Option B- Natural selection.
Option D - Gene flow.
1. The forces of evolution at work are:
This can be explained as there is no mutation taking place and only the flow of genes takes place and the alleles are continuous throughout the population irrespective of time.
2. Natural selection takes place as a result of a greater survival rate of individuals having blood groups most suitable for their environment.
3. There are four forces of evolution, they are mutation, gene flow, genetic drift, and natural selection.
A . Mutations are the changes taking place in a gene of the games of individuals so that those traits are passed over to the next offspring/generation produced.
B. Gene flow occurs when the Hardy-Weinberg equation is disturbed, that is when an individual move out or a new individual comes into the population. thus new genes are introduced into the population and the gene pool is disturbed.
C. Genetic drift is the small changes taking place in the gene of individuals in a small population.
D. Natural selection - the ultimate force of evolution that ensures the survival or destruction of a species. the fittest of a population survive while the weaker ones get eliminated.
Modern Native Americans have very high frequencies of Type O blood.
In some places in North and South America, the frequency is as high as 100%. Anthropologists believe that early Native Americans arrived in North America by crossing over the Bering Land Bridge around 15,000 years ago, from East Asia.
Modern East Asian populations, with whom modern Native Americans share ancestry, do not have high frequencies of Type O blood. Instead, they have some of the lowest frequencies of Type O blood in the world.
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Which type of bond forms disaccharides?
A. 1-4 Hydroxyl bond
B. 1-5 Galactosidic bond
C. Hydrogen bond
D. 1-4 Glycosidic bond
Answer: D
Explanation:
Disaccharides type of bond forms 1-4 Glycosidic bond
The parasympathetic nervous system A. dominates in quit, relaxed situations B. has neurons that display nicotinic receptors C. all of these D. has long preganglionic fibers that end on terminal ganglia, which lie in or near the effector organ E. releases a postganglionic neurotransmitter that binds with muscarinic receptors
c. All of these. The parasympathetic nervous system satisfies all the options.
Parasympathetic nervous system:The parasympathetic nervous system is a branch of the nervous system that largely regulates visceral organs like glands. One of the two antagonistic sets of nerves that make up the autonomic nervous system is the parasympathetic nervous system; the other set consists of the sympathetic nervous system. Contrary to the sympathetic system, which triggers the so-called fight-or-flight response, the parasympathetic system does not play a major role in the maintenance of life. The cranial nerves, particularly the vagus nerve, and the lumbar spinal nerves make up the nerve fibers of the parasympathetic nervous system. These nerves cause the pulse to slow down and the digestive secretions to increase when activated.
The parasympathetic nervous system dominates in quiet, relaxed situations and has long preganglionic fibers that end on terminal ganglia, which lie in or near the effector organ . It also releases a postganglionic neurotransmitter that binds with muscarinic receptors.
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The term ____________________ describes one-celled microscopic organisms, some of which cause diseases in humans.
An agent that causes disease is referred to as a pathogen, particularly a bacterium, fungus, or other microbe. The phrase “microorganism” broadly refers to all one-celled microscopic organisms, both harmful and beneficial.
What are the one-celled microscopic organisms?Single-celled, microscopic organisms called protozoa exist. In humans, protozoa can proliferate and spread from one person to another.
They have the potential to spread infectious parasite diseases such toxoplasmosis, giardia, and malaria.
There are several ways that parasitic infections can spread. For instance, contaminated food, water, waste, soil, and blood can spread helminths and protozoa.
Therefore, The term protozoa describe one-celled microscopic organisms, some of which cause diseases in humans.
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In a trophic cascade, the removal of a top predator would decrease the
predator and prey's food source
predator and its food source
predator and its predator's food source
prey and its food source
The presence of a top predator also helps to maintain balance in an ecosystem by influencing the behaviour and movements of its prey through the fear of being caught.
What is Trophic Cascade ?trophic cascade, an ecological phenomenon triggered by the addition or removal of top predators and involving reciprocal changes in the relative populations of predator and prey through a food chain
When a top predator is removed from an ecosystem, a series knock-on effects are felt throughout all the levels in a food web, as each level is regulated by the one above it.The results of these trophic cascades can lead to an ecosystem being completely transformed.Learn more about Trophic Cascade here:
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Would you rather work as a veterinarian with birds or reptiles? Why? And which reptile or bird is your favorite? **no wrong or right answer**
**Except if you put birds because they are delicious XD**
I would rather work as a veterinarian with birds due to the large number of species it contains.
Who is a Veterinarian?This is referred to a healthcare professional who specializes in the care and treatment of non-human animals .
Birds have 18 thousand species which is more than that of reptiles. This brings a lot of exposure and knowledge to the individual. This is the reason why working on birds is preferable.
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Why would different restriction enzymes cut the same DNA molecule into different numbers of fragments
Because different restriction sites are used by different restriction enzymes to cleave DNA.
What is restriction sites?A restriction site is a segment of DNA with a base pair count between 6 and 8 that binds to a certain restriction enzyme. There are numerous restriction enzymes that have been identified from bacteria. By cleaving the viral DNA, they naturally render invasive viruses inactive.Restriction enzymes are beneficial in a variety of contexts. Each organism has a unique DNA sequence, so each one will have a unique arrangement of restriction sites.Learn more about DNA here:
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A blood collection tube containing a specific amount of additive is only half filled with blood instead of being completely filled. Will this collection affect laboratory test results
NO, it will not affect laboratory test results, The majority of blood collection tubes contain an additive that either speeds up blood clotting (clot activator) or inhibits blood clotting (anticoagulant).
Components from blood collection tubes, such as stoppers, lubricants, surfactants, and separator gels, can leach into specimens and/or adsorb analytes from a specimen; special tube additives may also alter analyte stability.
What is anticoagulant?Anticoagulants, also referred to as blood thinners, are chemicals that stop or slow down blood coagulation, lengthening the clotting time.
Why are additive tubes used in pathology labs?Additive tubes are frequently used in pathology labs for a range of experiments, including tests for antibodies, drugs, and serology. Blood's clotting factors (thrombin, etc.) are measured using the light blue tube, which is frequently used in hematological studies.
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NO, it won't have an impact on the outcomes of laboratory tests. The majority of blood collection tubes contain an additive that either promotes (clot activator) or inhibits blood clotting (anticoagulant).
Stoppers, lubricants, surfactants, and separator gels—components of blood collection tubes—may leach into specimens and/or adsorb analytes from a specimen; specialized tube additives can also change the stability of analytes.
What are anticoagulants?
Chemicals that block or slow down blood coagulation, extending the clotting time, are known as anticoagulants, commonly referred to as blood thinners.
Additive tubes are commonly used in pathology labs for a variety of investigations, including as tests for antibodies, medications, and serology. The light blue tube is used commonly in hematological examinations for the measurement of blood's clotting components (thrombin, etc.).
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The disease that causes the development of numerous small cavities in the brain of infected individuals due to death of neurons, producing a spongy appearance, is called _______.
The disease that causes the development of numerous small cavities in the brain of infected individuals due to death of neurons, producing a spongy appearance, is called transmissible spongiform encephalopathy.
What is transmissible spongiform encephalopathy?The family of uncommon progressive neurodegenerative brain diseases known as transmissible spongiform encephalopathies (TSEs) or prion diseases affects both humans and animals. They usually result in death and have lengthy incubation periods. Once symptoms appear, they also proceed quickly.
TSEs are believed to be caused by prions, abnormally folded proteins, that build up in the brain causing brain damage and the characteristic symptoms associated with the disease. Contaminated medical equipment and neural tissue can spread prions infections. Instances of this include transmission through tainted dura mater grafts or corneal transplants.
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What is the purpose of a reference point?
Answer:
to show where it begin and where it ended
Explanation:
Answer:
A reference point is a starting point used to describe the position of an object.Explanation:
A reference point is a place or object used for comparison to determine if something is in motion. An object is in motion if it changes position relative to a reference point. Objects that are fixed relative to Earth – such as a building, a tree, or a sign - make good reference points.#Let's Study
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What is the basis of modern classification? class 11 biology
The science of classifying living things is called taxonomy. Linnaeus introduced the classification system that forms the basis of modern classification. Taxa in the Linnaean system include the kingdom phylum class order family genus and species. Linnaeus also developed binomial nomenclature for naming species
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You carry out a self-cross of the offspring produced from a cross between homozygous pea plants with yellow and green seeds. You observe a 3:1 phenotypic ratio in the next generation. What is the underlying genotypic ratio
If the phenotypic ration is 3:1 then the underlying genotypic ratio will be 1:2:1.
The genotype of an individual is their own DNA pattern. More specifically, the two alleles a person acquired for a particular gene are referred to by this phrase. The observable character of this genotype is called a phenotype.The genotype of an organism is the particular arrangement of alleles for a particular gene. As an illustration, the genotypes for the flower-color gene in the pea plants were red-red, red-white, and white-white. The physical representation of an organism's allelic combination is called a phenotype.for example let us take the example of the height of pea plant. the T represent tall plant (dominant) while t represents short/dwarf plant (recessive). In this monohybrid cross the phenotypic ratio observed is 3:1 i.e., three tall plants and one dwarf plant.However the genotypes of the four offspring will be TT, Tt, Tt, tt.Hence the genotypic ratio comes out to be 1:2:1.The same is shown in the Punnett square below
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Name two factors other than temperature which affect the rate of an enzyme controlled reaction
Answer:
enzyme activity be affected by a variety of factors such as temperature,pH, concentration
Watson and crick first built a triple helix model of DNA. In this model, the nitrogenous pieces for on the outside of the Daynam molecule, in the phosphate groups were on the inside.
at that time, why did it seem reasonable for the bases to be on the outside of the DNA molecule?
It is expected that the bases are located on the outside of the DNA molecule because it allows access in an easier mode for the cell.
What is DNA?Deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA) is a double helix composed of two long strands of nucleotide bases.
In DNA, nucleotide bases are expected to interact with the environment in order to make easier the process of transcription and replication.
In conclusion, bases are located on the outside of the DNA molecule to access in an easier mode for the cell.
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The ______ in the cell sap are responsible for the red and blue colors of many fruits and vegetables.
Anthocyanins
The anthocyanins in the cell sap are responsible for the red and blue colors of many fruits and vegetables.
What are anthocyanins?Anthocyanins are a family of intensely colored red, purple, and blue pigments that are present in plants. They belong to the larger class of plant-based compounds known as flavonoids. All plant parts, including fruits, seeds, shoots, flowers, and leaves, are rich in flavonoids. By luring pollinators, they promote plant reproduction and shield plants from environmental stresses including UV (ultraviolet) light, drought, and cold.
Six major forms of anthocyanins are identified among the approximately 6,000 flavonoids:
CyanidinDelphinidinMalvidinPelargonidinPeonidinPetunidinAnthocyanins are typically abundant in foods like red, purple, blue, and black fruits, vegetables, and grains. The largest concentrations are found in berries, especially black elderberries and aronia berries (chokeberries). Strawberries, raspberries, blackberries, and blueberries are other excellent sources.
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When there is a lack of recycled bile salts, the ____________ uses ____________ from the bloodstream to make new ____________ .
When there is a lack of recycled bile salts, the liver uses cholesterol from the bloodstream to make new bile salts.
The liver assumes a key part in controlling cholesterol levels in the body, by making cholesterol to be conveyed to cells that need it around the body, and furthermore by eliminating cholesterol by changing it over completely to bile salts so the body can dispose of it in bile.
Bile salts are made of bile acids that are formed with glycine or taurine. They are delivered in the liver, straightforwardly from cholesterol. Bile salts are significant in solubilizing dietary fats in the watery environment of the small intestine system.
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Where do deep ocean
currents begin?
A. In the top 10% of water starting
at the surface.
B. In the 100 meters just above
the ocean floor.
C. Below 400 meters from the
surface.
D. Below 1000 meters from the
surface.
Deep ocean currents begin in the 100 meters just above the ocean floor and is denoted as option B.
What is Ocean current?
This is depicted by the sea water being continuously moved from one place to another through wind etc.
Deep ocean current exist thousands of meters below the surface in areas close to the ocean floor which therefore makes it the most appropriate choice.
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Approximately how many standard drinks can the human body metabolize in one hour?.
Answer:
One drink
Explanation:
Alcohol's Path Through the Body
The liver metabolizes alcohol at a very constant rate, approximately one drink per hour.
Answer:
1 standard drink an
Explanation:
Protein ________ is determined by the protein digestibility corrected amino acid score (PDCAAS), which is based on the protein's digestibility and its amino acid profile.
Protein quality is determined by the protein digestibility corrected amino acid score (PDCAAS), which is based on the protein's digestibility and its amino acid profile.
Protein digestibility corrected amino acid score (PDCAAS)The protein digestibility-corrected amino acid score (PDCAAS) measures a protein's quality by taking into account both its amino acid composition and how well it can be assimilated by humans.By comparing the individual food protein's amino acid profile to a reference amino acid profile using the PDCAAS method, the protein quality rankings are calculated, with 1.0 being the highest possible score. This rating indicates that the protein provides 100 percent or more of the essential amino acids per unit of protein after digestion.The protein efficiency ratio (PER) and biological value (BV) techniques for determining protein quality are distinct from the PDCAAS value.To learn more about the Protein digestibility corrected amino acid score (PDCAAS) refer to:
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Many of the muscles in the anterior compartment of the forearm work to _______ the wrist, and they have their origin on the _______ epicondyle of the humerus.
Answer:
1. flex, 2. forearm
Explanation:
muscle contractions
The condition in which the placenta is implanted in the lower uterine segment near or over the internal cervical os is _________________________.
The condition in which the placenta is implanted in the lower uterine segment near or over the internal cervical is Placenta previa.
What is placenta previa?
Placenta previa is a condition in which the placenta covers all or part of the opening to the cervical aperture, which sits at the top of the vagina, and lies very low in the uterus. One in 200 pregnancies results in placenta previa.
What is called when the placenta is attached to the uterus?The syndrome known as placenta increta refers to the placenta's abnormally strong attachment to the uterus and subsequent embedding in the muscle wall of the organ. A disorder known as placenta percreta.
When placenta percreta occurs?
placenta percreta occurs when the placenta connects to the uterus and spreads across it, perhaps affecting surrounding organs (such as the bladder).
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Select the correct location on the image.
Which area is cold all year and experiences low precipitation?
Answer:
the polar tundra
Explanation:
it is always cold at the poles
Hello!
The area which is cold all year and experiences low precipitation would be the uppermost box. Here, in this region, as it is a polar region, throughout the year, sunlight received here will be minimal and precipitation will be less in a dry area.
Swash is the down beach movement of water after a wave breaks on the
beach
True
Or
False
Answer:
True
Explanation:
When the broken wave reaches the base of the wet beach it collapses and runs up the beach face as swash or uprush in the swash zone
Vascular plants exhibit alternation of generation. What is alternation of generation?
© A.
The plant exhibits reduced sporophyte and dominant gametophyte alternately.
B.
Plant cells undergo mitosis and meiosis alternately.
C.
The plant exists as a diploid organism, a and at other times as haploid.
Answer:
C. The plant exists as a diploid organism, a and at other times as haploid.
Explanation:
Plant generations alternate. They go back and forth between sporophyte and gametophyte.
A gametophyte is a generation. Haploid gametophytes exist. They therefore possess a single pair of chromosomes. Spora are the source of gametophytes. Gametophytes develop into large, tall organisms before producing gametes. Thus, the name. A plant embryo is created when these gametes—which are the sperm and eggs of a plant—combine. This embryo occasionally has a covering of seed surrounding it for protection. In certain cases, the seed is even surrounded by fruit.
the sporophyte develops from the embryo. Sporophytes, like you and I, are diploid. They therefore have two sets of chromosomes that are identical ("di"=2). Sporophytes develop into large, tall organisms before producing spores. Thus, the name. Since meiosis is how these spores are produced, they only contain one set of chromosomes. The spores disperse into the environment and develop into gametophytes.
So, to summarize, gametophyte > gametes > embryo > sporophyte > sporophyte > sopre > gametophyte > gametes > and so on. Until a chance genetic mutation results in a significant alteration.
___________________________________________________
A generation that alternates between haploid and diploid (or tetraploid/diploid, hexaploidy/triploid, etc.) is said to be alternating.
On the surface, this alternating of generations between most land plants resembles animal gametes, but in plants, the cells formed during meiosis are not the gametes themselves; instead, the gametes are later created by those cells during mitosis. Consequently, in place of:
2n -> Meiosis -> n (gamete) -> fusion -> 2n
we have
2n -> meiosis -> n (gametophyte e.g. pollen) -> mitosis -> n (gamete e.g. sperm) -> fusion -> 2n
The haploid generation is morphologically identical to the diploid generation in many lower plants. The dominant theory holds that plants' capacity to go through mitosis after meiosis but before fusion spontaneously developed. The less popular theory contends that plants have alternated generations throughout time and that as land plants got more specialized over time, natural selection drove the gametophyte to drastically decrease over time. These are referred to as the homologous and antithetic hypotheses, respectively.
The primary evolutionary benefit of diploid organisms is their ability to conceal harmful genes using two gene copies. The high level of specialization offered for each generation, one for growth and one for reproduction, is another benefit.
help please doesn’t have to be perfect
Answer:
Using fur color and eye colour as a trait for mice. Will the genes of the mice be independent or linked?
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Rising, moderate levels of estrogen inhibit tonic LH secretion, whereas high levels of estrogen stimulate the LH surge. True False
Rising, moderate levels of estrogen inhibit tonic LH secretion, whereas high levels of estrogen stimulate the LH surge. is true.
Luteinizing hormone (LH) activates bodily functions that are crucial for sexual development, reproduction, and health. LH is secreted by a little organ in your brain called the pituitary gland. Your ovaries or testes undergo alterations as a result of LH, enabling your reproductive system to operate normally.However, the feedback function of estradiol shifts to a positive one during prolonged exposure to elevated levels in the late follicular phase of the reproductive cycle, causing a rise in GnRH release from the brain and signaling the pituitary LH surge that causes ovulation.As circulating estrogen levels rise, the hypothalamic-pituitary axis is stimulated, causing a surge in the release of luteinizing hormone (LH). The positive estrogen feedback that initiates ovulation is this.learn more about Luteinizing hormone (LH) here: https://brainly.com/question/10050537
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A teacher divides her class into four groups. She assigns
each group the task of measuring the volume of a liquid in
a container three times. The teacher already knows that
the volume is 18 mL.
Based on the results from each group, which group makes the most precise
measurements of the liquid's volume?
A. Group A: 17.9 mL, 19.1 ml, 21.0 mL
B. Group B: 18.5 mL, 18.0 mL, 17.8 mL
OC. Group C: 19.1 mL, 19.0 mL, 17.0 mL
D. Group D: 20.0 mL, 20.1 mL, 19.9 mL
Answer:
Group D
Explanation:
Precision is how close the measurements are to each other
The administration of antibodies isolated from one individual or species to another to protect the recipient from a toxin or disease is referred to as __________ immunity.
The administration of antibodies isolated from one individual or species to another to protect the recipient from a toxin or disease is referred to as passive immunity.
Immunity to a disease is achieved due to the presence of antibodies to the disease in the human system. Antibodies are proteins produced by the body to neutralize or destroy organisms that carry toxins and diseases. Antibodies are disease-specific.
passive is the type of immunity that occurs when a person is given an antibody rather than making it by their immune system. For example, passive immunity occurs when the baby receives the mother's antibodies through the placenta or breast milk.
There are two types of immunity: active immunity and passive immunity. Active immunity occurs when our own immune system is responsible for protecting us from pathogens. Passive immunity occurs when we are protected from pathogens by the immunity of others.
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Certain substances, like caffeine and citrus juices, are classified as diuretics. This means that they cause diuresis in the kidneys. What effect will diuretics have on the urinary system
Diuretics increase the volume of urine excreted.
What are diuretics and diuresis?Diuretics:Diuretics, often known as water pills, aid in the removal of salt (sodium) and water from the body. The majority of these drugs encourage your kidneys to excrete more sodium in your urine. By assisting in the removal of water from your circulation, salt aids to reduce the volume of fluid moving through your veins and arteries. Blood pressure falls as a result.
Diuresis:When the kidneys filter too much body fluid, it is called diuresis. As a result, you produce more urine and need to use the restroom more frequently.
The normal adult will urinate four to six times each day, producing between three cups and three quarts of urine on average. Even though their fluid consumption may not have altered, people with diuresis urinate more frequently than that.
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Prolactin has a permissive effect on oxytocin in breast tissue. If prolactin levels were high, but oxytocin receptors had been blocked by a drug, what would be the result
Answer:
If prolactin levels are high, but oxytocin receptors are blocked by a drug, the result would be that milk production would not be stimulated.
Explanation:
write an essay how water moves from the soil to leaves of a mesophyte
Water moves from the soil to the leaves of mesophytes by osmosis and xylem conduction.
What are mesophytes?Mesophytes are plants that are adapted to moderate water environments only. In other words, they cannot survive extremely or extremely wet environments.
Water moves from the soil to the leaves of mesophytes as follows:
1. Water moves into the root hair by osmosis
2. Water is conducted upward from the root hairs by special cells known as xylems.
3. Conducted water reaches various plant parts, including leaves.
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