The GFP reporter is going to bind to the target cells in order to identify the eye enhancer.
Reporter genes are genes that get attached to regulatory sequences. The regulatory sequences control the expression of the reporter gene in the same manner that the original gene is controlled. It is cloned with any DNA sequence which we require into an expression vector that is then transferred into cells. These cells in question are the target cells. Reporter genes are a good tool for studying molecular events in living subjects.
When the GFP reporter gene is going to go and binds to the target cells, these cells are then going to identify and monitor the activity of the enhancer.
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describe the use and method of iodine solution test from starch
Which terms best describe the class of questions that insel and young were addressing when they studied the effect of antidiuretic hormone on monogamous voles by experimentally increasing the number of receptors in the brain?.
When insel and young explored the impact of antidiuretic hormone on monogamous small mammals by experimentally increasing numberbrain, they were addressing a class of topics that could be described as proximal
How does mechanistic biology work?A mechanism is a group of causally interconnected pieces and activities that result in one or more effects in the study of biology. By defining the mechanisms that can cause the phenomenon, scientists might explain it.
A mechanistic research is what, exactly?The goal of MMB is to comprehend biochemical, physicochemical, as well as cellular interactions at the molecular. MMB is a vibrant, interdisciplinary community that was created by a collaboration between BCMP and experts in cell biology.
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do nutrients and oxygen pass through the walls or your artieries and into your cells
Answer:
Yes
Explanation:
Trust me bro. Look it up on Bi(n)g not Go(o)gle
______ synthesis begins at a site within a chromosome called the origin of replication.
DNA The origin of replication is a location on a chromosome where synthesis starts.
What do you mean by DNA replication?It is crucial that each daughter cell receives an exact copy of the DNA when a cell divides. DNA replication is the process that makes this happen. Before the cell reaches mitosis or meiosis, during the synthesis phase, also known as the S phase, of the cell cycle, DNA replication takes place.
An indication of how DNA gets duplicated was given by the clarification of the double helix's structure. Recall that cytosine pairs with guanine while adenine pairs with thymine. The two strands are so complimentary to one another. For instance, a complimentary DNA strand will have the nucleotide sequence TCAGTACT for a strand of DNA having the nucleotide sequence AGTCATA.
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what advantage might a segmented worm have over a non-segmented worm have in terms of movement?
The advantage of segmentation in segmented worms over non-segmented worms is strong and flexible movement.
Segmented worms are worms that have a segmented body with repeating units. Unsegmented worms are worms that do not have segmentation.
The main advantage of segmented worms over unsegmented worms is that segmentation allows these worms to move freely.
Each segment has its nerve and muscle tissue. Each has bristles called setae. When a worm moves through dirt, the bristles or setae aid in anchoring and controlling it.
While the other portion of the worm's body protrudes forward, the bristles firmly anchor one part of the worm to the ground.
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which porphyria has a defect in the ferrochetalase enzyme within the rbc, causing redness, edema and burning when exposed to light?
The porphyria having a defect in the ferrochetalase enzyme within the rbc is known as Erythropoietic protoporphyria or (EPP).
What is Erythropoietic protoporphyria?
Erythropoietic protoporphyria is a metabolic disorder which is caused by the deficiency of a specific enzyme called ferrochelatase.
When certain types of mutations occur in the body, it leads to the severs deficiency of ferrochelatase which causes Erythropoietic protoporphyria disorder.
Simply put, Erythropoietic protoporphyria is an inherited disease or disorder that shows its symptoms when sunlight falls on the body and is responsible for burning, acute pains, edema and erythema in the body.
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a man has just learned that he has a blockage in one of his arteries. which of the statements is true regarding this blockage? please choose the correct answer from the following choices, and then select the submit answer button. answer choices this blockage will likely increase the resistance to flow in his circulatory system, and as a result, will decrease the rate of blood flow. this blockage will likely increase the resistance to flow in his circulatory system, and as a result, will increase the rate of blood flow. this blockage will likely decrease the resistance to flow in his circulatory system, and as a result, will decrease the rate of blood flow. this blockage will likely decrease the resistance to flow in his circulatory system, and as a result, will increase the rate of blood flow.
This blockage will likely increase the resistance to flow in his circulatory system, and as a result will decrease the rate of blood flow.
Blood vessels in the circulatory system transport blood away from and towards the heart. Arteries transport blood away from the heart, while veins transport blood back to the heart. The circulatory system transports oxygen, nutrients, and hormones to cells while also removing waste products such as carbon dioxide.
Vascular disease (vasculopathy) affects the blood vessels that transport oxygen and nutrients throughout your body and remove waste. Plaque (made of fat and cholesterol) slows or blocks blood flow inside your arteries or veins, causing common vascular problems. When there is too much cholesterol in the blood, the cholesterol and other substances can combine to form deposits (plaques) on the artery walls. Plaques can cause an artery to narrow or become blocked.
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__ refers to the fact, that, if the conditioned and unconditioned stimuli are not paired for a given number of trials an organism will stop exhibiting the conditioned response.
Extinction refers to the fact that, if the CS and UCS are not paired for a given number of trials, an organism will stop exhibiting the CR.
When the entire species dies or gets eradicated it is called extinction. When the number of species decreased due to environmental, as well as when individual species members undergo evolutionary changes (genetic inbreeding, poor reproduction, decline in population numbers) extinction occurs.
Extinction rates vary greatly.
The majority of species that have ever lived on Earth have gone extinct, but the fossil record reveals five particularly large extinctions, known as mass extinction events, many species extinct due to this. The majority of extinctions, which happen continuously and are referred to as background extinctions, are distinguished from these glaring declines in diversity by the term "mass extinction."
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the system consists of the heart and blood vessels, which together move blood throughout the body. multiple choice question. pulmonary cardiopulmonary cardiovascular coronary
The blood and lymphatic vessels that circulate through the body make up the vascular system, also known as the circulatory system.
Explain about the circulatory system?
The circulatory system's blood arteries direct blood away from and toward the heart. The arteries carry blood away from the heart, and the veins carry it back. The circulatory system transports nutrients like oxygen and hormones to cells and removes wastes like carbon dioxide.
This system helps tissues get the right amount of nutrients, oxygen, and waste disposal. It is common to refer to the lymphatic system as a part of the circulatory system because it connects to the blood system.
The heart and lungs are located in the thorax, or chest cavity. After passing through the body via the heart, blood is oxygenated in the lungs.
supplying the body's tissues, especially the lungs, with food and oxygen. the coagulation of blood, which contains immune system-supporting cells and antibodies, to limit excessive blood loss.
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which anatomical area allows for reproduction? which anatomical area allows for reproduction? primary sex characteristics schemas teratogens sex-linked genes secondary sex characteristics
The ovaries and testes are the two main reproductive organs, or gonads. Gametes, including the egg and sperm, as well as hormones, are created in these organs.
What part of the body controls reproduction?The ovaries and testes are the primary reproductive organs, or gonads. These organs are in charge of producing egg and sperm cells, as well as gametes and hormones.
The reproductive system's primary function is to ensure the survival of the species. Other systems in the body, such as the endocrine and urinary systems, work constantly to keep the individual's homeostasis.
An individual can live a long, healthy, and happy life without bearing children, but for the species to survive, at least some individuals must bear children.
The uterus, two ovaries, two fallopian tubes, the urethra, the pubic bone, and the rectum comprise the internal reproductive anatomy. The endometrium is the inner lining of the uterus.
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when loading the protein samples on the sds-page gel, what component of the sample buffer is responsible for ensuring the protein sample "falls" to the bottom of the sample well?
Electrophoresis is the process of separating macromolecules in an electric field. A discontinuous polyacrylamide gel is used as a support medium and sodium dodecyl sulfate (SDS) is used to denature the proteins in a method that is widely used to separate proteins by electrophoresis.
Sodium Dodecyl Sulfate Polyacrylamide Gel Electrophoresis is the name of the procedure (SDS-PAGE). The most popular technique is also known as the Laemmli method, after U.K. Laemmli, who was the first to apply SDS-PAGE in a scientific investigation and write a paper about it. SDS, also known as lauryl sulfate, is an anionic detergent, which means that its molecules have a net negative charge when dissolved over a broad pH range.
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Using hierarchical levels,explain how it is possible to create different types of cells and organisms
which of the following is an antigen that would be recognized by a helper t cell? a. a bacterium inside a cell b. a virus inside a cell c. an uninfected human cell d. the malaria parasite inside a red blood cell e. a bacterium outside a cell
A bacterium inside a cell is an antigen that would be recognized by a helper t cell
What is an antigen ?Any chemical that triggers the body to mount an immunological defence against it. Toxins, chemicals, germs, viruses, and other foreign substances are examples of antigens. Cancer cells and other body tissues and cells contain antigens that might elicit an immune response.
When class II MHC protein is present, often on the surface of an antigen-presenting cell, T helper cells can detect viral peptides (APC). If the binding affinities are high enough, these interactions lead to the activation, proliferation, and differentiation of T helper cells.Learn more about Antigen here:
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Which of the following represents a virus species name?
a. herpes simplex virus
b. herpesviridae
c. picornavirus
d. enterovirus
e. lentivirus
The correct choice is (B) Herpesviridae virus. Herpesviridae is a big or we can say large family of some DNA viruses that may cause infections and may have certain diseases in animals, as well as including humans.
Prevention: A vaccine was recently approved in the United States to prevent infection with the varicella-zoster virus. Vaccines against herpes simplex virus 2 and cytomegalovirus have been extensively evaluated in field trials. Passive immunization with immunoglobulin or hyperimmune globulin is used to prevent infection or as an adjunct to antiviral therapy.
Process: Infections with herpes simplex viruses 1 and 2 and varicella-zoster virus are currently the most treatable. Acyclovir, valacyclovir, and famciclovir are all approved treatments. Ganciclovir is used to treat cytomegalovirus retinitis. The B virus appears to respond to one of these drugs. There is still no cure for Epstein-Barr virus or human herpesvirus 6, 7, or 8 infections.
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Even in the absence of any mutations or crossing over, what process would still ensure genetic variability in the gametes produced by a single individual?.
Even in the absence of any mutations or crossing over, option C: independent assortment would still ensure genetic variability in the gametes produced by a single individual.
Each gamete has a unique DNA set because of recombination and independent assortment during meiosis. As a result, the resulting zygote has a unique set of genes. The chromosomes randomly move to different poles during meiosis due to a process called independent assortment. After meiosis, a gamete will have 23 chromosomes, but independent assortment means that each gamete will have one of numerous possible chromosome combinations. Thus, even without mutations, or recombination, or crossing over, genetic variations can be produced in an individual.
This rearrangement of genes into distinctive combinations boosts genetic diversity in a population and accounts for the differences between siblings of the same parents.
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Complete question is:
Even in the absence of any mutations or crossing over, what process would still ensure genetic variability in the gametes produced by a single individual?
None of these.
Random fertilization
Independent assortment
Separation of sister chromatids.
Mitosis
a higher level of hemoglobin in the blood increases the blood's density. this is the basis for a simple test that can be used to see if a prospective blood donor has a high enough hemoglobin level to donate safely. a drop of blood is placed in a copper sulfate solution, and the time for the drop to sink to the bottom is measured. if this time is too long, the hemoglobin level is too low. part a explain how this test works. match the words in the left column to the appropriate blanks in the sentences on the right. make certain each sentence is complete before submitting your answer. resethelp
The density of blood rises as hemoglobin concentrations rise. This serves as the foundation for a quick test that can be performed to determine a potential blood donor high hemoglobin levels donating.
What does hemoglobin do?Red blood cells include a protein called hemoglobin, which distributes oxygen to your body's tissues and organs while returning carbon dioxide to your lungs. A low red blood cell count indicates a low hemoglobin level, which can be determined by a hemoglobin test.
What is the remedy for low hemoglobin?Iron supplementation and dietary changes are typically used as treatment for this type of anemia. Receiving iron thru a vein may be necessary for some persons. The source of the bleeding should be found, and the bleeding must be stopped, if blood loss—other than during menstruation—is the cause of iron deficiency.
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During replication, the enzyme dna uses energy from atp to separate the two strands. This generates additional coiling ahead of the replication fork that is alleviated by another enzyme called dna.
During replication, the helicase DNA uses energy from ATP to separate the two strands. This generates additional coiling ahead of the replication fork that is alleviated by another enzyme topoisomerase called DNA.
What specific enzyme actually divides the two DNA strands during replication?Enzymes called helicases bind to nucleic acid or nucleic acid protein complexes and may even alter them. Helicases exist for both DNA and RNA. DNA helicases are necessary for DNA replication because they convert double-stranded DNA into single strands, enabling the replication of each strand individually.
The enzyme DNA helicase goes along the DNA strands and breaks the hydrogen bonds between the bases, unwinding or unzipping the DNA and separating the two strands.
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how do both jetties and seawalls help manage beach erosion?
which of the following choices list the correct order of structures through which urine passes on its way out of the body?
The correct sequence of structures through which urine passes as it leaves the body: Kidneys → urethra → bladder→ ureters.
Urine is the by-product of metabolic processes that are processed in the kidneys and excreted from the body through the urinary tract. The process of forming urine consists of three stages, namely filtration (filtering), reabsorption, and augmentation or secretion (collection).
Excretory organ function:Kidneys are where urine is formed.The ureter is a tube that carries urine from the kidney to the bladder.The bladder is a system of urinary tracts in the form of hollow sacs whose job is to collect fluid that has been excreted by the kidneys and will be excreted as urine.The urethra is the tube that carries urine from the bladder to the outside of the body.Learn more about the urinary system https://brainly.com/question/3109906
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Elisa’s diabetes causes her to have lower than normal numbers of glucose molecules in her cells. You already wrote about how this makes her tired. Now, write an explanation that answers the question how could elisa's diabetes also affect her body’s ability to grow and repair cells? use the following sentence to start your explanation, or use a sentence of your own. Diabetes could affect how well elisa's cells can grow and repair themselves. Word bank glucose oxygen cellular respiration amino acid protein energy.
Diabetes in the disease where cell's ability to uptake glucose efficiently is affected. As a result the cell will not able to produce energy by glucose breakdown and then whole process of performing cellular respiration in the presence of oxygen will shut down. Thus is the reason why the cell will not be able to produce the necessary proteins for body's growth and repair.
Diabetes is of two types. Diabetes 1 is the insulin-dependent diabetes where the body does not produce enough insulin. Diabetes 2 is the inability of the body cells to uptake glucose efficiently.
Cellular respiration is the breakdown of glucose in the presence of oxygen to yield energy for the cells. This energy is essential to perform the various functions of the cell and make it living.
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True or False) DNA does not have to break apart to be copied.
Answer:
false
Explanation:
HELP PLEASE!!! Match the correct term with the corresponding definition or description.
The image below has the solution. To read the text, enlarge it.
Match the correct term with the corresponding definition or description.
1. Matter- anything that has mass and takes up space
2. Rock formation - a region of rock that formed together as a single rock type
3. Rock cycle - Process where any rock type can be changed into any of the other type and back again depending on conditions
4. Erosion- movement of rock pieces and or sail from one place to another by natural processes
5. Deposition - smaller pieces of rocks are spread out across area
6. Compaction- the process of sediment being buried and pressed together
7. Cementation- eventually pieces get stuck together and becomes a rock
8. Energy - the ability to make things move or change
What is Rock?Any naturally occurring solid mass or mineral aggregate is referred to as rock. It is divided into groups based on the minerals it contains, its chemical make-up, and how it is produced.
The region of rocks that formed as a single rock type is known as the rock formation. Any rock type can be transformed into any other type of rock and back again through the rock cycle process, depending on the circumstances. Erosion is defined as the natural movement of rock fragments and/or sail from one location to another.
Thus, matching the correct term with the corresponding definition or description.
1. Matter- anything that has mass and takes up space
2. Rock formation - a region of rock that formed together as a single rock type
3. Rock cycle - Process where any rock type can be changed into any of the other type and back again depending on conditions
4. Erosion- movement of rock pieces and or sail from one place to another by natural processes
5. Deposition - smaller pieces of rocks are spread out across area
6. Compaction- the process of sediment being buried and pressed together
7. Cementation- eventually pieces get stuck together and becomes a rock
8. Energy - the ability to make things move or change
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precentage of each type of base
Answer:
Human DNA is 30.9% A and 29.4% T, 19.9% G and 19.8% C.
Explanation:
The rule constitutes the basis of base pairs in the DNA double helix: A always pairs with T, and G always pairs with C
where do we find high nutrient availability for photosynthesis? the tropics with a strong thermocline, iron rich sediments of the bathyal zones, surface zones of weaker thermoclines/stratification, near the surface at the centers of gyres
The places where we will get high nutrient availability for photosynthesis are the surface zones of weaker thermoclines. So, the third option is the best option.
Gyres are remote areas that are not suitable for photosynthesis at all. Phytoplanktons that fix most of the Earth's oxygen through photosynthesis are scarce in such regions as well. Bathyal zones are also not good for photosynthesis since no light really reaches these spots. They are really deep and dark, which means no sunlight for plants.
Areas with a strong thermocline are no good because they prevent the mixing of nutrients in the water. This means that regions of weak thermocline are what suit nutrient availability the best.
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For which of the following conditions would you MOST likely encounter a ventricular peritoneum shunt?
Epidural hematoma
Hydrocephalus
Cerebral palsy
Subdural hematoma
You would most likely come across a ventricular peritoneum shunt if you had hydrocephalus under the conditions listed below.
An explanation of ventricular pleural shuntsIntroduction: Ventriculo-pleural reroutes (VPLS) drain extra cerebrospinal fluid to the pleural cavity as a different method of treating hydrocephalus. Pleural effusion will occur and accumulate as a result of imbalances between CSF production and absorption.
A ventriculoperitoneal shunt lasts how long?After several years, especially among younger children, VP shunts are likely to need to be replaced. The shunt in a newborn has a two-year lifetime on average. A shunt replacement may not be necessary for adults or kids older than 2 for 8 or more years.
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Ddt was once considered a silver bullet that would permanently eradicate insect pests. Instead, ddt is largely useless against many insects. Which of these would have prevented this evolution of ddt resistance in insect pests?.
Non of the insect pests would have genetic variations that resulted in DDT resistance.
Dichlorodiphenyltrichloroethane (DDT) is an insecticide used in agriculture. United States banned the use of DDT in 1972. They are responsible for causing many Human health effects. EPA also issued an order for DDT on its adverse environmental effects, to wildlife, as well as on human health .
DDT have been broadly studied for their toxicity and carcinogenicity in animals and humans and shown to have an endocrine abolition potential affecting reproductive system although the effects may vary among animal species in correlation with exposure levels.
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The introduction of the automobile in the United States encouraged the creation of what American cultural landscape?
Answer: thousands of miles of highways and roads.
Explanation:
1. if you used information from two different data sources, the number of cases of bacterial infections were obtained from the local health department, while the data regarding the number and types of fish products sold at local stores were obtained from the epiland fishing and wild game office. what type of epidemiological study would it be if you used two different types of information to test whether the consumption of fish products from epiland lake are associated with a higher risk of bacterial infections? 2. list two potential epidemiologic study types that would be suitable if all of the data came from the same source (i.e. one study) and it was used to test whether the consumption of fish products from the epiland lake are associated with a higher risk of bacterial infections?
Gram staining and observational studies need to be done in order to get the idea of the particular epidemiology.
Bacterial infections have a large impact on public health. Disease can occur at anybody site and can be caused by the organism itself or by the body's response to its presence. Bacteria are transmitted to humans through air, water, food, or living vectors
In order to know more about the bacteria and its pathogenicity, we perform gram staining. Pathogenicity is the ability of a bacteria or virus or any microorganism to cause the disease in an individual.
Gram staining of a bacteria gives the idea of how deadly the bacteria or the virus is. The principal modes of transmission of bacterial infection are contact, airborne, droplet, vectors, and vehicular. Preventive measures have a dramatic impact on morbidity and mortality. Such measures include water treatment, immunization of animals and humans, personal hygiene measures, and safer sex practices. Bacterial resistance to antibiotics is a growing concern mandating their prudent use.
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You discover a population of seals and find it to be at hardy–weinberg equilibrium with respect to the a locus. Suppose that there are two alleles at this locus and the frequency of one of those alleles is 0. 4. Of the individuals that carry at least one copy of that allele, what percent are homozygotes?.
Of the individuals that carry at least one copy of that allele, about 25 percent are homozygotes, which means that option B would be the right answer.
Hardy Weinberg equilibrium is the condition which suggests that genotype frequencies in a population remain constant between different generations in the absence of disturbance by outside factors. It is the guiding principal of population genetics. To ensure that frequencies remain constant, it must be ensured that mating is avoided, there is no migration or emigration of species, natural selection is stopped and the population pool size is large. The formula for calculating the frequency of alleles is given as
p + q = 1
where p is frequency of S
where q is frequency of s
According to question, q = 0.4
p = 1 - q
p = 1 - 0.4
p = 0.6
The number of heterozygotes and homozygotes can be found using the formula
p² + 2pq + q² = 1
where p² = frequency of SS
2pq = frequency of Ss
q² = frequency of ss
So, the value of 2pq = 2×0.4×0.6 = 0.48
q² = (0.4)² = 0.16
Now to find fraction of homozygotes (ss) of the individuals that carry at least one s allele, we need to divide the frequency of homozygotes ss into the frequency of heterozygotes that is
Ss = 2pq/q² = 0.16/0.64
Ss = 0.25 or 25%
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To refer to complete question, see below:
You discover a population of seals and find it to be at Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium with respect to the A locus. Suppose that there are two alleles at this locus and the frequency of one of those alleles is 0.4. Of the individuals that carry at least one copy of that allele, what percent are homozygotes?
a) 10
b) 25
c) 60
d) 15
e) 40
Which step in photosynthesis does not need light
Answer: carbon fixation phase
Explanation: