mobile marketing has a unique ability to empower users by connecting with them individually and continuously. this socially networked world will lead to connected users having more multiple choice freedom to express individual tastes and changing needs. options to avoid advertising or other promotions. direct interactions with sellers. presence of mind in situations of conflict or dissatisfaction. opportunities for cannibalization.

Answers

Answer 1

This socially networked world will lead to connected users having more direct interactions with sellers.

Mobile marketing is a multi-channel on-line promoting technique centered at reaching a selected audience on their smartphones, feature phones, tablets, or the other connected devices through websites, e-mail, SMS and MMS, social media, or mobile applications.

Direct interaction means the agents and not the platform have management over the key- terms related to the interaction. Key-terms area unit, for example, pricing, terms and conditions, bundling, marketing, the choice within which thanks to deliver merchandise, or the extent and quality of the delivered service.

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Related Questions

A plaintiff is suing members of the police department in federal court after receiving a near-fatal beating in jail, alleging a violation of his federal civil rights.
Which of the following items of evidence will the court be likely to admit despite timely objections by the opposing attorney?
A. Testimony by a witness for the plaintiff, who was locked up in an adjoining cell, that the plaintiff was in fact beaten by the defendant police officers, objected to on grounds that calling this witness constitutes an unfair surprise.
B. Testimony by an expert witness who will affirm the testimony of a previous expert that the injuries suffered by the plaintiff were inconsistent with injuries likely from the alleged police beating, objected to on grounds that it will unnecessarily present cumulative evidence.
Incorrect
C. Introduction of the bloodstained shirt that the plaintiff wore on the night of the beating, objected to on grounds that it will create a danger of unfair prejudice.
D. Testimony by a police officer that, because the plaintiff had drug-related track marks on his arms and exhibited symptoms of hepatitis, the officers feared that he might have hepatitis, and consequently would not have beaten him for fear of being infected, objected to on grounds that it may confuse the issues or mislead the jury.

Answers

A. The plaintiff's witness, who was imprisoned in a cell next to hers, testified that the defendant police officers beat the plaintiff, which was objected to on the grounds that bringing this witness would be unfairly surprising.

B. Expert witness testimony that will support testimony from an earlier expert that the plaintiff's injuries were not consistent with those caused by the claimed police beating is objected to on the grounds that it will unnecessarily offer cumulative evidence.

C. The introduction of the plaintiff's blood-stained shirt from the night of the beating was objected to on the grounds that it might lead to unjust prejudice.

D. A police officer's testimony that the officers would not have beat the plaintiff because they were concerned about contracting hepatitis because of the plaintiff's drug-related track marks on his arms and other hepatitis-related symptoms was objected to on the grounds that it might cloud the issues or mislead the jury.

Evidence is often admissible in a federal court provided it is pertinent and its probative value is not significantly exceeded by the risk of unfair bias, confusion of the issues, or jury misdirection. Based on this criteria, it is likely that the court will accept the plaintiff's witness' evidence, the police officer's testimony, and the blood-stained shirt.

Because it could be interpreted as unnecessarily presenting cumulative evidence, the expert witness' testimony that supports the testimony of an earlier expert might not be allowed to be accepted. The risk of clouding the issues or deceiving the jury may outweigh the testimony's probative value.

Given that the introduction of the blood-stained clothing is pertinent to the discussion of the plaintiff's injuries and the claimed police beating, it is likely to be allowed. The shirt's probative value surpasses any potential bias, so the challenge based on unfair prejudice may not succeed.

The police officer's testimony on the plaintiff's hepatitis symptoms and drug-related track marks may also be allowed since it is pertinent to the question of whether the officers had a reason for beating the plaintiff. Because the probative value of this testimony surpasses any potential prejudice, the objection that it may have confused the issues or misled the jury may not succeed.

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based on meega airlines problem, report the decision taken using opportunity loss payoff strategy by indicating the service:

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A Nash equilibrium occurs when both participants in a game would like to maximise its winnings.

Is payoff a wise choice?

Many people can use Payoff because of the relatively lax credit rating requirements and the absence of a strict income criterion, but because Payoff loans are only available for debt consolidation, they might not be the ideal choice for borrowers who need a bank loan for other reasons.

What does the term "payoff" in business mean?

The profit or loss from of the sale of an object or service is referred to as the net payout after the selling expenses, any additional costs related to the asset or incurred over its life, and any related accounting losses are all deducted. The remaining sum is

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page incorporated manufactures automotive parts that sell for $80 each. the manager reported 280 defective parts in inventory, which cost $50 to reproduce. the manager can sell the defective parts for $20 each, or process the parts further for $30 each, and then sell them for the standard sales price. which of the following should the managerial accountant recommend for action?

Answers

For a net improvement in operating income of $8,400, a Managerial accountant is recommended to repair the defective items and then sell them at a standard price, rather than sell them for $20.

For understanding why a Managerial accountant should choose to repair defective items. Refer to the detailed explanation given below:

Situation 1.

Cost of reproduction of 280 defective parts = 280*50 =$14000

If he sell the defective parts for 20$ each he would get= 280*20= $5600

Situation 2.

If he chooses to repair the defective items, at 30$ it would cost him= 280*30= $8400

If he sells those repaired parts at a standard price, he would get= 280*80=22400

Thus his total revenue would be = 22400-8400= $14000

Now it is clear that if the managerial accountant chooses the second option of Repairing the defective Parts and then reselling them at the standard price, it would be profitable

As An increase of (14000-5600) $8400 would be reflected in the operating income of Page incorporated.

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which of the following bank account types is least likely to pay interest? a. savings account b. checking account c. money market account d. certificate of deposit

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The correct answer is  d. certificate of deposit bank account types is least likely to pay interest.

The least-profitable savings accounts are the conventional ones. Although money market accounts normally provide lower interest rates than other accounts, they do earn better interest rates than regular savings accounts. The bank doesn't give interest on current accounts. The primary usage of a current account is for commercial purposes. There are no limitations on the quantity or frequency of withdrawals from a current account. Typically, the money you deposit into a savings account earns no interest. Compound interest may work for you and help your money grow exponentially more quickly than it would if you only deposited a tiny amount of money into a savings account.

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Generally speaking, as a firm progresses through its industry life cycle, you would expect the present value of its growth opportunities (PVGO) to as a percentage of its stock price per share. stay the same decrease O No typical pattern can be expected. o increase

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Generally speaking, as a firm progresses through its industry life cycle, you would expect the present value of its growth opportunities (PVGO) to as a percentage of its stock price per share decrease.

The present value of growth opportunities (PVGO) is a valuation metric used for growth equities in corporate finance. It stands for the portion of the company's stock value that reflects (anticipated) earnings growth.

A lower proportion of PVGO typically appears in the share price of more established businesses that are in the lead in their industry cycle. This is due to investors' reduced expectations of its growth prospects compared to those of newly emerging growing enterprises.

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Savings Account
a deposit in a commercial bank or thrift institution on which interest payments are received

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The phrase "near money" refers to non-monetary assets that are highly liquid and can be quickly converted into cash. It is also known as cash equivalents or quasi-money. As an illustration of near money: banks' holdings of savings accounts.

A thrift savings bank is what?

A thrift bank, also just referred to as a thrift, is a particular kind of financial organization that focuses on providing people with savings accounts and originating home mortgages. Savings and Loan Associations are another name for thrift banks (S&Ls).

What is a good illustration of a thrift institution?

Banks that offer both loans and savings

Because they initially exclusively offered savings accounts or time deposits, these organizations are known as "thrifts."

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glode and green theorize that the findings of kaplan and schoar may be due to insufficient disclosure by private equity firms. (T/F)

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It is true that the Glode and green theorize that findings of Kaplan and Schoer may be due to insufficient disclosure by the private equity firms.

What is private equity?

The phrase "private equity" (PE) refers to investment funds, typically limited partnerships (LP), that purchase and restructure financially precarious businesses that provide goods and offer services. A private equity fund is a class of assets as well as a type of asset ownership that serves as a means of financial management for active private businesses that are not listed on a stock market. A target company receives private equity financing from a venture capital fund, an investment management firm, or an angel investor. Private equity funds are a sort of private money used to finance long-term investment strategies in less liquid corporate enterprises.

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which of the following describes a disadvantage associated with a corporation? a. double taxation b. cost of formation c. government regulations d. complexity of formation e. all of the above

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Burdens of an organization incorporate it being tedious and likely to twofold tax collection, as well as having inflexible conventions and conventions to follow.

The essential burden of the corporate structure is the twofold tax collection to investors of disseminated income and profits. A few benefits incorporate restricted risk, simplicity of move capacity, capacity to raise capital, and limitless life.

Tax assessment. One of the most notable burdens of a C organization (C corp) structure is the way the substance is burdened. The pay of the organization is burdened when it's acquired. Then it is burdened again when it's appropriated to investors as profits.

One of the most noticeable drawbacks of joining is that organization benefits are in many cases twofold burdened. Organizations are burdened first on their net available pay.

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Officers knock on a door of an apartment being rented by a male suspect. A female opens the door and the officers ask her if the suspect is home. She says, "Not right now," but the officers don't believe her and want permission to enter and look for themselves. They have no warrant or other justification. They should first

Answers

The answer to the question of whether the police can search your home without a warrant is "Yes". The police can enter your private residence or office without a warrant, but only under certain circumstances.

What is a Search Warrant?

A search warrant is a court order issued by a magistrate, judge or court authorizing law enforcement officers to search a person, place or vehicle for evidence of a crime and to seize any illegal items or evidence of a crime, if they find something. In order to obtain a search warrant, the police must convince the judge that there is evidence of a crime there and if the judge is convinced, he will issue the warrant and the document should be special, because it should be clearly stated where it is being done. The exact search should be done, including the specific date and time. In India, Article 19 (Right to Liberty) and Article 20 (3) (Protection against self-incrimination) of the Constitution of India provide protection to the accused from testifying against them which is meant to protect citizens from inappropriate research.

The law usually makes an exception to the  search as section 165 of the code is established as an exception to this general law of investigation because it is recognized that in some special cases of urgency it is necessary to allow the police officer to conduct and research without warrant.

The answer to the question of whether the police can search your home without a warrant is "Yes". The police can enter your private residence or office without a warrant, but only under certain circumstances.

The reasons why a police officer does not need a search warrant to conduct a search are described in section 165, and the reasons are as follows:

1) Whenever the officer in charge of a police station or police station is conducting an investigation, he has reasonable grounds to believe that anything relevant to the purpose of conducting an investigation into any crime given permission to conduct research, he can be found anywhere and this can happen. If the object cannot be found in his opinion without delay without search, such officer may search for such object in any place within the limits of such station.

2)  Proceeding under sub section (1), shall if practicable, Police officer will conduct the search in person.

3) If police officer is not able to conduct the search in person and also there is no other  competent person  to make the search at that time, he may, after recording in writing his reasons for so doing, require any officer subordinate to make the search and order him to search for such thing in such place.

4) If a police officer remained outside the house while the search was being made inside by some subordinate officer, the search was not held to be illegal.

5) Copies of any record that is made under sub section (1) of this section shall be sent to the nearest magistrate  who is empowered to take cognizance of the offence.

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a home is sold at public auction (foreclosure sale). the proceeds of this sale will first be used to pay: real estate taxes mortgage liens second mortgage liens sheriff's cost of sale

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As per the public auction, the proceeds of this sale will first be used to pay is sheriff's cost of sale

What is meant by public auction?

In general terms, public auction means either a tangible event at a public location or an electronic event which is advertised and made available to the public via the Internet.

Here we have a home is sold at public auction (foreclosure sale). and we need to find the proceeds of this sale will first be used to pay

Here we know that the the public auction was take place while the real property taxes would be the first lien to be paid, the sheriff's cost of sale is the first item to be paid from foreclosure proceeds.

And we have to beware of the question that asks, "which is the first lien to be paid?" and in that instance, the real property taxes would be the first lien.

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nrg inc. currently has $331 million of debt outstanding. it's cost of debt is 5.5% and its marginal corporate tax rate is 25%. estimate the tax shield for nrg at the end of the year (don't calculate the present value). express your answer in $-millions and round to two decimals (do not include the $-sign in your answer).

Answers

Tax shield= (interest payment* tax rate)

= (499*4.6%)*25%

= 5.7385 Million

The tax shield will be 5.7385 Million.

A tax is a obligatory economic fee or a few other kind of levy imposed on a taxpayer (an man or woman or prison entity) through a governmental enterprise so that you can fund government spending and numerous public costs (local, local, or national),[2] and tax compliance refers to policy moves and individual behaviour aimed at making sure that taxpayers are paying the proper quantity of tax at the proper time and securing the precise tax allowances and tax reliefs. the primary acknowledged taxation took place in historical Egypt round 3000–2800 BC.

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regarding executive compensation and governance, group of answer choices it is relatively easy to connect company outcomes with managerial decisions, so executive level compensation is results-based. the goal of executive compensation is to align executive and owner goals. salary is the primary compensation mechanism used for executives. incentive systems guarantee managers make the right decisions.

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Regarding executive compensation and governance is b) the goal of executive compensation is to align executive and owner goals.

Governance is defined as the choices and moves of the individuals who run a faculty, state, city, or enterprise. An instance of governance is the mayor's selection to increase the police force in response to burglaries. YourDictionary. The precise system with the aid of which a political machine is ruled.

Governance helps you to usually act within the fine hobbies of the business. more especially, it can improve the overall performance of your enterprise, help it emerge as more solid and productive, and unencumber new possibilities. it is able to reduce risks and allow faster and more secure increases. it can additionally enhance popularity and foster consideration.

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Astrid has a $150,000 single-family rental house that was put into service on January 1, 2021. The land value of the lot is $20,000 and at the time of purchase she made $5,000 in capital improvements. Under the General Depreciation System (GDS), Astrid’s annual depreciation expense is what amount?
A. $2,679
B. $4,909
C. $5,112
D. $6,238

Answers

If Astrid has a $150,000 single-family rental house that was put into service on January 1, 2021. annual depreciation expense amount is B. $4,909.

How to find the Annual depreciation expense?

First step is to find the building value

Building value =Purchase price -Land value

Building value = $150,000 - $20,000

Building value = $130,000

Second step is to find the Annual depreciation expense

Annual depreciation expense = $130,000 + $5,000 / 27.5 years

Annual depreciation expense = $135,000 / 27.5 years

Annual depreciation expense = $4,909

Therefore the correct option is B.

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(i) estimate how many years it would take for the hybrid owner to recoup the extra cost of purchasing the vehicle based on savings in gas consumption.

Answers

It would take approximately 7 years for the hybrid owner to recoup the extra cost of purchasing the vehicle based on savings in gas consumption.

Members of the owner families who are also proficient in one or more professions are known as hybrid owner-managers. The system of a hybrid car uses a gasoline engine and at least one electric motor to propel the vehicle, and it uses regenerative braking to recover energy. Sometimes the gas engine and sometimes the electric motor operate in tandem to complete the task.

The fact that hybrid cars are not only environmentally friendly but also useful is one of the more significant factors in why people choose to buy them. EVs are very environmentally friendly. But their driving range is constrained. Hybrids, on the other hand, are eco-friendly automobiles with a great driving range.

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EcoMart establishes a $1,950 petty cash fund on May 2. On May 30, the fund shows $812 in cash along with receipts for the following expenditures: transportation-in, $156; postage expenses. $567, and miscellaneous expenses, $420. The petty cashier could not account for a $5 overage in the fund. The company uses the perpetual system in accounting for merchandise inventory Prepare the (1) May 2 entry to establish the fund. (2) May 30 entry to reimburse the fund (Hint Credit Cash Over and Short for $5 and credit Cash for $1,138), and (3) June 1 entry to increase the fund to $2,280. Answer is not complete. General Journal No Date Debit Credit 1 May 02 Petty cash Cash 1,950 1,950 2 May 30 812 156 % 567 Transportation in Postage expense Miscellaneous expenses Transportation-in Cash over and short Cash OOO 4203 3 June 01 Petty cash Cash 2.280 2.280 The following information is available to reconcile Branch Company's book balance of cash with its bank statement cash balance as of July 31 a. On July 31, the company's Cash account has a $24.970 debit balance, but its July bank statement shows a $27702 cash balance. b. Check Number 3031 for $1,660, Check Number 3065 for $606, and Check Number 3069 for $2,428 are outstanding checks as of July 31. c. Check Number 3056 for July rent expense was correctly written and drawn for $1,250 but was erroneously entered in the accounting records as $1,240. d. The July bank statement shows the bank collected $10,000 cash on a note for Branch Branch had not recorded this event before receiving the statement e. The bank statement shows an $805 NSF check. The check had been received from a customer, Evan Shaw. Branch has not yet recorded this check as NSF. f. The July statement shows a $15 bank service charge. It has not yet been recorded in miscellaneous expenses because no previous notification had been received. g. Branch's July 31 daily cash receipts of $11,132 were placed in the bank's night depository on that date but do not appear on the July 31 bank statement. Required: 1. Prepare the bank reconciliation for this company as of July 31. BRANCH COMPANY Bank Reconciliation July 31 Book balance Add: Bank statement balance Add: Deposit of July 31 0 0 0 0 Deduct: Deduct: 0 0 Adjusted book balance 0 0 Adjusted bank balance $ $ Answer is not complete. No Transaction General Journal Debit Credit 1 a No journal entry required > 2 b. No Journal entry required 3 c Rent expense 10 Cash 10 4 d. Cash Collection expenso Notos receivable ® 5 0 Accounts receivable E. Shaw Cash 606 olo 606 6 Miscellaneous expenses Cash 103 10 7 9 No journal entry required

Answers

Identification and comparison of each transaction with the bank statement is done using a bank reconciliation statement (BRS).

The purpose of a bank reconciliation statement is to compare the bank transactions listed in the books of accounts with the bank statement. The bank reconciliation statement ensures the accuracy of bank balances by assisting in the verification of the accuracy of the entries made in the books of accounts.

Reconciliation tasks are completed daily, weekly, fortnightly, etc. depending on the quantity and value of bank transactions. To reduce the risk of a payment or check bounce, reconciliation activities are carried out daily if the volume or value of transactions is higher.

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suppose a salesperson tells you that one of their goals is to increase sales by 5%. which of the following is probably your best response if the salesperson asked you for feedback related to the goal?

Answers

That sound like an ineffective goal because it does not include a time frame.

An errors (from the Latin blunders, that means "wandering")[1] is an movement which is incorrect or wrong.[2] In some usages, an blunders is synonymous with a mistake. The etymology derives from the Latin time period 'errare', that means 'to stray'. In facts, "blunders" refers to the difference between the price which has been computed and the suitable price.[3] An errors should result in failure or in a deviation from the supposed performance or behavior. An 'errors' is a deviation from accuracy or correctness. A 'mistake' is an blunders resulting from a fault: the fault being misjudgment, carelessness, or forgetfulness. Now, say that I run a stop signal due to the fact i was in a hurry, and wasn't concentrating, and the police prevent me, that is a mistake.

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Which of the following organizations serve in food safety for ' Not a regulatory agency, but establishes policy and makes recommendations globally'?
NOT: United States Department of Agriculture (USDA)
Other options:
- United States Food and Drug Administration (FDA)
- World Health Organization (WHO)
- Food and Agriculture Organization (FAO)
- Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC)

Answers

The United States Food and Drug Administration (FDA), World Health Organization (WHO), Food and Agriculture Organization (FAO), and Centers for Disease Control and Prevention are the organisations that serve in the field of food safety.

What Organization means?

An organisation is a business, institution, or group of people with a single, overarching objective (Commonwealth English; see spelling variations). The word comes from the Greek word organon, which also denotes an organ and a number of implements or instruments. An organisation is a group of people who cooperate, such as a firm, neighbourhood association, charity, or union. The term "organisation" can be used to describe a person, a group, a company, or the process of creating or developing anything.

What is the purpose of organization?

An organization's main objective is to comprehend and efficiently manage the business. Unifying the workforce and defining the organization's direction are the major objectives. People can concentrate on their work rather than office politics in effective organisations. They believe that if they perform well, treat others kindly, and do their jobs well, they will advance in their careers. They don't battle against organizational rules or tedious jobs for very long.

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Ultimate Sportswear has $290,000 of 6% noncumulative, nonparticipating, preferred stock outstanding. Ultimate Sportswear also has $690,000 of common stock outstanding. In the company's first year of operation, no dividends were paid. During the second year, the company paid cash dividends of $49,000. This dividend should be distributed as follows:
$24,500 preferred; $24,500 common.
$26,000 preferred; $23,000 common.
$17,400 preferred; $31,600 common.
$0 preferred; $49,000 common.
$12,250 preferred; $36,750 common.

Answers

Both preference stockholders and common stockholders receive the dividend. The fact that preferred stockholders have precedence over various payments distinguishes preferred stocks from common stocks.

The best choice is the preferred amount of $8,400; $25,600 in common

Dividend on preferred stock equals preferred stock minus dividend.

What exactly are dividends, exactly?

A dividend is a cash or other reward that a business gives to its shareholders. Dividends can be paid out in cash, in stocks, or in any other way you can think of. The dividend of a company is decided by the board of directors, and shareholders must approve it.

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you've reached the maximum $2,500 in combined grocery store, wholesale club, and choice category purchases this quarter.

Answers

Customers may earn over the 1% cashback rate upon up to $2,500 in purchases each quarter in the bonus categories of the Bank of America Customized Cash Rewards program. The highest total purchase this quarter from food stores, wholesale clubs, and choice categories is $2,500.

No question has been given. These are the only conditions that apply to Bank of America Customized Cash Rewards. The Bank of America Customized Cash Rewards card allows for additional flexibility by providing an excellent rewards rate on a category of the user's choice. The complete rate of rewards is as follows:

3% cashback on a selected category (home improvements and furnishings, dining, online shopping, drugstore shopping, and travel).2% cashback on purchases made at grocery stores and wholesale clubs.Spending cap of $2,500 per quarter on the 2% or 3% categories.1% back on further purchases.

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Assume, for Vietnam, that the domestic price of textiles without international trade is lower than the world price of textiles. This suggests that in the production of textiles, a. Vietnam has a comparative advantage over other countries and Vietnam will import textiles. b. Vietnam has a comparative advantage over other countries and Vietnam will export textiles. c. other countries have a comparative advantage over Vietnam and Vietnam will import textiles d. other countries have a comparative advantage over Vietnam and Vietnam will export textiles. 8. Which of the following would affect the GDP for the U.S.? a. The purchase of tutoring services from a tutor who holds a foreign citizenship but resides within the U.S. b. The purchase of a new edition of a foreign textbook that was produced in a different country. c. The purchase of ink and paper supplies by a textbook company for the production of new textbooks not produced yet. d. The purchase of a used textbook from a friend who took the same class last year. Figure 1 The above figure describes the Chinese Market for pencil sharpeners. 9. Refer to Figure 1. With no international trade a. the equilibrium price is $12 and the equilibrium quantity is 300. b. the equilibrium price is $16 and the equilibrium quantity is 200 c. the equilibrium price is $16 and the equilibrium quantity is 300 d. the equilibrium price is $16 and the equilibrium quantity is 450.

Answers

Other countries have a comparative advantage over Vietnam and Vietnam will import textiles.

Option A is correct .

When compared to other nations, a country has comparative advantage if it provides a good or service at a lower opportunity cost.

The fact that textiles are more expensive in Vietnam as compared to other nations demonstrates that the country lacks a comparative advantage in textile production. In order to produce other items for which Vietnam has a comparative advantage, the country should purchase textiles.

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The correct question is :

Assume, for Vietnam, that the domestic price of textiles without international trade is higher than the world price of textiles. This suggests that, in the production of textiles

a. other countries have a comparative advantage over Vietnam and Vietnam will import textiles.

b. Vietnam has a comparative advantage over other countries and Vietnam will export textiles.

c. Vietnam has a comparative advantage over other countries and Vietnam will import textiles.

d. other countries have a comparative advantage over Vietnam and Vietnam will export textiles

paul drives a truck as an employee for quick delivery, inc. paul would most likely be considered acting outside of the scope of her employment if he group of answer choices crashed into a car at the airport while off-duty hit a pedestrian in a parking lot during a working lunch ran over an attendant at a gas station while refueling his company truck smashed into a store-front window while driving on-duty

Answers

A truck or lorry is a type of automobile made to move objects, carry specific payloads, or carry out other practical tasks. Trucks come in a wide range of sizes, capacities, and configurations,

but the vast majority have body-on-frame construction and a cabin that is separate from the vehicle's payload. Smaller variations could share mechanical similarities with some cars. Commercial truck, such waste trucks, fire trucks, concrete mixers, and suction excavators, can be quite strong and big, and they can be designed to be equipped with specific equipment. A commercial vehicle without a trailer or additional articulation is technically referred to as a "straight truck" in American English, while a vehicle created expressly to tow a trailer is referred to as a "tractor" instead of a truck. [1]

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Based on the following information, compute cash flows from investing activities. (Input the amount as positive value.) Cash collections from customers Sale of used equipment Depreciation expense Purchase of short-term investments $ 710 240 260 304 Cash used in investing activities

Answers

Sale of short-term investments plus the purchase of secondhand equipment equals the cash generated by investing activities. Investing-related cash flow equals $7,100 minus $6,200.

The section includes a company's overall cash flow from investment-related operations. The acquisition of financial assets, mutual funds, stocks, etc., is an example of an investment activity.

Long-term investments known as capital investments involve assets with multiple-year useful lifetimes. Capital investments include things like building a new production facility and purchasing machinery and equipment. A technique for calculating the financial feasibility of a capital investment over its lifetime is capital budgeting.

Capital budgeting, in contrast to several other forms of investment analysis, places more emphasis on cash flows than profits. Instead of accounting the revenues and expenses resulting from the investment, capital budgeting focuses on identifying the cash inflows and cash outflows. For instance, because they are cash flow activities, non-expense items like loan principal payments are included in capital budgeting.

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Identify from the following list the type of disposition of a passive activity where the taxpayer keeps the suspended losses of the disposed activity and utilizes them on a subsequent taxable disposition. a. Disposition of a passive activity by gift. b. Disposition of a passive activity at death. C. Installment sale of a passive activity. d. None of these applies here.

Answers

This is correct answer Nontaxable alternate of a passive activity.

Passive activity is an income-generating endeavor that a taxpayer did not materially take part in at some stage in the tax year. The Internal Revenue Service (IRS) defines two kinds of passive activity: exchange or commercial enterprise activities in which the taxpayer doesn't materially participate.

What is a disposition of a passive exercise mean?

Disposition of Entire Interest

Generally, you might also deduct in full any in the past disallowed passive undertaking loss in the yr you dispose of your whole pastime in the activity. In contrast, you may no longer claim unused passive undertaking credit only due to the fact you disposed of your whole activity in the activity.

What are active passive activities?

Passive pastimes encompass things to do like staring at television, playing video games, or analyzing books. Active pursuits contain creating, sharing, contributing to the lives of others, or creating skills, whilst a passive interest does not contain interaction with others or widening your skillset.

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when hiring temporary workers, realistic job previews are most helpful so that upon being hired, temporary employees understand the job and organization and can begin successful performance immediately. TRUE OR FALSE

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This assertion is false.

The transient group of workers goes through many names: temps, contract workers, consultants, freelancers, seasonal workers and interns. But anything they're called, they give agencies flexibility when everlasting personnel go out on leave, commercial enterprise fluctuates and at some point of instances of elevated non permanent or seasonal needs.

What is an example of a brief job?

In contrast, a transient employee does not have a ordinary schedule and only works for a specified quantity of time. For example, a company might hire extra sales clerks around the wintry weather holidays.

What is an gain of the use of transient workers?

Temporary workers assist decrease standard staffing costs, due to the fact their presence can hold your everyday personnel completely productive, however no longer overworked. The capability to “try out” attainable future hires.

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Brady Industries has average variable costs of $1 and average total costs of $3 when it produces 500 units of output. The firm's total total fixed costs equal

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Here, In Brady industries' example, The Total Fixed cost (TFC) would be $1000. So the correct response would be (c)$1000. See the Detailed explanation below:

We know that We get the Average variable cost (AVC) when we divide the Total variable cost by Quantity (Q)

I.e. AVC = TVC/Q

Here, $1 = TVC/500  (given value of AVC & Q in question)

TVC= $500

We also know that, Average Total Cost = Average Total Cost/ Quantity (Q),

I.e. $3=TC/500         (given value of ATC & Q in question)

TC = $1500

Now we know that Total cost is calculated by adding Total variable cost and Total Fixed Cost (TFC).

Here, we have, TC= TVC+TFC

$1500=$500+TFC

TFC= $1000 (1500-500)

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does the following statement describe a demander on a supplier in a financial market? they paid interest on their credit card bill

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Answer:

Yes

Explanation:

Because they have credit

factors creating the global marketplace include all of the following except lowering costs of doing business globally privatization and globalization of government services growth in domestic businesses satellites and computer technology

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factors creating the global marketplace include all of the following except growth in domestic businesses.

A market or market place is a regular gathering area where people come to buy and sell food, cattle, and other items. A marketplace may be referred to as a souk or bazaar in different parts of the world. While some markets are open every day and are referred to as permanent markets, others are conducted either once a week or on infrequently occurring days like festival days and are referred to as periodic markets. The population, culture, environmental factors, and physical circumstances of a region all affect the shape that a market takes. As long as people have traded, there have been markets. Bazaars are thought to have first appeared in Persia and then expanded throughout the rest of the Middle East and Europe.

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What negotiation approach is described by the following situation: Sean has some extra cash and he wants to buy a new car. Sarah is desperate for cash so she puts her car up for sale, and Sean exploits this to get a great price.
a) integrative
b) distributive
c) BANTA
d) win-lose

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Distributive t negotiation approach is described by the following situation: Sean has some extra cash and he wants to buy a new car. Sarah is desperate for cash so she puts her car up for sale, and Sean exploits this to get a great price.

Distributive bargaining is a type of negotiation in which both sides agree to share existing resources with each other for separation, and it is mostly a win-lose situation, while integrated bargaining is a type in which both sides try to further expand  existing resources. Moving forward to a collaborative process, it is always a win-win situation. Distributive negotiations occur when the  interests or goals of the parties are the same and conflict with each other.

These conditions are characterized by a limited or fixed supply of resources. The other party's interests or goals are in direct conflict with your own. In plain English, the parties try to claim the same value; Thus, the value obtained by one party means that the other party receives less value in the negotiation.

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A floating exchange rate:?
?is determined by the national governments involved.
?remains extremely stable over long periods of time.
?is determined by the actions of central banks.
?is allowed to vary only within a narrow range.?adjusts in response to market forces.
The Bretton Woods system:?
?established a worldwide gold standard.
?established a worldwide system of fixed exchange rates.
?established a worldwide system of flexible exchange rates.
?harmonized tariff systems.

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When a country has a floating exchange rate, the foreign exchange market determines the value of its currency based on supply and demand in relation to other currencies.

A floating exchange rate is determined by free market equilibrium established by demand and supply of a currency and this contrasts with a fixed exchange rate, when the rate is fully or primarily decided by the government.

Bretton Woods system was adapted by US, Europe, Japan, Australia and Canada, which were industrialized nations.

In a managed float regime, exchange rate varies as per market forces but if it moves outside a range, central bank may intervene to stabilize it by buying or selling currency as per the requirement.

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Proponents of the EMH typically advocate
A. an active trading strategy.
B. investing in an index fund.
C. a passive investment strategy.
D. an active trading strategy and investing in an index fund
E. investing in an index fund and a passive investment strategyE. investing in an index fund and a passive investment strategy

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Proponents of the EMH typically advocate  a passive investment strategy.

The Efficient Market Hypothesis (EMH), commonly known as the efficient market theory, is a hypothesis that states that stock prices reflect all information and that consistent alpha generation is impossible.

According to the EMH, stocks always trade at their exchange rate, making it impossible for investors to buy undervalued stocks or sell stocks at high prices. Therefore, it should be difficult to completely beat the market by picking a good stock or timing the market, and the only way an investor can make a big profit is by buying risky investments.

Proponents of the EMH believe that investors benefit from investing in a low-cost, long-term portfolio. Opponents of the EMH believe that it is possible to beat the market and that stocks can deviate from the fair market value.

Proponents of the EMH typically advocate  a passive investment strategy because:

The Efficient Market Hypothesis states that share prices reflect all information and consistent above normal returns are impossible to generate. Theoretically, neither technical nor fundamental analysis can produce risk-adjusted excess returns, or alpha, consistently and only inside information can result in outsized risk-adjusted returns. Therefore, a passive strategy would be better option instead of incurring expenses on active management.

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