) / xThe contribution margin is 0.30x.Fixed costs are given as $156,000. We can now compute the required sales to achieve the management's target net income of $60,000 as follows Net income = Sales - Variable costs - Fixed costs$60,000 = x - 0.70x - $156,000$60,000 + $156,000 = 0.30x$216,000 = 0.30x$x = $720,000Explanation:To summarize, the required sales in dollars needed to achieve management's target net income of $60,000 is $720,000 using the contribution margin approach.
To know more about income Visit;
https://brainly.com/question/14732695
#SPJ11
given the following historical data, what is the simple three-period moving average forecast for period 6? period
1
2
3
value
73
68
65
periode
4
5
value
72
67
a. 67
b. 115
c. 69
Based on the given historical data, the simple three-period moving average forecast for period 6 is 69 (option C).
To calculate the simple three-period moving average forecast for period 6, we need to find the average of the values from periods 4, 5, and 6. The historical data provided is as follows:
Period 1: Value 73
Period 2: Value 68
Period 3: Value 65
Period 4: Value 72
Period 5: Value 67
To calculate the moving average forecast for period 6, we add the values from periods 4, 5, and 6 and then divide the sum by 3:
72 + 67 + 68 = 207
207 / 3 = 69
Therefore, the simple three-period moving average forecast for period 6 is 69. (Option c)
The moving average forecast is a commonly used technique to predict future values based on historical data. It smooths out fluctuations in the data by averaging values over a specific period. In this case, the three-period moving average is used, which means we consider the average of the previous three periods.
By calculating the moving average, we aim to identify any underlying trends or patterns in the data. It provides a more stable estimate compared to individual data points, as it takes into account multiple observations. However, it should be noted that the moving average forecast may not capture sudden changes or shifts in the data.
In summary, based on the given historical data, the simple three-period moving average forecast for period 6 is 69. (Option C)
To know more about simple three-method moving average forecast,
https://brainly.com/question/30451671
#SPJ4
what would trisha consider prior to addressing the conflict?
Trisha would consider several factors before addressing a conflict. The first factor is the nature of the conflict. The second factor is the parties involved, The third factor is the context of the conflict. The fourth factor is the potential impact of the conflict
Before addressing the conflict, Trisha should analyze the situation to determine what is causing the conflict. She should identify the underlying issues that are causing the conflict and what can be done to resolve them. Identifying the cause of the conflict will help Trisha to develop a plan of action to resolve it.
The second factor is the parties involved. Trisha needs to consider who is involved in the conflict and what their interests are. She should take into account their concerns and interests before addressing the conflict. This will help her to understand what each party wants and what they are willing to give up to reach a resolution. By taking into account the parties involved, Trisha will be able to develop a solution that addresses their interests.
The third factor is the context of the conflict. Trisha needs to consider the timing and location of the conflict. She should also consider the cultural norms and values of the parties involved. The context of the conflict will determine the best approach to resolving it. By considering the context of the conflict, Trisha will be able to develop a plan of action that is sensitive to the needs of the parties involved.
The fourth factor is the potential impact of the conflict. Trisha needs to consider the potential consequences of the conflict. She should assess the risks associated with the conflict and determine what can be done to minimize them. By considering the potential impact of the conflict, Trisha will be able to develop a plan of action that addresses the risks associated with the conflict.
To learn more about conflict click here:
https://brainly.com/question/846617#
#SPJ11
The CFO of a consulting engineering firm is deciding between purchasing Ford Explorers and Toyota 4Runners for company principals. The purchase price for the Ford Explorer will be $30,750. Annual main
The incremental ROR between the two vehicles is approximately 211.38%. The firm's MARR is 18% per year, the firm should buy the vehicle with the higher incremental ROR. In this case, since the incremental ROR is greater than the MARR, the firm should choose the Ford Explorer.
To calculate the incremental ROR (Rate of Return) between the two vehicles, we need to compare the net revenues generated by each vehicle. The incremental ROR formula is:
Incremental ROR = (Incremental Net Revenue / Incremental Investment) * 100
First, let's calculate the incremental net revenue:
Incremental Net Revenue = Net Revenue from Ford Explorer - Net Revenue from Toyota 4Runner
To calculate the net revenue for each vehicle, we need to consider the purchase price, annual maintenance costs, and salvage value after 3 years.
Net Revenue from Ford Explorer = Purchase Price - Annual Maintenance Costs + Salvage Value
= $30,500 - ($675 + $0) + ($30,500 * 0.5)
= $30,500 - $675 + $15,250
= $45,075
Net Revenue from Toyota 4Runner = Purchase Price - Annual Maintenance Costs + Salvage Value
= $37,750 - $0 + ($37,750 * 0.6)
= $37,750 + $22,650
= $60,400
Now, let's calculate the incremental net revenue:
Incremental Net Revenue = $45,075 - $60,400
= -$15,325
Next, let's calculate the incremental investment:
Incremental Investment = Purchase Price of Ford Explorer - Purchase Price of Toyota 4Runner
= $30,500 - $37,750
= -$7,250
Finally, we can calculate the incremental ROR:
Incremental ROR = (Incremental Net Revenue / Incremental Investment) * 100
= (-$15,325 / -$7,250) * 100
= 211.38%
The incremental ROR between the two vehicles is approximately 211.38%.
The firm's MARR is 18% per year, the firm should buy the vehicle with the higher incremental ROR. In this case, since the incremental ROR is greater than the MARR, the firm should choose the Ford Explorer.
To know more about incremental ROR (Rate of Return), refer to the link below:
https://brainly.com/question/17120604#
#SPJ11
Complete Question:
The CFO of a consulting engineering firm is deciding between purchasing Ford Explorers and Toyota 4Runners for company principals. The purchase price for the Ford Explorer will be $30,500. Annual maintenance costs for the Explorer are expected to be $675 per year more than that of the 4Runner. The purchase price for Toyota 4Runners is 37,750 The trade-in values after 3 years are estimated to be 50% of the first cost for the Explorer and 60% for the 4Runner. (a) what is the incremental ROR between the two vehicles? (b) Provided the firm's MARR is 18% per year, which vehicle should it buy? a) The incremental ROR between the two vehicles is 1%. b) The firm should buy (Click to select)as the incremental ROR is (Click to select) the MARR
What correctly instantiates a house object if the house class contains a single constructor with the declaration house(int bedrooms, double price)?
To correctly instantiate a house object when the house class contains a single constructor with the declaration house(int bedrooms, double price), you need to provide values for the bedrooms and price parameters while creating the object.
For example, let's say you want to create a house object with 3 bedrooms and a price of $250,000. You would instantiate it as follows: house myHouse = new house(3, 250000.0); Here, myHouse is the name of the house object you're creating, new house is the keyword to create a new instance of the house class, and (3, 250000.0) are the values you're passing to the constructor for the bedrooms and price parameters, respectively.
Ensure that the values you provide match the expected data types of the constructor parameters. In this case, bedrooms is an integer, and price is a double. By passing the appropriate values to the constructor, you can successfully instantiate a house object.
For more such questions on constructor
https://brainly.com/question/31451820
#SPJ11
A business buyer buys goods for SEK 50,000 including VAT. (25% rate) on credit. What accounting effects does the transaction have?
The business buyer's purchase of goods on credit worth SEK 50,000 including VAT at 25% has the accounting effect of increasing both assets and liabilities.
When a business buyer buys goods on credit worth SEK 50,000 including VAT at 25%, there are accounting effects to be noted. This transaction has the effect of increasing both assets and liabilities. The assets of the buyer are increased by the value of the goods purchased, which is SEK 50,000 including VAT at 25%.This increase in assets is, however, accompanied by an increase in liabilities since the purchase is made on credit. The buyer becomes liable to pay the supplier for the goods purchased on credit. This liability is recorded as accounts payable in the buyer's books of accounts.The VAT element of the transaction also has an accounting effect. The VAT element is considered as a part of the purchase price of the goods. Therefore, the buyer's accounts will show the VAT element as part of the cost of the goods purchased on credit. This means that the buyer's costs of goods sold will increase by SEK 10,000 (VAT at 25% of SEK 50,000).
Know more about assets and liabilities., here:
https://brainly.com/question/13731427
#SPJ11
Which is a FALSE statement about Outsourcing?
a. It is an arrangement by which one organization provides a service or services for another organization that chooses not to perform these services in-house (within the organization).
b. One benefit of Outsourcing is Information Security.
c. The primary reason companies Outsource is to tap outside sources of expertise.
d. Outsourcing provides financial savings and increased technical abilities.
The false statement about outsourcing is: b. One benefit of Outsourcing is Information Security.
While outsourcing can provide various benefits, such as cost savings and access to specialized expertise, information security is not necessarily a guaranteed benefit of outsourcing. In fact, outsourcing can introduce new security risks, especially if proper security measures are not implemented and managed effectively.
It is important to note that outsourcing decisions should be carefully evaluated and consider factors such as data protection, confidentiality, and contractual agreements to ensure adequate information security measures are in place.
Here are some additional points related to outsourcing:
Scalability: Outsourcing allows companies to scale their operations up or down more easily. They can quickly adapt to changes in demand by leveraging the resources and capabilities of the outsourcing partner.
Focus on Core Competencies: By outsourcing non-core activities or functions, companies can concentrate their internal resources and efforts on their core competencies. This focus on core business areas can enhance efficiency and overall performance.
Access to Global Talent: Outsourcing can provide access to a broader talent pool, including specialized skills and expertise that may not be readily available in-house. Companies can tap into the global market to find highly skilled professionals and take advantage of their knowledge and capabilities.
Time Zone Advantage: Outsourcing to offshore locations can offer a time zone advantage. Companies can utilize the time difference to their benefit by achieving round-the-clock operations. For example, tasks assigned to an offshore team can progress during the night, and the results are available for review the next morning.
Risk Sharing: Outsourcing can help in sharing business risks with the outsourcing partner. Since both parties have a vested interest in the success of the project or service, they can collaborate and work together to mitigate risks and achieve mutually beneficial outcomes.
Flexibility and Adaptability: Outsourcing provides flexibility to adjust the level of engagement or services as needed. Companies can scale up or down the outsourcing arrangement based on changing business requirements, market conditions, or project scopes.
Cost Efficiency: While it was mentioned as a true statement, it's worth emphasizing that outsourcing can lead to cost savings. By leveraging economies of scale, accessing lower labor costs in different regions, and reducing the need for infrastructure investments, companies can achieve cost efficiencies through outsourcing.
Innovation and Technology Adoption: Outsourcing partners often bring new perspectives, ideas, and technologies to the table. Collaborating with external vendors or service providers can foster innovation and help companies stay updated with the latest trends and advancements in their industry.
Remember that the decision to outsource should be based on a thorough evaluation of the specific needs and circumstances of the company. Not all functions or activities are suitable for outsourcing, and careful consideration should be given to factors like data security, vendor selection, and contractual agreements to ensure successful outcomes.
To know more about outsourcing, visit;
https://brainly.com/question/29544430
#SPJ11
There are two producers: Producer A and B;
Each of them has two strategies: Low Price and High Price;
The payoff (40, 20), for example, in the below normal-form game can be interpreted as Player A receiving 40 as profit and Player B receiving 20.
Producer B
Low Price High Price
Producer A Low Price 40, 20 10, 30
High Price 20, 20 35, 45
Find the Nash Equilibrium/Equilibria for the above normal-form game. You can write down your answer without explanation.
The Nash Equilibrium for the given normal-form game is:
(Nash Equilibrium: Low Price, High Price) and (Nash Equilibrium: High Price, Low Price).
The Nash Equilibrium for the given normal-form game is:
(Nash Equilibrium: Low Price, High Price) and (Nash Equilibrium: High Price, Low Price).
In the given game, each producer has two strategies: Low Price and High Price. The payoff matrix represents the outcomes for each combination of strategies chosen by the producers. The numbers in the matrix represent the profits received by Producer A and Producer B, respectively.
Looking at the payoff matrix, we can identify two Nash Equilibria, where neither producer has an incentive to unilaterally deviate from their chosen strategy.
In the first Nash Equilibrium, Producer A chooses Low Price and Producer B chooses High Price. In this case, if Producer A deviates and chooses High Price instead, their profit would decrease from 40 to 20, given that Producer B's response is to maintain High Price. Similarly, if Producer B deviates and chooses Low Price, their profit would decrease from 30 to 20, given that Producer A's response is to maintain Low Price.
In the second Nash Equilibrium, Producer A chooses High Price and Producer B chooses Low Price. In this case, if Producer A deviates and chooses Low Price, their profit would decrease from 35 to 20, given that Producer B's response is to maintain Low Price. Similarly, if Producer B deviates and chooses High Price, their profit would decrease from 45 to 20, given that Producer A's response is to maintain High Price.
Therefore, the Nash Equilibria for the given normal-form game are (Low Price, High Price) and (High Price, Low Price), where neither producer has an incentive to unilaterally change their strategy.
For more such information on: Nash Equilibrium
https://brainly.com/question/7141724
#SPJ11
A limited partner in a limited partnership can lose her limited liability if she O a. meets with prospective clients. b. invests in a competitor of the firm. O c. votes on the firm's sale or dissolution. O d. participates in the management of the firm.
A limited partner in a limited partnership can lose her limited liability if she participates in the management of the firm.
A limited partnership is a form of partnership where there are at least one general partner and one limited partner. In this form of partnership, a limited partner enjoys limited liability. Limited liability means that the partner's liability is limited to the amount of capital he has contributed towards the partnership.The general partner, on the other hand, is responsible for the day-to-day management of the business. They also bear unlimited liability, which means that they are liable for all the debts of the partnership, even if it means selling their personal assets.
The limited partner doesn't participate in the management of the business. They only contribute capital to the business.In a limited partnership, if a limited partner participates in the management of the business, they lose their limited liability. This means that the limited partner becomes responsible for the debts of the partnership. So, if the partnership is unable to pay its debts, the creditor can seize the limited partner's personal assets to pay for the debts. The limited partner also becomes liable for the actions of the general partner.
Therefore, the answer to the question is option D. If a limited partner participates in the management of the firm, they can lose their limited liability.
To know more about limited partner visit:
brainly.com/question/32649990
#SPJ11