On a coordinate plane, parallelogram P Q R S is shown. Point P is at (negative 2, 5), point Q is at (2, 1), point R is at (1, negative 2), and point S is at (negative 3, 2). In the diagram, SR = 4 StartRoot 2 EndRoot and QR = StartRoot 10 EndRoot. What is the perimeter of parallelogram PQRS?

Answer:

The rate of change is: 2

Step-by-step explanation:

[tex]\frac{187-145}{2007-1986}[/tex] = 2

Answer:

m=-2

Step-by-step explanation:

m=y2-y1/x2-x1

m=-2-8/3-(-2)

m=-2-8/3+2

m=-10/5

m=-2

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

30yd^3

Step-by-step explanation:

dimensions are 3*5*2 (count the number of blocks) so multiply to get 30 yd^3

Answer:

y=6x-1

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

[tex]\bold{-6x + y = -1}[/tex]

Step-by-step explanation:

The slope form is [tex]y=mx+b[/tex]. So, convert this to a slope form:

Answer: (1,10)

Step-by-step explanation:

Assuming these are the correctly written equations:

-x + 5y = 49, and

x - 4y = -39

I'll rewrite them:

5y = x + 49

y = (1/5)x + (49/5)

-4y = -x -39

y = (1/4)x + (39/4)

=====

I'll assume the question is to find the point these two lines intersect (?).

See the attached graph.  They intersect at (1,10).

Answer: y = (x+6)(x-8)

Step-by-step explanation:

3x - 7 + 2x - 3 = 90

<=> 5x -10=90

<=> 5x = 100

<=> x=20

ok done. Thank to me :>

Answer:

4x - 7

Step-by-step explanation:

x + 2x + 3x - 2x = 4x

-8 + 1 = -7

The simplified expression is 4x -7.

A fine operation similar as deduction, addition, addition, or division is used to combine terms into an expression. In a fine expression, the following terms are used.

Given:

Expression:  x+2x –8+3x+1 –2x

Now, simplifying the expression by taking like terms along.

x+2x –8+3x+1 –2x

= x+ 2x - 2x + 3x - 8 + 1

= x(1 + 2 - 2 + 3) -7

= x( 4) -7

= 4x -7

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Answer:

C

Step-by-step explanation:

The 3 sides of the triangle are congruent.

The triangle is therefore equilateral with 3 congruent angles of 60° , so

∠ B = 60° → C

Answer:

3and3 4and 2 5and1

Step-by-step explanation:

3 is the coordinate of 3 4is the coordinate of 3 5is the coordinate of 1

Answer: the first one is 19 and the second is 81.

Answer:

x = -6

Step-by-step explanation:

B = 2

F = 6

D = 4

H = 8

x + B = Fx - Dx + H

x + 2 = 6x - 4x + 8

x + 2 = 2x + 8

-x = 6

x = -6

Answer:

f=1+xb+dx−h

my answer to your question

Answer:

0, 1/18, and 1/36

Step-by-step explanation:

For i = 2, the probability it lands on 6 is 0, because you cannot sum to 2 with a 6. The same applies to i = 3 thru i = 6.

For the probability that at least one of a pair of fair dice lands on 6 for i = 7, there are only two possible ways, the first roll is a 6 and the second roll is a 7, and the first roll is a 1 and the second roll is a 6. The total amount of ways is 6 * 6 = 36, so the total probability is 1/18. This also applies to i = 8 thru i = 11.

For i = 12, there is only one way to get 12, the first dice lands on 6 and the second dice lands on 6. Assuming the dice are indistinguishable, the probability is 1/36.

The probability that at least one of a pair of fair dice lands on 6, given that the sum of the dice is i, where i ranges from 2 to 12, is 23/12.

We have,

The complementary probability of "at least one die lands on 6" is "neither of the dice lands on 6."

Therefore, you need to find the probability that neither of the dice lands on 6 for each possible sum i, and then subtract that probability from 1 to get the desired probability.

Let's go through the cases:

i = 2 (only possible sum with two dice):

In this case, both dice must show a 1.

The probability of this happening on a fair 6-sided die is

(1/6) * (1/6) = 1/36.

i = 3: The combinations are (1, 2) and (2, 1).

The probability of either happening is 2 * (1/6) * (1/6) = 1/18.

i = 4:

The combinations are (1, 3), (2, 2), and (3, 1).

The probability of any of these happening is 3 * (1/6) * (1/6) = 1/12.

i = 5:

The combinations are (1, 4), (2, 3), (3, 2), and (4, 1).

The probability of any of these happening is 4 * (1/6) * (1/6) = 1/9.

i = 6:

The combinations are (1, 5), (2, 4), (3, 3), (4, 2), and (5, 1).

The probability of any of these happening is 5 * (1/6) * (1/6) = 5/36.

i = 7:

The combinations are (1, 6), (2, 5), (3, 4), (4, 3), (5, 2), and (6, 1).

The probability of any of these happening is 6 * (1/6) * (1/6) = 1/6.

i = 8:

The combinations are (2, 6), (3, 5), (4, 4), (5, 3), and (6, 2).

The probability of any of these happening is 5 * (1/6) * (1/6) = 5/36.

i = 9:

The combinations are (3, 6), (4, 5), and (5, 4).

The probability of any of these happening is 3 * (1/6) * (1/6) = 1/12.

i = 10:

The combinations are (4, 6) and (6, 4).

The probability of either happening is 2 * (1/6) * (1/6) = 1/18.

i = 11:

The combinations are (5, 6) and (6, 5).

The probability of either happening is 2 * (1/6) * (1/6) = 1/18.

i = 12:

The combination is (6, 6).

The probability of this happening is (1/6) * (1/6) = 1/36.

Now, sum up the probabilities for each case:

(1/36) + (1/18) + (1/12) + (1/9) + (5/36) + (1/6) + (5/36) + (1/12) + (1/18) + (1/18) + (1/36)

This simplifies to:

69/36 = 23/12

Thus,

The probability that at least one of a pair of fair dice lands on 6, given that the sum of the dice is i, where i ranges from 2 to 12, is 23/12.

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Answer:

The first, third, and fourth answers are correct!

Answer:

An even number: 1/2, A multiple of 3: 1/4, A multiple of 4: 1/4, Not a multiple of 4: 3/4, Less then 4: 3/8

Step-by-step explanation:

Since there are eight faces all you have to do is take the number that answers the question and put it over eight.

Answer:

No of sample space , n(s) = 12 + 11 + 17 + 5 = 45

No of favorable cases , n(e) = 17

Probability of getting blue marble ,

P(e) = n(e)/n(s)

       = 17 / 45

NOW

Probability of not getting blue marble,

P'(e) = 1 - p(e)

      = 1 - 17 / 45

     = ( 45 - 17)/45

    = 28 / 45

Hope it helped :)

Step-by-step explanation:

The slope of the line of the graph is given by the ratio of the change in y-

coordinates to the change in the x-coordinates of the line.

The statement that is true about the slope of the line is; it is  [tex]\dfrac{1}{2}[/tex] throughout

the line.

Reasons:

The given parameter are;

The ordered pair through which the line passes = (-6, -3), and (0, 0) and (6, 3)

Points on the hypotenuse of the shaded right triangle = O(0, 0), and A(4, 2)

Points on the leg of the right triangle = (0, 0) to (4, 0)

Points on the second leg of the right triangle = (4, 0) to (4, 2)

Second right triangle;

Points on the hypotenuse = A(4, 2) to B(6, 3)

One leg of the right triangle extends from (4, 2) to (6, 2)

Second leg extends from  (6, 2) to (6, 3)

[tex]Slope, \, m =\dfrac{y_{2}-y_{1}}{x_{2}-x_{1}}[/tex]

[tex]\mathrm{Slope, \, of \ first \ triangle, \, m} =\dfrac{2-0}{4-0} = \dfrac{1}{2}[/tex]

[tex]x^{2} \mathrm{Slope, \, of \ second \ triangle, \, m} =\dfrac{3-2}{6-4} = \mathbf{\dfrac{1}{2}}[/tex]

Therefore;

The slope is [tex]\dfrac{1}{2}[/tex] throughout the line

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y = -2/3x is the answer

What is the equation of the line that passes through the point (6,-4)( and has a slope of -2/3?

y=-2/3x

Answer:

3 2/5

Step-by-step explanation:

17/5= 3 2/5

Answer:

First find the nearest number divisible by 5 to get a whole number returned

that number is 15

15/5 = 3 (no decimals)

so the ‘big’ (as I like to call it) number or the integer that isn’t part of the fraction would be 3.

now what is left?

subtract 15 from the numerator

17 - 15 = 2

replace 17 with 2 in the fraction to get 2/5

The result is [tex]3\frac{2}{5}[/tex]

to prove this is the same

multiply the ‘big number’ by the denominator

3*5 = 15

and add the numerator

15+2 = 17

now just insert the denominator below it, and you get 17/5

Answer:

18 is the greatest common factor between those

Answer:

There are 6 common factors of 18 and 36, that are 1, 2, 3, 6, 9, and 18. Therefore, the greatest common factor of 18 and 36 is 18.

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

-1

Step-by-step explanation:

-2/3*-3-3

2-3

= -1

Step-by-step explanation:

1 more time solve and answer is ready

Answer:

a. After the first bounce, the ball will be at 85% of 8 ft. After 2 bounces, it'll be at 85% of 85% of 8 feet. After 3 bounces, it'll be at (85% of) (85% of) (85% of 8 feet).  You can see where this is going. After n bounces the ball will be at

[tex]h(n) = (85\%)^n 6ft = (\frac{17}{20})^n(6ft\times 12\frac{in}{ft}) = (\frac{17}{20})^n\times72'[/tex]

b. After 8 bounces we can apply the previous formula with n = 8 to get

[tex]h(8)=(\frac{17}{20})^8\times 72' = 19.62'[/tex]

c. The solution to this point requires using exponential and logarithm equations; a more basic way would be trial and error using the previous [tex]h(n)[/tex]increasing the value of n until we find a good value. I recommend using a spreadsheet for that; the condition will lead to the following inequality:

[tex]1>(\frac{17}{20})^n\times 72[/tex] Let's first isolate the fraction by dividing by 72.

[tex](\frac{17}{20})^n<\frac1{72}[/tex]  Now, to get numbers we can plug in a calculator, let's take the natural logarithm of both sides:

[tex]ln ((\frac{17}{20})^n) < ln \frac 1{72} \rightarrow n\times ln (\frac{17}{20}) < -ln72[/tex]. Now the two quantities are known - or easy to get with any calculator, replacing them and solving for n we get:

[tex]-(0.16)n < - 4.27 \rightarrow n>26.31[/tex] Now, since n is an integer - you can't have a fraction of a bounce after all, you pick the integer right after that, or n>27.

The equation of the car rental company in the form y = kx is; y = 18.50x

The equation y = kx is such that;

In essence; to determine the constant of proportionality, k in this case;

Since the company charges, $55.50 for 3 days; we have;

By evaluation k = $55.50/3

A constant rate of change means the variation in the dependent variable as dependent on the independent variable is constant

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Answer:

y = 5/3x - 7

Step-by-step explanation:

5x + 3y = -21

5x - 3y = -21

-3y = -5x - 21

-y = -5/3x + 7

y = 5/3x - 7

Kayden Kohl

8th Grade Student

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

Y=5/3x -7