(Physics) Help !! I’ll give brainliest if you answer both the question in the picture and this question :

The loudness or intensity of a sound is related to its…
A. Amplitude
B. Frequency
C. Pitch
D. Wavelength

Answer:

1.75g

Explanation:

Given parameters:

Density  = 3.5g/cm³

Volume  = 0.5cm³  

Unknown:

Mass of the diamond  = ?

Solution:

Density is the mass per unit volume of a substance

  Density  = [tex]\frac{mass}{volume}[/tex]  

So;

  Mass  = 3.5 x 0.5  = 1.75g

Answer:

A

Explanation:

Answer:

bc we play when we are bored and some people use it as a tradition to play on thanksgiving

Answer:

i think its B. frequency

Explanation:

please tell me if its wrong but it should be right

Answer:A heavy box has a mass of 30 kg. The box experiences a net force of 90 N when pushed along the floor. Use

this information to answer questions 17 and 18

Explanation:

17. What is the acceleration of the box?

a. 3 m/s 2 b. 2 m/s 2 c. 0.3 m/s 2 d. 0.5 m/s 2

18. If the mass of the box was changed to one third as much, and the force was held constant, how would

the acceleration change?

a. It would be one third as much

b. It would be 3 times as much

c. It would be one half as much

d. It would be 2 times as much

Answer:

B. Direction

Explanation:

Speed is a scalar quantity and doesn't keep track of direction : Velocity is a vector quantity and is direction aware.

Solution :

Using the Gauss law, the electric field intensity of a sphere is given by :

[tex]$E. 4 \pi r^2 = \frac{Q_{enc}}{\epsilon_0}$[/tex]

[tex]$E = \frac{Q_{enc}}{4 \pi r^2 \epsilon_0}$[/tex]

Now the enclosed charge inside the sphere (r<a) is

[tex]$Q_{enc}= \rho V$[/tex]

[tex]$Q_{enc}= \rho \left( \frac{4}{3} \pi r^3 \right)$[/tex]

Hence, the electric field intensity becomes as follows :

[tex]$E= \frac{\rho \left(\frac{4}{3} \pi r^3\right)}{4 \pi \epsilon_0 r^2}$[/tex]

[tex]$E =\frac{\rho r}{3 \epsilon_0}$[/tex]

Thus, the electric field inside the sphere is given by :

[tex]$\vec {E} = \frac{\rho \vec{r}}{3 \epsilon_0}$[/tex]

Answer:

light is a transverse wave. The direction of energy transfer is perpendicular to the motion of the wave

Explanation:

Light is an example of a wave that transfers energy through empty space. How are all mechanical waves similar? The waves caused by an earthquake are good examples of energy transfer. The disturbed ground shakes from side to side and up and down as the waves move through it,

Answer:

50N

Explanation:

Force (N) = mass (kg) × acceleration (m/s²)

0.25kg times 200m/s² = 50N

The force, to the nearest N, of the bat on the baseball is 50 Newtons.

Given the data in the question;

Force; [tex]F = \ ?[/tex]

To determine the force, we use Newton's second law of motion:

[tex]F = m * a[/tex]

Where m is mass and a is acceleration

We substitute our values into the equation;

[tex]F = 0.25kg * 200m/s^2\\\\F = 50 kg.m/s^2\\\\F = 50N[/tex]

Therefore, the force, to the nearest N, of the bat on the baseball is 50 Newtons.

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Answer:

1.1 x 10⁵m/s²

Explanation:

Given parameters:

Velocity  = 452m/s

distance  = 0.93m

Unknown:

Acceleration of the bullet  = ?

Solution:

To solve this problem, we use one of the kinematics equation which is given below:

           V² = U²  + 2aS

V is the final velocity

U is the initial velocity  = 0m/s

a is the unknown acceleration

S is the distance traveled  

 So;

          452²   = 0²  + (2 x a x 0.93)

          204304  = 1.86a

               a  = 1.1 x 10⁵m/s²

Answer:

A. The particle model, because only high-energy frequencies of light  can remove electrons .

Explanation:

Each photon of blue light has higher energy than each photon of red light has  . So when each photon strikes each electron , it gets ejected . But the photon of red light has not sufficient energy to eject electron . Once the photon of red light strikes the electron , the energy is wasted off . Energy of photon can not be accumulated . Thus photon behaves like particle .

Answer:

Electrical to kinetic

Explanation:

Answer:

Electrical energy is supplied to the blender.

Explanation:

This is converted into kinetic energy to turn the blades that blend the food, so energy is transferred from electrical to kinetic.

This is the useful energy change that we most want to happen.

You're welcome, have a good day :)

Answer:

unit of momentum is kgm/s2

The unit for momentum can be Newton-second (Ns). In the CGS system, if the mass is in grams and the velocity in centimeters per second, then the unit of momentum will be gram-centimeters per second (g⋅cm/s).

"Momentum, product of the mass of a particle and its velocity. Momentum is a vector quantity; i.e., it has both magnitude and direction. Isaac Newton's second law of motion states that the time rate of change of momentum is equal to the force acting on the particle. See Newton's laws of motion."

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Answer:

A: The distance light travels in one year

Answer:

Acceleration at its most basic is the act of increasing your running speed. From a standing start (or blocks), you explode into action. If you’re already running, you pick up the pace. Acceleration continues until you can no longer increase your speed, at which point you achieve maximum velocity (top-end speed). Acceleration seems simple enough. The plus means your increasing speed, the k=minus means your decreasing in speed.

Explanation:

Electric field, an electric property associated with each point in space when charge is present in any form. The magnitude and direction of the electric field are expressed by the value of E, called electric field strength or electric field intensity or simply the electric field.

Magnetic field are a region around a magnetic material or a moving electric charge within which the force of magnetism acts. Magnetic fields are produced by moving electric charges. Everything is made up of atoms, and each atom has a nucleus made of neutrons and protons with electrons that orbit around the nucleus. Since the orbiting electrons are tiny moving charges, a small magnetic field is created around each atom.

Similarities between magnetic fields and electric fields: Magnetic fields are associated with two magnetic poles, north and south, although they are also produced by charges (but moving charges). Like pole repel unlike poles attract. Electric field points in the direction of the force experienced by a positive charge.

If you add 2 miles from west then 2 miles east then it would 4 miles all together.

Answer:

Answering the following questions will help you to focus on the outcomes of these experiments:

1.How does the length to height ratio (the IMA) of trial 1 compare to trial 2?

= Trial 1 is 5.09, and Trial 2 is 3.25. Trial 1 is higher because the height of the trial is less than trial 2.

2.Why is the actual mechanical advantage less than the ideal mechanical advantage in each of the trials?

= It is because the machine's ideal mechanical advantage reflects the increase or decrease in force that would have occurred without friction. It is always greater than the actual mechanical advantage because all machines have to overcome friction.

3.If a machine was 100% efficient, how would the AMA compare to the IMA?

= In any real machine, some of the efforts are used to overcome friction. Thus, the resistance force ratio to the effort (AMA) is less than the (IMA).

A frictionless machine would have an efficiency of 100%.

Answer:

43.3kg

Explanation:

Given parameters:

Force  = 130N

Acceleration  = 3m/s²

Unknown:

Mass of cart  = ?

Solution:

From Newton's second law of motion:

        F = m x a

F is the force on the body

m is the mass

a is the acceleration

 So;

          m  = [tex]\frac{F}{a}[/tex]   = [tex]\frac{130}{3}[/tex]   = 43.3kg

Answer:

[tex]9\ \text{m/s}^2[/tex]

Explanation:

m = Mass of the object = 2 kg

W = Weight of the object = 18 N

g = Acceleration due to gravity

Weight of the an object is given by

[tex]W=mg[/tex]

[tex]\Rightarrow g=\dfrac{W}{m}[/tex]

[tex]\Rightarrow g=\dfrac{18}{2}[/tex]

[tex]\Rightarrow g=9\ \text{m/s}^2[/tex]

The acceleration due to gravity on that planet is [tex]9\ \text{m/s}^2[/tex].

Answer:

A.

Explanation:

Answer:

If there is a system of magnets being held in place, there is potential energy. When you let go, the potential energy converts to kinetic energy and the magnets move. Putting the system of magnets close together which creates an opposing force.

Explanation:

Magnets cause objects to have kinetic energy by the magnetic force present in the magnet.

Magnets is a material which has a strong magnetic field which attracts ferromagnetic substances such as nickle, iron etc.

When a ferromagnetic objects put near the magnet, the magnet attracts the object and causes the movement towards its direction.

Therefore, magnets cause objects to have kinetic energy by the magnetic force present in the magnet.

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Answer:

the final speed of the rain is 541 m/s.

Explanation:

Given;

acceleration due to gravity, g = 9.81 m/s²

height of fall of the rain, h = 9,000 m

time of the rain fall, t = 1.5 minutes = 90 s

Determine the initial velocity of the rain, as follows;

[tex]h = ut + \frac{1}{2} gt^2\\\\9000 = 90u + \frac{1}{2} (9.8)(90)^2\\\\9000 = 90u + 39690\\\\90u = -30690\\\\u = \frac{-30690}{90} \\\\u = -341 \ m/s[/tex]

The final speed of the rain is calculated as;

[tex]v^2 = u^2 + 2gh\\\\v^2 = (-341)^2 + 2(9.8\times 9000)\\\\v^2 = 292681\\\\v = \sqrt{292681} \\\\v = 541 \ m/s[/tex]

Therefore, the final speed of the rain is 541 m/s.

Answer:

The magnitude of the final speed of a raindrop by the time it reaches the ground will be 541.45 m/s.

Explanation:

The final speed of the raindrop can be found using the following equation:

[tex] v_{f} = v_{0} - gt [/tex]

Where:

[tex]v_{f}[/tex]: is the final speed =?

[tex]v_{0}[/tex]: is the initial speed

g: is the acceleration due to gravity = 9.81 m/s²

t: is the time = 1.5 min

First, we need to find the initial speed:

[tex] y_{f} = y_{0} + v_{0}t - \frac{1}{2}gt^{2} [/tex]

Where:

[tex]y_{f}[/tex]: is the final height = 0

[tex]y_{0}[/tex]: is the initial height = 9000 m  

Hence, the initial speed is:    

[tex] v_{0} = \frac{y_{f} - y_{0} + \frac{1}{2}gt^{2}}{t} = \frac{0 - 9000 m + \frac{1}{2}9.81 m/s^{2}*(90 s)^{2}}{90 s} = 341.45 m/s [/tex]

Hence, the final speed is:                            

[tex] v_{f} = v_{0} - gt = 341.45 m/s - 9.81 m/s^{2}*90 s = -541.45 m/s [/tex]

Therefore, the magnitude of the final speed of a raindrop by the time it reaches the ground will be 541.45 m/s.

I hope it helps you!                      

Answer:

2 seconds

Explanation:

It only went up by 2

Answer:

I'M SORRY I CAN'T SEE THE PICTURE BUT IT WILL MOST LIKELY BE THE DIFFERENCE BETWEEN THE NUMBERS

Explanation:

for instance if there was someone pushing a desk with a net force of 9 towards the right, the net force would come to a total of 9 since there is no one on the other side pushing the desk. Meaning the desk would go right. I'm sorry if this isn't what you needed D:

Answer:

D

Explanation:

the reason for each column is to show the electronic configuration of the elements in that column.

Hope This Helps  ▼・ᴥ・▼

Answer:

33333.35 kg

Explanation:

I got it right on Acellus, rounded to 33300 sigfigs

When 0.0135 kg of steam at 100°C is cooled, turns it into water at 50.0°C. Then 33,342.45 J of heat has been removed.

Latent heat is the heat absorbed or released by a substance during a change in its physical state without a corresponding change in temperature. This means that the heat energy is being used to break or form intermolecular bonds between the particles in the substance, rather than raising or lowering the temperature. Examples of processes that involve latent heat include melting, freezing, vaporization, and condensation. The amount of heat required or released during these phase transitions is dependent on the substance and the amount of material undergoing the change.

Here in the question,

To solve this problem, we need to use the formula for the heat required to change the phase of a substance, which is given by:

Q = m * L

where Q is the heat required, m is the mass of the substance, and L is the specific latent heat of the substance.

In this case, we need to find the heat required to change 0.0135 kg of steam at 100°C to water at 100°C, and then cool it down to 50°C.

First, we need to find the heat required to change the phase of the steam to water at 100°C. Using the table given, we can see that the specific latent heat of vaporization for water is 2.26 × 10^6 J/kg. So the heat required to change 0.0135 kg of steam to water at 100°C is:

Q1 = m * L = 0.0135 kg * 2.26 × 10^6 J/kg = 30,510 J

Next, we need to find the heat required to cool the water from 100°C to 50°C. Using the specific heat capacity of water, which is 4186 J/(kg°C), we can calculate the heat required as:

Q2 = m * c * ΔT = 0.0135 kg * 4186 J/(kg°C) * (100°C - 50°C) = 2832.45 J

The total heat removed is the sum of the heat required to change the phase of the steam and the heat required to cool the water:

Q = Q1 + Q2 = 30,510 J + 2832.45 J = 33,342.45 J =33.34245 kJ.

Therefore, 33,342.45 J of heat has been removed.

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Answer:

It is not correct.

The correct conversion is:

1030 KJ = 246.18 KCal.

Explanation:

To know if 1030 KJ is equivalent to 245 KCal, we shall convert 1030 kJ to kcal. This can be obtained as follow:

4.184 KJ = 1 KCal

Therefore,

1030 KJ = 1030 KJ × 1 KCal / 4.184 KJ

1030 KJ = 246.18 KCal.

Thus, 1030 KJ is equivalent to 246.18 KCal.

From the above calculation, we can see that:

1030 KJ ≠ 245 KCal

Rather,

1030 KJ = 246.18 KCal.