Paleontology - The Fossil Record Scientists use the age of fossils as evidence for evolution. There are two ways of dating fossils: Relative dating and absolute dating. Relative dating uses a fossil's location in rock layers to determine that fossil's approximate age. Fossils found deeper in the ground are usually the oldest. Using the chart to the right, a paleontologist can therefore know that a fossil found in layer 1 at the dig site is older than a fossil found at layer 6, for example, by relative dating.
Absolute dating determines the fossil's actual age by measuring amount of an element called carbon 4 in the fossil. There is a mathematical formula that will calculate the rate of decay of this element. By measuring the carbon-14 levels and plugging it into the math formula, the scientist can know an actual number of years old a fossil is.
1. What are the two ways of finding the age of a fossil?
2. Describe how relative dating works.
3. What does absolute dating do?
4. Why is the element carbon-14 important for paleontologists?
Answers
Fossils are defined as the dead and decayed remains or traces or impressions of the plants and animals that were buried deep down on the earth millions of years ago.
Paleontologists is term that refers to the scientists who study the life and history of earth and evolution through the fossils and their records.
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Related Questions
dooley co. had 200,000 shares of common stock, 20,000 shares of convertible preferred stock, and $1,000,000 of 10% convertible bonds outstanding during 20a1. the preferred stock is convertible into 40,000 shares of common stock. during 20a1, dooley paid dividends of $ 1.20 per share on the common stock and $ 3.00 per share on the preferred stock. each $ 1,000 bond is convertible into 45 shares of common stock. the net income for 20a1 was $ 600,000 and the income tax rate was 30%. basic earnings per share for 20a1 is (rounded to nearest cent)
Answers
40,000 units of common shares can be obtained in exchange for the preferred stock. Dooley distributed dividends on the common shares in 20A1 in the amount of $1.20 per share.
How do you define stock?These ownership certificates for any organization are generally referred to as "stocks." In contrast, a share refers to the shares of a certain company. Those who had shares in a specific company are referred to as shareholders. There are two types of stocks: preferred and common.
Why do investors purchase stocks?Your investment portfolio may benefit from including stocks. Investing in stocks of various companies can help you increase your savings, shield your cash from hyperinflation and taxes, and increase the return on your assets. It's imperative to be knowledgeable about the risks involved with stock market investment.
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choose the best description of the cell cytoskeleton.
A)The cell cytoskeleton serves as permanent scaffolding to anchor cell components into position within the cell cytoplasm.
B)The cell cytoskeleton is similar to an animal skeleton in providing rigid internal support and structure to the cell.
C)The cell cytoskeleton is a dynamic network of fibers that can be quickly dismantled and reassembled to change cell shape and the position of cell components
Answers
The cell cytoskeleton is a dynamic network of fibers that can be quickly dismantled and reassembled to change cell shape and the position of cell components. Hence option C is correct.
What is cytoskeleton?Cytoskeleton is defined as all cells, even those of bacteria and archaea, have a complex, dynamic network of interconnecting protein filaments. A sophisticated web of protein filaments and motor proteins is present in these fibers in eukaryotic cells, which aid in cell movement.
The cytoskeleton is a framework that aids in maintaining the internal order and shape of cells. Additionally, it provides mechanical support, enabling cells to carry out essential functions including division and motility. There isn't just one cytoskeletal element.
Thus, the cell cytoskeleton is a dynamic network of fibers that can be quickly dismantled and reassembled to change cell shape and the position of cell components. Hence option C is correct.
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which of these statements correctly describes an agglutination reaction? group of answer choices gluten peptides presented by apcs are sticky, so the cells clump together a cell suspension incubated with fluorophore-conjugated antibodies can be run on a flow cytometer antibodies bound to antigen-expressing cells form large macroscopic aggregates it cannot be used to determine a patient's blood type
Answers
Gluten peptides presented by APCs are sticky. This is correct for an agglutination reaction.
Aglutination occurs when an insoluble or particle antigen interacts with an antibody. A positive reaction can be detected macroscopically in a short period of time. The antigen-antibody complex, on the other hand, can be seen with the bare eye if it is large enough. The agglutination reaction could involve both IgG and IgM. Agglutination occurs when an antigen and its corresponding antibody, known as isoagglutinin, combine. This expression is commonly used in blood grouping.
Hemagglutination is the process by which red blood cells clump or clog. The agglutin involved in hemagglutination is hemagglutinin. In cross-matching, donor red blood cells are incubated with the recipient's serum or plasma. Agglutination occurs when the blood types of the donor and recipient are incompatible.
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Please help !
Which of the following apply to cryoprecipitate:
A. a concentrated sample of white blood cells
B.none of the above apply to cryoprecipitate
C. a concentrated sample of B-specific carbohvdrate
D. a concentrated sample of D-specific alloantibody
E. a concentrated sample of coagulation proteins
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E. a concentrated sample of coagulation proteins is correct.
E. a concentrated sample of coagulation proteins is correct.
Cryoprecipitate is a blood product that is obtained by freezing and thawing plasma. It is a concentrated sample of coagulation proteins, including factors VIII and XIII, von Willebrand factor, and fibrinogen. Cryoprecipitate is used to treat bleeding disorders, such as hemophilia, and to support blood clotting in other medical conditions.
A. a concentrated sample of white blood cells is not correct. White blood cells are a type of immune cell that helps to fight infections and other diseases. They are not present in cryoprecipitate.
B.none of the above apply to cryoprecipitate is not correct. Cryoprecipitate is a concentrated sample of coagulation proteins, as described above.
C. a concentrated sample of B-specific carbohydrate is not correct. Carbohydrates are a type of biomolecule that provides energy to the body. They are not present in cryoprecipitate.
D. a concentrated sample of D-specific alloantibody is not correct. Alloantibodies are antibodies that are produced in response to foreign substances, such as transplanted organs or blood transfusions. They are not present in cryoprecipitate.
suppose you are a conservation biologist who manages a large landscape. your landscape has several patches of native vegetation. there are 10 possible locations where you could build corridors, but you have only been given the resources to build 5 corridors. your goal is to maximize plant species richness in your patches, so you must decide where to build your 5 corridors. drag corridors to the 5 locations that would maximize connectivity between the patches. you can use any combination of north-south and east-west corridors. drag an x to each of the 5 locations where you do not want a corridor. labels can be used more than once.
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Drag an X to each of the 5 locations where you do not want a corridor.
x
- - x
x x | x |
-
Conservation biology is the study of nature and biodiversity conservation with the goal of protecting species, habitats, and ecosystems from extinction and the erosion of biotic interactions. It is an interdisciplinary subject drawing on natural and social sciences, and the practice of natural resource management.
Conservation biology and the concept of biological diversity (biodiversity) co-emerged, contributing to the modern era of conservation science and policy. Conservation biology's inherent multidisciplinary basis has given rise to new subdisciplines such as conservation social science, conservation behavior, and conservation physiology. It stimulated further development of conservation genetics which Otto Frankel had originated first but is now often considered a subdiscipline as well.
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in meiosis, crossing over occurs, where homologous chromosomes synapse and their chromatids exchange genetic information. during crossing over, the allele for one trait swaps places with the allele for the same trait on the homologous chromosome. at this point, the sister chromatids are no longer identical. when the chromatids split from each other, there are four unique haploid sperm or egg cells.
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This is not a answer but for anyone that wants to help here are the images
which of the following statements help to explain the pathogenesis of human transmissible spongiform encephalopathy?
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By altering its structure, aberrant PrpSc protein changes the normal host PrpC protein into infectious PrpSc protein.
What does the pathophysiology of a disease entail?
Pathogenesis is the process by which an infection leads to illness. Some of the pathogenic mechanisms of viral disease include virus implantation at the place of entry, local replication, diffusion to target organs (disease sites), propagation to sites of virus shedding into the environment, and so on.
That pathology is what kind?
Different types of pathogenesis, such as microbial infection, inflammation, malignancy, and tissue deterioration, are possible. Bacterial pathogenesis, for instance, is the process by which bacteria cause infectious disease. Numerous variables contribute to the majority of diseases.
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Is this the correct answer? If not then what is it please tell me
Answers
Tonight the music seems so loud
I wish that we could lose this crowd
Maybe it's better this way
We'd hurt each other with the things we'd want to say
We could have been so good together
We could have lived this dance forever
But now, who's gonna dance with me?
Answer:
A phosphate is lost and energy is released.
Explanation:
The explanation is in the photo, it shows the cycle from ATP to ADP to ATP and so on.
Atmospheric
pressure is also known as barometric pressure because it
is measured using a barometer. A rising barometer indicates increasing
atmospheric pressure and a falling barometer indicates decreasing
atmospheric pressure.
HOW DOES THIS FACT FROM MY SUB QUESTION ANSWER THAT COMES FROM A ARTICLE RELATE TO MY RESEARCH QUESTION WHICH IS
What effect does the amount of air pressure have on how far a soccer ball travels when kicked?
Answers
Answer:
The greater the air pressure in the ball, the farther it will travel when a force is applied.
Which of the following best describes the time period in which the novel is set? A. The depression era B. The golden age C. Civil rights era D. The roaring twenties
Answers
The right answer is C. The era in which the book is situated is best characterized as the civil rights era.
What is meant by depression?Depression is a prevalent mental illness. According to estimates, the condition affects 5% of adults worldwide. Consistent sorrow and then a lack of enthusiasm in formerly fulfilling or joyful activities are its defining traits. Additionally, it may impair appetite and sleep. Concentration problems and fatigue are frequent.
What transpires throughout a depression?For the majority of two weeks, mood and/or attention (pleasure) are diminished in serious depression. Self-esteem is typically preserved during mourning. Feelings of futility and self-hatred are frequent in serious depression.
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Living organisms make and use three main types of ribonucleic acids (RNA) for their biological functions: * ribosomal RNA (rRNA) * messenger RNA (mRNA) * transfer RNA (tRNA)Match each description to the type of RNA it describes.
A. mRNA
B. rRNA
C. tRNA
1.contains and anticodon
2.has amino acids covalently attached
3.is assembled in the nucleolus
4.is the most abundant form of RNA
5.is a component of ribosomes
6.specifies the amino acid sequence for a protein
7.contains exons
Answers
A. mRNA - 6. specifies the amino acid sequence for a protein
B. rRNA - 4. is the most abundant form of RNA, 3. is assembled in the nucleolus, 5. is a component of ribosomes
C. tRNA - 1. contains an anticodon, 2. has amino acids covalently attached, 7. contains exons
Extra Explanation:
Ribonucleic acids (RNA) are biomolecules that are involved in many important biological processes in living organisms. There are three main types of RNA: ribosomal RNA (rRNA), messenger RNA (mRNA), and transfer RNA (tRNA). Each type of RNA has unique characteristics and functions.
1. rRNA is the most abundant form of RNA in the cell, and it is a component of ribosomes, which are the cellular structures that are involved in protein synthesis. rRNA is assembled in the nucleolus, a specialized region of the cell nucleus.
2. mRNA carries the genetic information that specifies the amino acid sequence of a protein from the nucleus to the ribosomes, where it is translated into a protein. mRNA contains exons, which are the coding regions of the gene, and introns, which are non-coding regions that are spliced out before the mRNA is translated into a protein.
3. tRNA is a small RNA molecule that has an anticodon, which is a sequence of three nucleotides that is complementary to the codon on the mRNA. tRNA also has amino acids covalently attached to it, and it brings the correct amino acid to the ribosome during protein synthesis.
Which of the following items are pure elements—that is, made up of only one type of atom?
A. Cake
B. Iron
C. Hydrogen
Answers
Answer:
Explanation:
Cake: Its a mixture. Reason : Cake contain various ingredient which can act as compound alone and on mixing these compound properties of each compound remain the same even after the formation of cake.
Iron : Iron has four naturally-occurring stable isotopes, 54Fe, 56Fe, 57Fe and 58Fe
Hydrogen : The hydrogen atom is the simplest of all atoms: it consists of a single proton and a single electron. In addition to the most common form of the hydrogen atom that is called protium, two other isotopes of hydrogen exist: deuterium and tritium.
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Why?: because it’s the simplest of atoms consisting of just 1 proton and 1 electron. It is also and element (H), with an atomic number of 1.
which of the following events in transcription initiation likely occurs last? view available hint(s)for part e which of the following events in transcription initiation likely occurs last? tbp is recruited to the promoter. regulatory transcription factors bind to enhancers. basal transcription factors form a basal transcription complex. rna polymerase binds to the promoter of the gene.
Answers
RNA polymerase binds to the promoter of the gene is the correct event in transcription initiation likely occurs last.
The first nucleotides in the RNA chain are created during the transcription beginning phase. The RNAP holoenzyme binds to the DNA template to begin the multi-step process, which is completed when the core polymerase exits from the promoter after approximately the first nine nucleotides have been synthesized.
The sorts of interactions between the RNAP and the nucleic acids that are involved can be used to explain the steps of the transcription initiation process. The creation of a complex between the holoenzyme and the DNA sequence at the promoter, which takes the form of a double-stranded DNA, is the initial step in transcription initiation. Closed binary complex or closed describes this complex.
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the signal to make new proteins can sometimes be an external signal (as was the example in the video) the order of events are as follows:
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Three steps can be distinguished in cell signaling is Reception, transduction and triggering.
Reception: When a signaling molecule enters a cell from the outside, the cell recognizes it. The transduction process involves the alteration of the receptor protein when a signaling molecule attaches to it. Finally, a specific biological reaction was triggered by the signal. The method by which the cell responds to substances outside the cell by using signaling molecules present both inside and on the cell's surface.Typically, the numerous signaling molecules deliver chemical signals to the cells. The signaling molecule binds to the proper receptor on the cell surface, which sets off a series of actions that not only carry the signal to the inside of the cell but also amplify it.To know more about signaling check the below link:
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Match the definition to the word
Answers
Answer:
undissipated- 2
malleus -5
decoding -7
stapes -4
incus -6
cochlea -1
tympanic -3
Explanation:
Greetings !
look at the attachment above for the definitions, so far it's also explained.
Hope it helps!!!
What type impulses m(sensory or motor) travel on dorsal root?
Answers
Answer:
The sensory impulses generated in the periphery (pain, touch, temperature changes) activate the peripheral processes of the spinal ganglion neurons. These impulses then travel to the spinal cord either directly (bypassing the cell bodies) or through the neuronal cell body in the dorsal root ganglion.
Explanation:
The dorsal root transmits sensory information, forming the afferent sensory root of a spinal nerve. The dorsal root of the spinal nerve mediates the movement of motor impulses to go out of the spinal cord
Dorsal Roots: convey mainly “afferent” sensory information into the dorsal spinal cord. (Blumenfeld, 22) Also referred to as 'dorsal nerve roots. ' Ventral Roots: carry mainly “efferent” “motor” and “signals” from the ventral spinal cord to the periphery.
what organ is associated with osmoregulation and is made of the glomerulus, tubule, and collecting duct? question 2 options: heart kidney liver stomach
Answers
The kidney is associated with osmoregulation and is made of the glomerulus, tubule, and collecting duct.
The primary osmoregulatory organs in mammalian systems are the kidneys, which filter blood and keep body fluid osmolarity at 300 mOsm. The cortex, medulla, and pelvis are the three separate internal sections that make up this three-layered structure.
The aorta and inferior vena cava, respectively, serve as the origin and fusion points for the blood arteries that carry blood into and out of the kidneys. The segmental, interlobar, arcuate, and cortical radiate arteries are formed when the renal arteries enter the kidney after branching off from the aorta.
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What is the main role of RNA polymerase during transcription?
A. To form mRNA using a DNA template strand
B. To pull apart the double helix
C. To separate from the DNA template strand
D. To attach to the promotor of a gene
Answers
Explanation:
RNA polymerase is an enzyme that is responsible for copying a DNA sequence into an RNA sequence, during the process of transcription.
What are parallel pathways?
There are three pathways within V1 that perform different functions in parallel.
Magnocellular pathway: begins with m type ganglion cells of the retina. These cells send axons to the magnocellular layers of the LGN. These layers project to layer IVCa of striate cortex, which in turn projects to layer IVB. Because of cortical neurons are direction selective this pathway may be involved in the analysis of object motion and the guidance of motor actions
The parvo-interblob pathway: originates with p-type ganglion cells f the retina, which project to the parvocellular layers of the LGN.The parvocellular LGN sends axons to layer IVCa of striate cortex which projects to layer II and III inter blob regions. Neurons in this pathway have small orientations-selective receptive fields, so perhaps they are involved in the analysis of fine object shape.
The Blob pathway: receives input from the subset of ganglion cells that are neither m or p type cells. These non m/p cells project to the koniocellular layers of the LGN. The koniocellular LGN projects directly to the cytochrome oxidase blobs in layers II and III. Many neurons in the blobs are color selective so they might be involved in analysis of color.
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Answer:
The term "parallel pathways" refers to the fact that there are multiple neural pathways in the brain that perform different functions, and that these pathways operate in parallel with each other. In the context of vision, the three main parallel pathways are the magnocellular pathway, the parvocellular pathway, and the Blob pathway. Each of these pathways originates in different cells in the retina and performs different functions in the visual system. For example, the magnocellular pathway is involved in motion detection and the guidance of motor actions, while the parvocellular pathway is involved in the analysis of fine object shapes. The Blob pathway is involved in color analysis. Together, these three pathways work in parallel to enable the brain to process visual information.
label the anatomy of the cochlea, specifically the spiral organ (organ of corti) by clicking and dragging the labels to the correct location. (some labels may not be used.)
Answers
The interior (as opposed to external) fluid of the inner ear in higher vertebrates In the cochlea of the ear, the Organ of Corti contains hair cells that react to sound anatomy of the cochlea.
Within the cochlea, where is the spiral organ situated?The hearing receptor organ is found in the cochlea and is called the organ of Corti or the spiral organ (housed inside the scala media). The inner ear's sensory receptors are located in a strip of sensory epithelium consisting of hair cells.
What kinds of structures make up the spiral organ?The spiral organ of Corti, which contains hair cells with an underlying basilar membrane and an overlying tectorial membrane, is housed in the cochlear duct.
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Match the term with the correct definition.
Depolarization...
a. small change in resting membrane potential confined to a small area
b. charge difference across the plasma membrane when the cell is in an unstimulated state
c. larger change in resting membrane potential that spreads over the entire surface of a cell
d. membrane becomes more positive when Na+ diffuses into cell
e. return to resting membrane potential
Answers
Option d Depolarization membrane become more Depolarization positive when Na+ diffuses into cell.
Because sodium is a positively charged ion, it will cause a change in the relative voltage between inside and outside the cell. Because the resting potential is the membrane's state at a voltage of 70 mV, sodium cation entering the cell causes it to become less negative. Neurotransmitters that open Na+ channels tend to make the Depolarization membrane potential more positive, while those that activate K+ channels tend to make it more negative; those that inhibit these channels tend to have the opposite effect.
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. both attenuation of the trp operon in e. coli and riboswitches in b. subtilis rely on changes in the secondary structure of the leader regions of mrna to regulate gene expression. compare and contrast the specific mechanisms in these two types of regulation with that involving short noncoding rnas (srnas).
Answers
The difference between mechanism in these two type of regulation with that involving short noncoding RNAs are:
Different systems that can either stop or start transcription are referred to as riboswitches. In both instances, intramolecular double-stranded RNA forms, causing conformational alterations. To cause the conformational shift, sRNA molecules will bind to the short ribonucleotide sequence (attenuator).
Separate transcripts known as sRNAs are complementary to mRNA and work by joining together to generate intermolecular double stranded RNA. SRNA binding either inhibits or promotes translation.
A functioning RNA molecule that is not translated into a protein is known as a non-coding RNA. An RNA gene is frequently used to refer to the DNA sequence from which a functional non-coding RNA is produced.
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in humans, dnmt1 acts as a , an enzyme that can add methyl groups to bases in newly replicated dna molecules.
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In humans, DNMT1 acts as a maintenance methylase, an enzyme that can add methyl groups to bases in newly replicated DNA molecules.
What is an Enzyme?This is referred to as a biological catalyst which are involved in speeding up the rate of reactions in the body by lowering the activation energy. They are proteinous and can be denatured by heat or other types of chemical substances.
DNA methyltransferase 1(DNMT1) is the enzyme which is involved in the addition of methyl groups to bases in newly replicated DNA molecules and therefore functions as a maintenance methylase. This is important as it helps in the regulation of tissue-specific gene expression, X chromosome inactivation etc in the body of an organism thereby making it the correct choice.
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in what frequencies would you expect the offspring genotypes? indicate the frequency of each genotype by dragging the labels to the table. labels may be used once, more than once, or not at all. resethelp
Answers
According to Hardy-Weinberg, gene frequencies do not alter without being subjected to external pressure. This is a good estimate that ignores random drift while facilitating some calculations.
What does "frequencies" actually mean?
the regularity or repetition of anything, or the fact that something happens frequently or a lot of times: Concerns about bus frequency rose from the previous year. the increase in violence attacks..
How often happens in actual life?
The frequency of the wave is the total number of waves generated in one second. Frequency refers to the number of vibrations measured each second. Here is an easy illustration: Suppose one second produces five full waves.
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Mountains have an unmatched power to drive human evolution. Starting tens of thousands of years ago, people moved to high altitudes, and there they experienced adaptation that reworked their biology. In Tibet, for example, people have broader arteries and capillaries. In the Andes, they can dissolve more oxygen into their blood. These different traits of people who live in high altitudes illustrate
A.inclusive fitness because the variation in the number and types of molecules in their blood increases their survival
B.inclusive fitness because the variation in traits is increased by the altruistic behaviors of the Tibetans
C.relative fitness because the variation in the number and types of molecules in their blood is passed on to the next generation
D.relative fitness because the variation in traits is increased by high birth rate and low death rate
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These various characteristics of those who live at high elevations serve as an example of adaptive evolution.
Why does adaptive evolution occur?Only heritable qualities in the population are affected by natural selection, which favors advantageous alleles and increases their frequency while favoring detrimental alleles and decreases their frequency. We call this process adaptive evolution.
What kind of evolution is adaptive?In actuality, the capacity for lactose digestion may be an illustration of evolutionary change in the human ancestry. Adaptive evolution is driven by positive natural selection, which is the propensity of favorable traits to rise in predominance (frequency) in a population.
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Adaptation to a way of life can explain ___________.
modifications2 examples that relate the change in bone structure to mode of locomotion.
1. Frogs have a combined radius and ulna to help them jump higher.
2. Birds do not have as many metacarpals, carpals, and phalanges so they can fly more efficiently.
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the process through which organisms adapt to their surroundings to increase their chances of surviving there.
Why is life adaption important?To really be able to survive, all species must be able can adapt to their environment.This entails adapting in order to survive the ecosystem's climatic conditions, predators, as well as other species who compete with them for resources like food and habitat.
Describe adaptability using an example?Animals and plants that are living have specific characteristics that allow them to live and prosper in their environments.Adaptations are these characteristics.Here are two instances of adaptation:Cacti have transformed their leaves into spines to reduce water loss from transpiration in the scorching conditions of deserts.
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verify 1. a person is out fishing and cuts their finger with a fillet knife. although the wound is small, the laceration provides an entry point for bacteria (vibrio vulnificus), which invade the tissue. describe the steps that would be employed by a neutrophil to eliminate a bacterial cell. assume that no antibodies are present that recognize the bacteria as foreign.
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The bacteria Vibrio vulnificus is responsible for gastroenteritis, serious wound infections, and septicemia. High morbidity and death result from this infection's delayed diagnosis and treatment.
What is the name for bacterial cells?bacterial cell of the bacillus type. Eukaryotic cells, which make up other forms of life, are essentially distinct from prokaryotic cells, which include bacteria and archaea. Compared to eukaryotic cells, prokaryotic cells have a considerably simpler architecture.
What purpose do bacteria serve?To name a few functions, the bacteria in our systems help break down the food we eat, assist us access nutrients, and neutralize toxins[7]; [8]. They also contribute significantly to the fight against diseases by shielding colonized surfaces from invasive bacteria.
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Why is there a higher number of carriers than affected individuals?Settings:Mode of inheritance - RecessiveParental generation -Male - HeterozygousFemale - Homozygous mutantMatings between relatives - disallowProgeny in first generation - 4Show carriers - turn on
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Despite only having a 25% probability of contracting the illness, offspring get a 75% chance of acquiring at that one mutant allele.
What is an example of homozygosity?When two identical copies of a gene are present, you are said to be homozygous for that gene. It contrasts with a heterozygous genotype, in which the alleles are distinct. Everyone who possesses a recessive characteristic, such as red hair or blue eyes, is dominant for that gene.
Or AA is homozygous?Homozygous people have two copies with same allele. That might be homozygous dominant or hereditary recessive, AA or aa. A person with two dominant "A" genotypes for a certain gene is said to be homozygous dominant for that gene.
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The ascending limb of loop of Henle is permeable to
A. Glucose
B. NH3
C. Na+
D. Water
Answers
The ascending limb of the loop of Henle is permeable to C. Na+.
One of the structures in the nephron of the kidney is the ascending limb of the loop of Henle, which is a direct continuation of the descending limb of the loop of Henle. There is a thin and thick segment on the ascending limb.
Distal convoluted tubule and Henle's loop, The ascending loop of Henle is permeable to the Na+ ion but impermeable to water, whereas the descending loop of Henle is permeable to water and impermeable to Na+. As a result, the electrolytes that travel to the medullary fluid cause the concentrated filtrate to become diluted as it ascends. The job of the loop of Henle is to make an expanded salt fixation slope in the medulla. The loop of Henle is a counter-current multiplier; The concentration gradient in the medulla is greater the longer the loop.
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the conversion of short-term memory to long-term memory would be inhibited by ablation of the .
Answers
The conversion of short-term memory to long-term memory would be inhibited by ablation of the Hippocampus.
To transform a short-term memory into a long-term memory, the brain must undergo modifications that shield the memory against interruption due to injury, illness, or conflicting stimuli. Consolidation is the term for the temporal process by which memories are permanently imprinted with events.
Most of the time, when someone mentions memory loss (formerly known as amnesia), they are actually referring to long-term memory. Accordingly, short-term memory is defined by cognitive psychologists as the first 15 to 30 seconds of memory, and long-term memory is defined as the remaining portion of memory that lasts longer than 30 seconds. Long-term memory loss may result from some short-term memory loss causes, which are progressive, meaning they get worse with time.
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