Answer:Natural selection.
It is the process by which certain traits become more common in a population over time. It occurs when individuals with certain traits are more likely to survive and reproduce than those without those traits. This leads to the traits becoming more common in the population over time. Natural selection is one of the main mechanisms of evolution.
Would an action potential be possible without the presence of proteins? Explain your response.
A. Yes, the action potential would be possible since the Na+ being hydrophobic can enter the neuron through the phospholipid bilayer.
B. No, the action potential would not be possible since Na+ being hydrophilic would not be able to move across the plasma membrane.
C. No, the action potential would not be possible since Na+ being hydrophilic would not be able to move across the plasma membrane unless ATP was available
Without the channels that proteins provide, ions could not traverse the plasma membrane and an action potential could not occur.
What is action potential?An action potential occurs when the membrane potential of a specific cell location rapidly rises and falls. This depolarization is followed by depolarization in the surrounding areas. Animal cells that display action potentials fall into the category of excitable cells, which also includes neurons, muscle cells, and some plant cells.
The cell membrane is made up of a lipid bilayer that incorporates larger protein molecules. Because it efficiently blocks the flow of electrically charged ions, the lipid bilayer acts as an insulator.
Action potentials are generated by channel proteins, which switch from a closed to an open state in response to the voltage difference between the interior and exterior of the cell.
Therefore, without proteins, action potential is not conceivable.
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T/F. influenza viruses that have undergone antigenic drift are more problematic than those that have undergone antigenic shift because antigenic drift leads to annual influenza epidemics.
It is true to say that influenza viruses that have undergone antigenic drift are more problematic than those that have undergone antigenic shift because antigenic drift leads to annual influenza epidemics.
Influenza viruses (IAV) causes flu in birds and a few vertebrates, and is the main types of the class Alphainfluenzavirus of the infection family Orthomyxoviridae. Kinds of all subtypes of flu An infection have been detached from wild birds, in spite of the fact that sickness is unprecedented.
Influenza are an infections are negative-sense, single-abandoned, divided RNA infections. The few subtypes are marked by a H number (for the sort of hemagglutinin) and a N number (for the kind of neuraminidase).Some disengages of flu An infection cause extreme illness both in homegrown poultry and, once in a while, in humans. Periodically, infections are communicated from wild sea-going birds to homegrown poultry, and this might cause an episode or lead to human flu pandemics.
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the place where light is brought into focus (to form an image) in the human eye is called the the place where light is brought into focus (to form an image) in the human eye is called the lens. optic nerve. pupil. retina. cornea.
Together with the cornea, the lens helps to properly focus light on the retina.
What is the quiz question about how light travels via the eye?The cornea lets light through, which bends it. 2 The iris's pupil allows light to freely flow through. Vitreous humor allows for the passage of light. 4) The retina absorbs light rays and transforms them into impulses.
How does light enter the eye?It initially penetrates the cornea, where a small amount of light is refracted. The aqueous humor, a clear liquid, is the next medium through which the light travels. It passes through the pupil, which is encircled by the iris, the colored portion of the eye that regulates how much light enters the eye.
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briefly describe the path of blood as it circulates through the heart
The first step in the replication of dna is catalyzed by . primase helicase dna polymerase single-strand binding protein ligase
The first step in the replication of DNA is catalyzed by the enzyme DNA helicase. The primary action of this enzyme is to unwind the section of the double-stranded DNA that will be replicated.
Helicases are a type of enzyme that is regarded to be essential to all life. Their primary role is to unpack the genetic material of an organism. Helicases are motor proteins that use ATP hydrolysis to travel directionally along a nucleic acid phosphodiester backbone, separating two hybridized nucleic acid strands.
DNA helicases catalyze the dissolution of the hydrogen bonds that connect the two strands of double-stranded DNA. This energy-demanding unwinding reaction produces single-stranded DNA, which is used as a template or reaction intermediate in DNA replication, repair, and recombination.
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identify the fluid filled space between the cornea and iris. view available hint(s)for part a identify the fluid filled space between the cornea and iris. posterior segment anterior chamber posterior chamber anterior segment
The anterior chamber is the fluid filled space between the cornea and iris.
What are the main fluids in eye ?The area between the cornea and iris known as the anterior chamber is filled with fluid. The clear, watery fluid called aqueous humour lies between the cornea and the anterior vitreous.
A clear liquid called aqueous humour fills the space between the lens and cornea. The liquid bathes and nourishes the lens while preserving eye pressure.
The vitreous humor, also referred to as vitreous fluid, is a clear, colourless gel-like substance that fills the space in the eye between the lens and the retina.
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The large Oldowan stone tool assemblages in the archaeological record of East Africa have been determined to represent what?
a) cache sites for stone tools
b) hunting blinds
c) areas in which raw materials to make stone tools was mined from the ground
d) home bases where females and their infants slept
The large Oldowan stone tool assemblages in the archaeological record of East Africa have been determined to represent areas in which raw materials to make stone tools was mined from the ground and is therefore denoted as option C.
What is Oldowan stone tool?This is referred to as a widespread stone tool archaeological industry in prehistory which served as a quarrying site.
The Oldowan stone tool assemblages were composed of pebbles of quartz, quartzite, or basalt etc which denotes that the stone tools were mined in the East Africa area and is therefore the reason why option C was chosen as the correct choice in this scenario.
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which of the following receptor detects pain sensations? which of the following receptor detects pain sensations? free nerve endings lamellated corpuscle meissner's corpuscle merkel discs
The skin's free nerve endings, known as nociceptors, have a high threshold for mechanical, chemical, or thermal stimuli and respond only when the strength of these stimuli is high enough to cause tissue injury. The input from these receptors is perceived as pain.
Which of the following receptors senses pain?Nociceptors are sensory receptors that detect signals from damaged tissue or the danger of injury, as well as substances generated by the damaged tissue. Nociceptors are free (bare) nerve terminals present in the skin, muscle, joints, bone, and viscera .
Meissner corpuscles respond to skin indentations of less than 10 micrometres and are especially sensitive to low-frequency vibrations ranging from 10 to 50 Hertz.
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. Given the brain size and pelvic dimensions of Homo erectus, their infants were likely:
b) physically active at birth
c) altricial (helpless at birth)
d) large brained
e) were strong enough to grasp onto their mothers
(C) Given the brain size and pelvic dimensions of Homo erectus, their infants were likely altricial (helpless at birth)
what is Homo erectus?This is a type of extinct human that existed between 1.6 million and 250,000 years ago, during the Pleistocene Epoch. Homo erectus was the first human species to have a flat face, a prominent nose, and probably scant body hair coverage. It also possessed a more contemporary gait and body proportions.
what is altricial ?This can simply mean a being hatched, born, or having young that are hatched, born, or having young that are hatched, born, in a very immature and defenseless condition, requiring care for a while.
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The tryptophan operon in some bacteria is a repressible operon. Which of the following statements correctly describes this operon?
A) It is permanently active.
B) It is activated only when tryptophan is present in the growth medium.
C) It is activated only when glucose is present in the growth medium.
D) It is deactivated whenever tryptophan is added to the growth medium.
The statement describing the operon is D. It is deactivated whenever tryptophan is added to the growth medium.
Operons are groups of structural genes that are expressed in a coordinated manner and are simultaneously under the control of a single regulatory signal. This makes the process of genetic expression in cells more efficient because nerve disorders are involved in the same series of metabolic reactions.
Some prokaryotes use the tryptophan operon system to control gene expression. In the tryptophan operon, the operons are transcribed together to code for components required in the production of the amino acid tryptophan. The mechanism of this operation is controlled by suppression of the end products of expression and attenuation. In some bacteria, controlling gene expression uses negative control involving the activity of a regulatory gene. This operon will be deactivated whenever tryptophan is added to the growth medium so that the process of genetic expression in cells is more efficient.
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Retroviruses, such as the human immunodeficiency virus (HIV), carry their genetic information as RNA and convert it to DNA using the enzyme
A. DNA polymerase II.
B. retrograde polymerase.
C. RNA to DNA polymerase.
D. reverse transcriptase.
RT is referred to as Hiv infection (HIV) and other retroviruses carry their genetic material in the form of RNA, which is then converted to DNA by an enzyme.
What kinds of viruses fall under the retrovirus classification?There are two more retroviruses that can harm humans in addition to the one that causes AIDS, the human immunodeficiency virus (HIV). The first one is referred to as human T-lymphotropic viruses type 1 (HTLV-1), and the second one is referred to as human M o virus type 2. (HTLV-II).
what are The four retroviruses ?Oncoviruses, Lentiviruses, or Spumaviruses make up the three families of retroviruses. A-type, A and, C-type, and D-type retroviruses are categorized as well depending on how they appear under an electron microscope.
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the symbols for the nitrogen
atoms, N, is shown. What atom
besides N do you think forms the
rings that make up the bases?
O Carbon
O Oxygen
O Phosphorus
O Sulfur
Ardipithecus ramidus can be described as:
a) possessing thin tooth enamel
b) lacking any knuckle-walking adaptations
c) human-like lower limb proportions
d) lack of a canine diastema
Answer: All of the following statements are true about Ardipithecus ramidus:
a) possessing thin tooth enamel
b) lacking any knuckle-walking adaptations
c) human-like lower limb proportions
d) lack of a canine diastema
Ardipithecus ramidus is an early hominid species that lived about 4.4 million years ago in Africa. It is considered to be one of the oldest known hominids and is considered a key transitional species between apes and humans. Some of the characteristics that distinguish Ardipithecus ramidus from other hominids and apes include thin tooth enamel, lack of knuckle-walking adaptations, human-like lower limb proportions, and a lack of a canine diastema (a space between the upper canine tooth and the incisor tooth). These features suggest that Ardipithecus ramidus was a bipedal species that may have had some degree of social complexity and may have used tools.
A student measures the length of a root growing from a sprouted seed. What
determines whether the measurement is precise?
O
A. A precise measurement can be repeated multiple times.
B. A precise measurement is displayed in the largest possible units.
C. A precise measurement contains the fewest significant figures.
D. A precise measurement is close to the actual value.
A precise measurement can be repeated multiple times. The correct option is A.
What is precise measurement?Precision, also known as reproducibility or repeatability, is the extent to which repeated measurements under identical conditions yield the same results.
Precision is determined by standard deviation, which is the amount and frequency with which measurements differ. If a standard deviation is high, then it suggests low precision.
A student measures the length of a sprouted seed's root. A precise measurement can be repeated as many times as necessary.
Thus, the correct option is A.
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Which of the following occurs during apoptosis?
(A) lysis of the cell
(B) direct contact between signaling cells
(C) fragmentation of the DNA
(D) release of proteases outside the cell
The correct option is D : Fragmentation of the DNA ; The splitting or breaking of DNA strands into bits is known as DNA fragmentation. It can be done purposely by laboratory people or cells, or it might happen accidentally.
Spontaneous or inadvertent DNA fragmentation is the accumulation of fragments in a cell over time.
Blebbing, cell shrinkage, nuclear fragmentation, and DNA fragmentation are all signs of apoptosis.
Apoptotic cells, in contrast to necrosis, create apoptotic bodies that are phagocytized by surrounding cells without the loss of cellular contents.
Caspases, proteolytic enzymes that cause cell death by cleaving particular proteins in the cytoplasm and nucleus, induce apoptosis.
Caspases exist as inactive precursors, or procaspases, in all cells, and are normally triggered by cleavage by other caspases, resulting in a proteolytic caspase cascade.
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which organelles are not found in. plant cells
Answer:
CENTRIOLE
Explanation:
The organelle not found in plant cells is the centriole. Plant cells have a large central vacuole that holds water and minerals for the cell.
Centrosomes and lysosomes are organelles found only in animal cells and not in plant cells.
Organelles are biological structures that perform specific functions within the cell. Organelle means "small organ". The body is made up of various organs, and even within cells, there are "small organs" that perform specific functions. They have membrane compartments or structures of cells. Organelles are membrane compartments or structures within cells that perform specific functions. An organelle refers to any cellular structure, whether membrane-bound or not, that performs a specific function. Some examples are mitochondria, chloroplasts, and cell nuclei. They all have specific functions within the cell that help the cell sustain itself.
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Read the statement.
Scientists have discovered that climate change is causing many animals to migrate from their local habitats in order to reach colder areas and survive.
Which of the following is a way that humans can help support the survival of animals as they make their migrations?
Put up additional fencing along borders.
Allow for regulated hunting on state-owned properties.
Install land bridges or wildlife overpasses across roads.
Require new housing developments to be “green.”
Installing land bridges or wildlife overpasses across roads helps in supporting the survival of animals as they make their migration. Thus, the correct option is C.
What causes migration of animals?Animal migration is the large-scale movement of an animal species from one place to another place. Most species migrate during a particular season in search of food, water, or for mating reasons when conditions are not favorable in their native environment.
Animals can cross large areas through the land bridges or wildlife overpasses which are built across roads. This can be worse as it subdivides animal population and fragment their habitats. This results into losing access to large areas of their living space which makes it much harder for many woodland creatures to forage for food, find mates and carry on their genetic legacies.
Therefore, the correct option is C.
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Question 1-6
The Artic tundra has an annual temperature range of -34° C to 12° C. Annual precipitation ranges from 15 cm to 25 cm.
Based on these conditions, what characteristic does the Arctic tundra exhibit
O high nutrients
Olow biodiversity
long growing season
small population changes
Answer:Low biodiversity
Explanation:
The function of the iodine in the starch hydrolysis test is to - make starch visible - act as a mordant - make glucose visible - make the cells visible
The function of the iodine in the starch hydrolysis test is c)make glucose visible. So, correct option is c.
Starch hydrolysis test is utilized to recognize microscopic organisms that can hydrolyze starch (amylose and amylopectin) utilizing the chemicals a-amylase and oligo-1,6-glucosidase. Frequently used to separate species from the genera Clostridium and Bacillus. In view of the enormous size of amylose and amylopectin particles, these living beings might not go through the bacterial cell at any point wall.
To involve these starches as a carbon source, microorganisms should discharge a-amylase and oligo-1,6-glucosidase into the extracellular space. These chemicals break the starch atoms into more modest glucose subunits which can then enter straightforwardly into the glycolytic pathway. To decipher the consequences of the starch hydrolysis test, iodine should be added to the agar.
Hence, correct option is c.
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(Complete question) is:
The function of the iodine in the starch hydrolysis test is to -
a) make starch visible
b)act as a mordant
c)make glucose visible
d)make the cells visible
How is the structure of a fat cell related to its function of storing fat for later use?
Answer:
Explanation:aaaaaa
The tops of bulb-producing plants should be allowed to continue growing until they die naturally because
A) they add beauty to the flower garden
B) they continue to manufacture food for storage in the bulb
C) they grow larger and provide good mulch for the bulbs
D) They shade the bulbs and keep them cool
The tops of bulb-producing plants should be allowed to continue growing until they die naturally because (B) they continue to manufacture food for storage in the bulb.
Geophytes are plants that produce tubers, corms, bulbs, and other subterranean storage organs. Some epiphytic orchids (Orchidaceae family) produce pseudobulbs, which look superficially like bulbs and are above-ground storage organs.
Amaryllis, Crinum, Hippeastrum, Narcissus, and numerous other members of the amaryllis family Amaryllidaceae are among the almost all monocotyledon plants that produce real bulbs. Members of the Amaryllid subfamily Allioideae that fall within this category include onion, garlic, and other alliums.
A huge bulb can sprout from a small one. Renewal bulbs are small, medium-sized bulbs that grow to take the place of the original bulb. Increase bulbs are little bulbs that form on each of a bulb's leaves or on the ends of short subterranean stems that link to the parent bulb.
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Quick breads include items such as pancakes, waffles, biscuits, scones, _____, coffee cakes, cornbreads, flatbreads, and banana nut bread.
Quick breads include items such as pancakes, waffles, biscuits, scones, _cream puffs____, coffee cakes, cornbreads, flatbreads, and banana nut bread.
What are quick breads ?Quick breads are bread-like goods that use baking powder and baking soda in place of yeast to leaven them.
Three varieties of fast breads exist:
Pour batters: These can be "poured" directly from the mixing bowl due to their thin nature. Batter drops: need to be scraped into the baking pan from the bowl because they are very thick.
A soft dough is one that can be rolled and shaped by hand.
Quick breads are rather self-explanatory; they are so named because they can be prepared quickly. Coffeecakes and quick bread loaves employ baking soda or powder as leavening agents and need little to no kneading. Flavorings include fruits, nuts, cereals, vegetables, and spices.
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which of the following tests uses gel electrophoresis to separate the proteins in a sample based on their size before reacting them with antibodies?
Gel electrophoresis for proteins in Western blotting (Immunoblot). A method for analyzing individual proteins in a protein mixture is called Western blotting, commonly known as immunoblotting (e.g. a cell lysate).
Which two types of gel electrophoresis gels are there?kinds of gel. Agarose and polyacrylamide gels are the two forms of gel that are most frequently employed. Different sizes and types of analytes work well with each type of gel. Polyacrylamide gels offer a very high resolving capacity for tiny DNA fragments and are typically employed for proteins.
Which electrophoresis method is employed to analyze the protein sample?In proteomic research, where resolution of hundreds of proteins on a single gel is occasionally required, 2D PAGE offers the best resolution for protein analysis.
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which statement correctly compares how euglenas and amoebas move? euglenas move using flagella, while amoebas move using cilia. euglenas move using pseudopods, while amoebas move using flagella. euglenas move using flagella, while amoebas move using pseudopods. euglenas move using cilia, while amoebas move using pseudopods.
Euglena uses flagella to move, while amoeba uses pseudopods to move.
Euglena is a type of protist, a diverse group of heterotrophic or autotrophic unicellular organisms. Many species of Euglena have long, whip-like structures called flagella that they use for swimming and locomotion in water.
Amoebas are also a type of protist and move using a different mechanism called pseudopodia. Pseudopodia are temporary extensions of cell membranes that allow amoebas to move and change shape while crawling and flowing through the environment. Amoebas do not use flagella or cilia for locomotion.
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what major part of the food chain is more or less missing from the galapagos island
The part of food chain which is more or less missing from the galapagos island are the bacteria.
How bacteria are missing in galapagos island food chainFood chain simply refers to those networks of food web system transferring energy from the producers and ending at the decomposers.
That being said, the bacteria are microscopic decomposers which are missing in the food chain of the galapagos island. It shows the relationship between organisms as to who eats whom and to avoid a crash on the population.
In conclusion, we can now confirm from above that food chain shows how living organisms are related or connected with each other.
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HELP IM ON LIMITED TIME
A scientist compares the bone structure of the monkey arm to that of
the bat wing, and observes that the same bones are present in each
animal, but with variations in thickness, length, and shape. What
evidence of evolution is this an example of?
Select one:
DNA
Molecular
Embryological
Homologous structures
Answer:
homologous structures.
Explanation:
This evidence of evolution is an example of homologous structures. Homologous structures are structures in different species that have a similar underlying structure and are thought to have evolved from a common ancestor. In this case, the scientist is observing that the bones in the monkey arm and the bat wing are similar, but with variations in their characteristics. This suggests that these structures evolved from a common ancestor, providing evidence for the theory of evolution.
When naming a compound with two elements, the ending of the second element is changed to.
A. -ion
B. -ine
C. -ide
D. -ade
Answer:
C. -ide
Explanation:
Example: Sodium+chlorine turns into Sodium-chloride
What are some ways to assess the strengths and weaknesses of a graph/chart
Answer:
When assessing the strengths and weaknesses of a graph or chart, there are several key factors to consider.
Firstly, the accuracy of the data presented should be evaluated. The data should be checked for any errors or discrepancies, and the source of the data should be verified. Additionally, the data should be relevant to the topic being discussed, and should be up-to-date.
The visual presentation of the graph or chart should also be taken into account. The graph should be easy to read and interpret, with a clear title, labels, and legend. The graph should also use appropriate scales, and the axes should be labeled correctly.
The type of graph or chart should also be considered. Different types of graphs and charts are better suited to different types of data. For example, a bar graph is better suited to comparing categorical data, while a line graph is better suited to showing trends over time.
Finally, the graph or chart should be compared to other graphs or charts on the same topic. This will help to identify any potential discrepancies or inaccuracies in the data.
Overall, assessing the strengths and weaknesses of a graph or chart requires careful consideration of the accuracy of the data, the visual presentation, the type of graph or chart, and comparison to other graphs or charts on the same topic.
the phosphorolytic cleavage of glycogen is energetically advantageous because the released sugar is already ____
The phosphorolytic cleavage of glycogen is energetically advantageous because the released sugar is already phosphorylated so we do not need and ATP molecule to allow for phosphorylation.
In its cleavage reaction, glycogen phosphorylase uses a phosphate molecule, connecting it to the sugar as it is released. A second enzyme, phosphoglucomutase, then shifts the position of the phosphate to a neighboring carbon atom in the sugar, making the sugar ready for breakdown by glycolysis.
Thereby, glucose can be obtained from glycogen. Glycogen phosphorylase causes phosphoroclastic cleavage into glycogen, and produces glycogen-1-phosphate.
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the strongest line of attack against the response chain approach to movement sequencing is based on evidence for the existence of these
Based on evidence supporting the existence of various motor programs, the response chain approach to movement sequencing is most strongly defended.
What stroke preventive strategy is the most successful?The greatest strategy to reduce your risk of having a stroke is to eat a nutritious diet, exercise frequently, quit smoking, and drink in moderation. By making these lifestyle adjustments, you can lower your chance of issues like fatty substance buildup in your arteries (atherosclerosis).
How should a stroke patient be transported?When there are significant distances involved, air transport is preferred to ground ambulance transport. Air transport expedites the process and enables patients to receive better care than may be offered locally.
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