Despite being desirable anticancer targets, there is no approach for finding such collateral lethal gene.
Recurrent loss-of-function deletions frequently inactivate tumor suppressor genes, but they also frequently result in the collateral deletion of vital genes nearby on the chromosome, leading to dependency on paralogs with preserved function. Despite being desirable anticancer targets, there is no approach for finding such collateral lethal gene. In this article, we provide the CLIM framework for collateral fatal gene discovery using metabolic fluxes and apply it to identify MTHFD2 as a collateral deadly gene in ovarian tumors with UQCR11 deletion. We demonstrate the non-canonical oxidative role of MTHFD2 in supplying mitochondria with NAD+ as well as how the paralogue metabolic pathway controls systemic metabolic activity while maintaining metabolic flux adjustment. By combining genome-scale metabolic flux data with machine learning from CLIM, we can determine how effective it is to target MTHFD2 despite various obstacles.
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Which of the following statements about how the United States ranks on key measures of children's health and well-being is true?
The United States does not rank well on any key measure of children's health and well-being.
The current and future of the country depend on children. In general, parents, grandparents, aunts, and uncles want to provide their family's children every advantage imaginable, as well as the opportunity and health they need to reach their full potential.
Community commitment to the general welfare of children and the resources made available to address children's needs, however, varies greatly. The methods in which local communities approach their shared obligation to children, particularly to their health, show this.
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Carson is divorced, lives alone, has very few friends, and he rarely interacts with others outside of work. According to psychological research on social isolation, Carson's lack of social relationships is likely correlated with: O better health O an optimistic explanatory style and positive emotional states. O the stress contagion effect. O poorer health
Answer an optimistic explanatory style and positive emotional states.
Explanation: I AM NOT SHURE IF I AM RIGHT I AM SPED
TRUE/FALSE. Qualitative researchers often strive to purposefully select sample members based on emerging information needs.
true. Qualitative researchers often strive to purposefully select sample members based on emerging information needs for their research to get intensive information.
Purposive Sampling is selective sampling, purposeful sampling is a sampling strategy used by qualitative researchers to choose individuals who may offer in-depth and thorough information about the topic under study. The term "emergent design" describes the capacity to adjust to novel theories, notions, or conclusions that develop when undertaking qualitative research. The variety of sampling approaches that may be applied to such qualitative research designs thanks to purposive sampling, including homogenous sampling, critical case sampling, expert sampling, and more, is one of the main advantages of this method.
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ndicate whether each statement is true or false.1. during contraction, the myosin myofilaments shorten. (click to select)2. during contraction, the actin myofilaments shorten. (click to select)3. the sliding filament model explains how myofilaments slide past each other. (click to select)4. the sliding of the myofilaments past each other cause the sarcomere to shorten. (click to select)
In the given statement 1 and 2 are false; 3 and 4 are only true abou contractions.
A striated muscle fiber contracts as myosin heads pull on the actin filaments, shortening the sarcomeres that are linearly distributed within myofibrils. Since here is where filament movement begins, the area where thin and thick filaments overlap is crucial to muscular contraction.The sliding filament model of muscle contraction describes how actin myofilaments slide through myosin myofilaments during contraction. A contraction is the use of symbols or words to shorten a sentence or phrase, which makes it informal.Neither the actin nor the myosin fibers shorten during contraction. During contraction, the H zones and I bands shorten, but the A bands remain the same length.To know more about contraction check the below link:
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FILL INTHE BLANK under the hipaa privacy rule, when an individual asks to see his or her own health information, a covered entity_____ . must always provide access can deny access to psychotherapy notes can demand that the individual pay to see his or her record can always deny access
under the hipaa privacy rule, when an individual asks to see his or her own health information, a covered entity can deny access to psychotherapy notes.
The HIPAA Privacy Rule establishes national standards to protect patient medical records and other individually identifiable health information, and it is applicable to health plans, healthcare clearinghouses, and healthcare providers who participate in particular electronic health care transactions (collectively referred to as "protected health information"). Without a person's consent, the Rule places restrictions and conditions on the uses and disclosures of protected health information that are permitted. Additionally, it requires appropriate safeguards to maintain the confidentiality of such data. People are also given access rights to their protected health information under the Rule, including access to their medical records for viewing and copying.
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#31 The Stark Law_________.
A. Prohibits physicians from billing for lab services.
B. Prohibits physicians from ordering test on family members.
C. Prohibits physicians from ordering from entities that they have financial relationship.
D. Prohibits physicians from ordering lab services at hospitals.
Answer:
C. Prohibits physicians from ordering from entities that they have financial relationship.
Explanation:
Which of the following is an example of explicit memory?
A) Recalling the locations of the countries of Africa
B) Remembering the lyrics to a favorite song
C) Making coffee in the morning
D) Walking from your first period class to your second period class
One of the example of explicit memory is recalling the locations of the countries of Africa. the correct option is A
What is explicit memory?Explicit memory is one of the two main types of long term human memory the other of which is implicit memory. Explicit memory is the conscious intentional recollection of factual information previous experiences and concepts.
This explicit memory is dependent upon three processes:
Acquisitionconsolidation RetrievalTherefore One of the example of explicit memory is recalling the locations of the countries of Africa. the correct option is A
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Answer:
A.) Recalling the locations of the countries of Africa
Explanation:
I got it right on the test :)
Which of the following would be most likely to reduce the chances of getting injured in a car accident? A. Obey posted speed limits. B. Find good driving music while you drive. C. Drive more than 15 miles per hour above the speed limit. D. Ignore pedestrians. SUBMIT
In a _______ effort to reduce the spread of aids among intravenous drug users, a service agency in portland, or became the first to distribute free needles to addicts.
In a 1988 effort to reduce the spread of aids among intravenous drug users, a service agency in Portland, or became the first to distribute free needles to addicts.
Providing clean hypodermic needles to drug addicts will be tested in Portland, Oregon. This controversial AIDS-control technique has proven to be too unpopular politically to be undertaken anyplace else in the nation.
The needle exchange initiative is based on comparable studies conducted elsewhere. State health and law enforcement officials, who believe the Oregon plan constitutes a logical, though regrettable, acceptance of the unpleasant reality of acquired immune deficiency syndrome, have given it their hesitant support.
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cardiac effects of hyperthyroidism include bradycardia. palpitations. decreased pulse pressure. decreased systolic blood pressure.
It includes a faster heartbeat, a stronger heartbeat, higher blood pressure, and abnormal heart electrical activity.
When does blood pressure peak during the day?Blood pressure has a daily pattern. A person's blood pressure often starts to rise a few hours before awakening. It continues to rise throughout the day, peaking about midday. Blood pressure often drops in the late afternoon and early evening.
Can water consumption lower blood pressure?Even something as simple as drinking six to eight glasses of water a day can help lower blood pressure. Since water makes about 73% of the human heart, no other liquid is more helpful at controlling blood pressure.
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according to the textbook, which of these events would have the lowest likelihood of causing posttraumatic stress disorder?
combat experience The least likely circumstances to result in posttraumatic stress disorder are childhood physical abuse and sexual assault.
What factors contribute most frequently to dissociative identity disorder?Typically, dissociative disorders emerge as a coping mechanism for trauma. Children who have experienced long-term physical, sexual, or emotional abuse are more likely to develop the disorders than children who have experienced a terrifying or extremely unpredictable home situation.
Who is most susceptible to abuse?People with health requirements, such as those with physical disabilities, mental health issues, learning disabilities, and substance abuse, make up a sizable share of referrals for adult abuse.
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if the lips will not stay closed during the embalming operation, they may be held in position by means of
Answer: Wet cotton, petroleum jelly, sutures
Explanation: If the lips will not stay closed during the embalming operation, they may be held in position by means of: wet cotton, petroleum jelly, sutures , or all of these.
#39 The Joint Commission's requirements for the minimum contents of the medical staff bylaws include all but which of the following:
A. fair hearing
B. credentialing, privileging, and appointment
C. medical staff infection control committee
D. corrective actions
Answer:
A. fair hearing
The Joint Commission's requirements for the minimum contents of the medical staff bylaws include provisions for credentialing, privileging, and appointment, as well as a requirement for a medical staff infection control committee. However, the Joint Commission's requirements do not include a provision for a fair hearing. A fair hearing is a process in which a medical staff member who has been accused of wrongdoing or has had their privileges challenged can present their side of the story and have their case heard by a neutral third party. While fair hearing processes are an important part of medical staff governance and can help to ensure that decisions about privileges and appointments are fair and unbiased, they are not specifically required by the Joint Commission. Other requirements for the minimum contents of medical staff bylaws may include provisions for corrective actions, peer review, and medical staff governance.
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Explanation:
a memory can be eliminated if anisomycin, which inhibits protein synthesis, is injected shortly after recall of that memory.
Long-term and short-term contextual memory are both hampered by isomycin injection into the CA3 region of the hippocampus, although retrieval is unaffected.
What was injected with anisomycin?
When infused into the basal lateral nuclei of the amygdala within 4 hours after a reactivation of the initial fear memory, anisomycin, which inhibits the protein synthesis necessary for the formation of long-term memories, can diminish the fear reaction (Nader et al., 2000).
How does anisomycin prevent the production of proteins?
Anisomycin is well recognized for its ability to bind to and block the peptidyl transferase activity of the 60S ribosomal subunit, which is a powerful and reversible inhibitor of protein synthesis in eukaryotic organisms.
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Calculate the number of kcals used when a person who weighs 145 lbs, lifts weights for one (1) hour a day. Hint: You expend 0.024 kcals/min/lb of weight lifting. O 545 kcals 0 209 kcals O 348 kcals 0 144 kcals
The number of kcals used when a person who weighs 145 lbs, lifts weights for one (1) hour a day will be (b) 209 kcals.
The metabolic equivalent, or MET, is a crucial statistic that is used in this computation. The Compendium defines a "MET" as "approximately comparable to the energy cost of sitting quietly," which is 1 kcal/kg/hour. A 70 kg individual will burn 70 calories (kcal) in an hour of quiet sitting as one MET is equal to one minute of silence. The same person would burn 140 calories in an hour if the MET value of an exercise was 2.
You may calculate the number of calories expended per hour by multiplying the MET value by your weight in kilograms (MET*weight in kg). Divide the amount by two if you simply want to know how many calories you expended in a half-hour. If you want to know how long 15 minutes are, multiply it by 4.
I weigh 175 pounds, thus if I played competitive soccer for an hour with a MET value of 10, I would burn 79.38 kg*10 = 793.8 calories per hour.
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united charities accepted a contribution from a donor and agreed to transfer the assets to aid for friends, a not-for-profit that provides temporary shelter to the homeless. united charities should debit cash or other assets and credit unrestricted revenue. temporarily restricted revenue. liability to aid for friends. united charities should not make an entry.
United charities should debit cash or other assets and credit unrestricted revenue.
Donor is a person who offers cash or one thing else important to associate degree organization: an outsized gift from associate degree anonymous donor can permit us to continue our work. A donor is additionally somebody who offers blood or who agrees to relinquish an organ or piece to assist some other person.
Unrestricted Revenues suggests that any General Fund or the other financial gain, revenues and receipts of the establishment derived from any supply some ciao per se financial gain, revenue and receipts aren't wrongfully dedicated for functions incompatible with the Project.
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This disease is passed from person to person directly, indirectly, or insects capable of spreading disease.
A. Communicable
B. Reactive
C. Non cummunicable
D. Lethal
Answer:
A. Communicable
Explanation:
A communicable disease is any disease that passes between people or animals.
Infants need fat because it is a rich source of calories, it aids in the absorption of several vitamins, and it promotes proper development of the nervous system. Fat accounts for approximately of total kcal in the infant's dietary pattern. A)
10%
B)
25%
C)
50%
D)
75%
Answer C is the right selection. Children, adolescents, and babies all need at least 5 grams of essential fatty acids daily. During childhood, fatty acids like docosahexaenoic acid and arachidonic acid play important roles in the development of the eyes and nervous system.
Docosahexaenoic acid (DHA), in particular, is known to play a crucial function in the development of the brain and retina. Omega-3 and omega-6 fatty acids also have important roles to play. Early life and prenatal nutrition have an impact on later children’s growth and cognitive development. These fats aid in cell growth, nervous system control, cardiovascular system fortification, immune system development, and nutrient absorption.
Therefore, we can conclude that Answer C is the best option. All children, teenagers, and infants require at least 5 grammes of essential fatty acids each day.
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psychopathology has a low degree of comorbidity, which means that people diagnosed with one mental disorder are very unlikely to be diagnosed with another one. True or False
The statement 'psychopathology has a low degree of comorbidity, which means that people diagnosed with one mental disorder are very unlikely to be diagnosed with another one' is false.
In the field of biology, comorbidity can be described as such a disease occurrence where two or more than two disorders or diseases can occur together in a person. Hence, the statement above is false.
Psychopathology shows that there is a higher degree of comorbidity. A person who suffers from one type of psychological disorder is most likely to have other types of mental disorders too. Hence, the statement above is false.
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doctors and hospitals that operate as health maintenance organizations (hmos) obtain payment based on the number o
Plans called HMO Point-of-Service (HMOPOS) HMOs let you receive some treatments outside of your network in exchange for a higher copayment or premium.
A health maintenance organisation (HMO) is what, exactly?A health insurance policy known as a managed care organization manages costs by restricting services to a neighborhood network of healthcare facilities and physicians. For any type of specialized care, HMOs often demand referrals from a primary-care doctor.
What does HMO signify in regards to medicine?HMO A health management organization (HMO) is a type of insurance policy that restricts access to a neighborhood's doctors and healthcare facilities in order to contain expenses. For any type of specialized care, HMOs often demand recommendations from the a primary care doctor.
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Which of the following psychologists most likely deals with the special mental health problems faced by the elderly?A.Geropsychologists; B. clinical; C. Neuropsychologists
The correct answer about the psychologists which deals with the special mental health problems faced by the elderly is the Geropsychologists.
The correct answer choice is option a.
What is meant by physiologist?A physiologist simply refers to a person who studies the function of the structures of the body. In order words, someone who studies physiology is called physiologist. There are different branches of physiologist; among which also includes the ones which is concerned with special mental health problems faced by the elderly and is known as Geropsychologists.
In conclusion, we can now confirm from the explanation given above that physiologists too are closely related to physicians.
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A nurse is teaching a client who has a new colostomy about nutrition. Which of the following statements by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?
A. I will try new foods one at a time
B. I will chew gum to decrease gas formation
C. I will drink 4-6 cups of fluid per day
D. I will eat a large evening meal
The option (c) is correct- I will drink 4-6 cups of fluids per day.
What is nutrition?
"Nutrients are the chemical elements found in food that give humans the energy needed for development, healing, and other vital life activities." Although not all nutrients are energy-producing, they all have some sort of function.
What is new colostomy ?
A portal from the exterior of the body into the colon. Following the removal of a portion of the colon, a colostomy offers a new route for waste to exit the body.
Because patients with colostomy are instructed to increase the liquids like water, tea or coffee. And also they are instructed to take fibred rich diet like bran cereals, vegetables, fresh fruits etc.
Therefore, option (c) is correct- I will drink 4-6 cups of fluids per day.
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Which of the following food sources are an incomplete protein: (a) tofu (b) beef (c) nuts (d) fish (e) nut butters (f) barley
Nuts (c), nut butters (e), barley (f), coconut milk (h), rice I oats (j), nuts (c), and beans (k) (o) Whole-wheat bread is a source of insufficient protein.
One complete source of protein is soybeans. This indicates that they give your system all the necessary vital amino acids. All animal proteins—meat, poultry, fish, eggs, and dairy—are complete. Quinoa is one of the few plant-based providers of full protein. A protein must have sufficient amounts of each of the nine necessary amino acids in order to be deemed "complete." Unlike beans and nuts, eggs and meat are rich in proteins. When combined, these plant-based protein are known as complementary protein because each one provides the missing necessary amino acid in the other, making them complete proteins when consumed together. So they combine to form a full protein.
(Check all that apply. Which of the following food sources are an incomplete protein:
(a) tofu
(b) beef
(c) nuts
(d) fish
(e) nut butters
(f) barley
(g) soy
(h) coconut milk
(i) rice
(j) oats
(k) beans
(l) chicken
(m) yogurt
(n) egg
(o) whole-wheat bread
(p) cow's milk)
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which of the following scenarios is most likely to result in impairment of the kinesthetic sense? responses severing of the corpus callosum severing of the corpus callosum destruction of part of the hypothalamus destruction of part of the hypothalamus removal of a portion of the olfactory bulb removal of a portion of the olfactory bulb damage to the cerebellum damage to the cerebellum a tumor in the somatosensory cortex
Damage to the cerebellum is most likely to result in impairment of the kinesthetic sense.
Explain kinesthetic sense.
The body's position and movement are sensed through the kinesthetic senses, which we are only aware of when we look inside. Muscle vibration, which engages afferents of muscle spindles to cause illusions of movement and changing position, is a technique used to research kinesthesia.
Whether voluntary or passively forced motions, kinesthetic feelings are typically the result. It is therefore challenging to distinguish between elements that relate to the motor execution command and those that relate to sensory feedback. Finding scenarios where individuals feel as though they are moving even though they are not is so interesting in kinesthesia investigations. The stimulation of various sensory modalities, including muscular proprioception, can cause such kinesthetic illusions.
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both klebsia pneumonie and sttreprococcus pneumone avoid phagocytosis by releasing ab toxins that kill lukocyte true or false
FALSE. By producing leukocyte-killing ab otoxin, Klebsia pneumonie and Streptococcus pneumonie both resist phagocytosis.
Not all Klebsiella pneumoniae infections are harmful. But when it does, it's pure stuff for nightmares. The bacteria may create a variety of issues when it is not in the stomach, not the least of which is the horrific necrotizing fasciitis, which can kill a healthy person in a matter of days. The homologous wzi, wzc, and/or wzy alleles of the cps locus, as well as whole genome data, have been used in more recent research to categorize K. pneumoniae capsules [45–49]. The CPS conceals subsurface features like the external membrane protein K36 (OmpK36) that cause complement activation in order to avoid being killed by serum complement [50, 51]. FALSE. By producing leukocyte-killing ab otoxin, Klebsia pneumonie and Streptococcus pneumonie both resist phagocytosis.Tetracycline, sulfonamides, rifampin, aminoglycosides, and quinolones are a few therapeutic options. Ciprofloxacin can be used to treat ozena for a period of three months.
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a 22-year-old woman presents with pelvic pain that has been worsening over the last three days and vaginal discharge for the last week. she has associated nausea and chills. physical exam reveals cervical motion tenderness and a mass in the right adnexa. pregnancy test is negative. a pelvic ultrasound reveals a complex multiloculated right adnexal mass. which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
pelvic pain that has been worsening over the last three days and vaginal discharge for the last week .Most adnexal masses result from issues with the female reproductive system. One of the most frequent reasons is ovarian cysts. These fluid-filled cysts form on your ovaries.
Explain adnexal.
a growth in the ovary or a fallopian tube near to the uterus. Examples of adnexal masses include ovarian cysts, endo (tubal) pregnancies, benign (non cancerous), and malignant tumors. The term "adnexa" refers to the ligaments, fallopian tubes, and ovaries that support the female reproductive systems.
Adnexal masses vanish, correct?
The location and cause of the adnexal mass will determine the sort of treatment chosen. Ovarian cysts can sometimes be surgically removed or allowed to go away spontaneously. Tumors, whether benign or malignant, are frequently removed surgically.
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we continue our discussion. one of the hallmarks of managed health care is the existence of a provider network and this applies now to nearly every form of health insurance. please, discuss network maintenance, and how plans approach this question (network maintenance) g
The identification of high-risk providers and ensuring that patients have the requisite health insurance coverage are both made possible by healthcare provider network management high-risk providers and foster consistency in the delivery of treatment.
Health insurance comes in the form of managed care programs. They have agreements with hospitals and medical centers to provide members with services at lower prices. These suppliers make up the network of the care plan. The policies of the network will determine how much of your care the plan will cover. Its major goal is to provide better service to plan members by emphasizing high-risk preventive and care management, which contribute to healthier patient outcomes. Managed care also aids in cost management, allowing you to save money.
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An individual who is experiencing an elevated mood, a decreased need for sleep, and distractibility is most likely experiencing:
A. panic disorder
B. mania
C. depersonalization
D. hallucinations
A person going through an elevated moods, sleeplessness, and distractibility is most likely experiencing (B) mania.
When you experience periods of abnormally heightened, severe swings in your mood or emotions, energy level, or activity level, you have a manic episode. It must be clear to others that you are acting differently from how you typically do in terms of your degree of intense physical, mental, and behavioral energy.
Conduct that sticks out is abnormal manic behavior. Other individuals can see that this conduct is excessive. The actions might be an exaggerated expression of joy or annoyance.
A manic episode is a period of time during which you exhibit one or more mania symptoms and satisfy the requirements for a manic episode. You might need to be hospitalized sometimes.
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this is the federal program that covers cure oriented health care for elderly adults but not chronic health
Medicare is a government program that provides medical treatment for older people that is focused on curing them, but it does not provide "chronic" assistance with ADLs.
The government health insurance program known as Medicare is available to: Individuals age 65 and over. young adults with impairments. End-stage renal disease patients (permanent kidney failure requiring dialysis or a transplant, sometimes called ESRD). Medicare is a government health insurance program for those who are 65 years of age or older, as well as those individuals under 65 with specific impairments or diseases.Medicare is a government program that provides medical treatment for older people that is focused on curing them, but it does not provide "chronic" assistance with ADLs. Medicare is managed by a government organization named the Center for Medicare and Medicaid Services. Medicare has requirements for costs & coverage because it is a federally funded program. Part A is generally provided without charge, however certain individuals must pay an additional fee. An person must be entitled to Medicare based on their own wages or those of a spouse, parent, child, or dependent relative in order to be eligible for premium-free Part A.
(This is the federal program that covers cure-oriented health care for elderly adults—but not "chronic" help with ADLs.
a. Medicare
b. Medicaid
c. Social Security
d. TANF)
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Paul Ekman and his colleagues gathered evidence supporting the universality of _________ facial expressions of emotion.
Paul Ekman and his co-workers collected evidence/proof in support of the universality of seven facial expressions of emotion.
In order to categorize every expression on the face and the rest of the body, Ekman developed the Facial Action Coding System (FACS). Ekman has investigated the psychology of lying, its social effects, and its implications for our mental health.
Ekman developed a list of common feelings and behaviors that he thought all individuals shared as a result of his studies with tribal people in New Guinea. These emotions include astonishment, grief, joy, contempt, wrath, and terror. Ekman came to the conclusion that while certain emotions were expressed through facial expressions, both good and negative emotions were shared by all people. These are some of the universal feelings:
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