Mrs. Carter puts a variety of wrapped chocolate candies into a bag. There are 5 silver-wrapped candies, 1 purple-wrapped candy, 2 striped candies, and 4 gold-wrapped candies. If 15 students select one candy at a time out of the bag without looking, and replace the candy after each draw, how many students would be expected to select a gold-wrapped candy from the bag?
A. 4 Students
B. 5 Students
C. 15 Students
D. 60 Students

Answer:

33/Q?

Step-by-step explanation:

im confused on what the problem is

Answer:

[tex]\frac{ \frac{7}{3}}{\frac{1}{3}}[/tex]  is the slope

Step-by-step explanation:

rise over run

Answer:

7 : 3

Step-by-step explanation:

Divide both numbers by 6

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

42:18=42/18=7/3=7:3

I hope it help you

this is so easy

Answer:

-4/9

Step-by-step explanation:

We first calculate the first bracket.

[2/3-(-4/9)]

= (2/3+4/9) (we cancel out the negatives)

= (6/9+4/9) (common denominator)

= 10/9

Then we convert -2 1/2 into an improper fraction.

-2 1/2

= -5/2

Finally we calculate the division by swapping the numerator and denominator of -5/2.

10/9 / -5/2

= 10/9 * -2/5

= -20/45

= -4/9 (simplify the terms)

Answer:

Top right one is the answer

Step-by-step explanation:

B :)

The elevation of the lift is equivalent to 11293.1 ft.

The angle of elevation is an angle that is formed between the horizontal line and the line of sight.

Given is that a ski lift makes a 35° angle of elevation with the ground and takes passengers on a 6,550 foot ride up a mountain.

Assume the elevation to be [x] ft. We can find the elevation as -

sin (35°) = (6550/x)

x = {6550/sin(35°)}

x = (6550/0.58)

x = 11293.1 ft

Therefore, the elevation of the lift is equivalent to 11293.1 ft.

To solve more questions on Angle of elevation, visit the link below-

https://brainly.com/question/29008290

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Answer:

the slope is= 3/2

y= (3/2)x + (-4)

Answer: A. 4

Step-by-step explanation: The base number is 4 and the exponent is 5. Hope this helps ^-^.

Answer:

7. 4

8. 7

Step-by-step explanation:

7. [tex] \frac{1}{2} = \frac{x}{8} [/tex]

Cross multiply

[tex] 1*8 = x*2 [/tex]

[tex] 8 = 2x [/tex]

[tex] \frac{8}{2} = \frac{2x}{2} [/tex] (division property of equality)

[tex] 4 = x [/tex]

[tex] x = 4 [/tex]

8. [tex] \frac{3}{x - 3} = \frac{6}{8} [/tex]

Cross multiply

[tex] 3*8 = 6(x - 3) [/tex]

[tex] 24 = 6x - 18 [/tex]

[tex] 24 + 18 = 6x [/tex] (addition property of equality)

[tex] 42 = 6x [/tex]

Divide both sides by 6

[tex] 7 = x [/tex]

[tex] x = 7 [/tex]

Answer: 7x-y=10

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

D

Step-by-step explanation:

Took the test ;)

Answer:

The angle is approximately [tex]31^{o}[/tex].

Step-by-step explanation:

The description i the given question can be represented with the sides of a right angled triangle.

Applying the appropriate trigonometric function, we have;

Tan θ = [tex]\frac{opposite}{adjacent}[/tex]

In the question, opposite side = 60 feet, and adjacent side = 100 feet.

Tan θ = [tex]\frac{60}{100}[/tex]

         = 0.6

θ = [tex]Tan^{-1}[/tex] 0.6

  = [tex]30.964^{o}[/tex]

θ = [tex]31^{o}[/tex]

The angle of elevation from the end of the shadow to the top of the pole is [tex]31^{o}[/tex].

Step-by-step explanation:

The longest side in a triangle is opposite the largest angle, and the shortest side is opposite the smallest angle.

So the smallest angle is <P.

Hope it may help :)..

The answer is the picture. Hope this helped.

Answer:

The hotel charge for each room to maximize its daily revenue and the maximum daily revenue is explained below in details.

Step-by-step explanation:

So for every $1 hike in price, the number of rooms goes underneath by 1.

So the earnings can be displayed by R(x) = (300-x)(80+x)

From that, you require to subtract 22(300-x) since it takes $22 per occupied room.

AND there is a framed cost of $1000 per day.

So your profit function is P(x) = (300-x)(80+x) - 22(300-x) - 1000

Simplified, this is P(x) = -x2 +242x + 16400.

P'(x) = -2x + 242  Set it = to 0

x = 121 which displayed the number of unoccupied rooms.

P(121) = -14641 + 29282 + 16400 = $31041

You can verify by computing P(120) and P(122) which both even $31040.

Hope this helps.

Answer: Acute angle

Step-by-step explanation:

because it is at a 62 I think angle

Answer:

118 degrees

Step-by-step explanation:

180-62 = 118

Answer:18

Step-by-step explanation: 6x3

the formula for area: parallelogram

Answer:

300,000,000 per minute

Step-by-step explanation:

3*10⁸

10⁸ = 100,000,000

3*100,000,000 = 300,000,000

Answer:

116

Step-by-step explanation:

13x-1 = 2(6x+4)

13x-1 = 12x+8

x=9

Answer:

5

Step-by-step explanation:

coefficeint is the number before the variable

Answer:

3/7

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

85 gallons a day.

Step-by-step explanation:

that's if you mean 2,550 and how many gallons a day you fill a pool for example. but that's a guess for the question.

Answer:

-3/6

Step-by-step explanation:

integer rules

Answer:

A)

Step-by-step explanation:

V=1/3([tex]\pi[/tex]r²)h

3* V=1/3(πr²h)*3 to get rid of the 1/3 on that side

3V/(πr²)=(πr²)h/(πr²) to get rid of the πr² on the other side(they cancel out)

3V/(πr²)=h is the final answer so that matches A

Distribution table :

X : ___ 1 _____ 2 _____ 3 ______ 4

P(x) __0.50 __0.25 __ 0.15 ____ 0.10

Answer:

1.85 ; 1.014 ;` 0.55 ; 3.042

Step-by-step explanation:

Probability distribution :

X : ___ 1 _____ 2 _____ 3 ______ 4

P(x) __0.50 __0.25 __ 0.15 ____ 0.10

The mean: E(x) = Σ(X * p(x))

(1*0.5) + (2*0.25) + (3*0.15) + (4 *0.10)

= 1.85

Standard deviation = sqrt(Var(x))

Var(x) = Σ(x²*p(x)) - E(x)²

Var(x) = ((1^2*0.5) + (2^2*0.25) + (3^2*0.15) + (4^2 *0.10)) - 1.85^2

= 4.45 - 3.4225

= 1.0275

Standard deviation = sqrt(1.0275)

Standard deviation = 1.0136567

Standard deviation(X) = 1.014

3.)

Cost of spin = $5

Amount, y to be received = 3 times the number that appears

y = 3x - cost of playing

y = 3x - 5

E(y) = E(3x - 5)

E(y) = E(3x) - 5

Recall :E(x) = 1.85

E(y) = 3(1.85) - 5

E(y) = 0.55

Standard deviation :Sd(y) =

Sd(3x - 5)

3(1.014)

= 3.042

Answer:

yes because 1 divided by 2 is 0.5 which can be converted to 50%