Match the following major signs and/or symptoms with a particular source of a food-borne or water-borne illness. Nausea; muscle pain; fatigue; facial swelling, especially around eyes Norovirus Clostridium botulinum Campylobacter jejuni Abdominal cramps, diarrhea (can be bloody), fever, and vomiting Stomach flu Blurry vision, difficulty swallowing, and general muscle weakness Sore throat and violent coughing Giardia Trichinella "Explosive" vomiting and watery, non bloody diarrhea Diarrhea, abdominal pain, weight loss Frequent urination
Answers
The below reference image shows the matching of all major signs and symptoms with a particular source of a food-borne or water-borne illness.
The most likely to be contaminated are raw foods of animal origin, namely raw meat and poultry, raw eggs, unpasteurized milk, and raw shellfish. When manure is used to fertilize produce in the field or dirty water is used to wash the produce, fruits and vegetables can also get polluted with animal feces. The toxins generated by growing bacteria, the toxins produced by dangerous algae species, the contaminating of Foodborne illness and/or water with specific bacteria, viruses, or parasites, or a combination of these factors may result in food- and water-borne diseases.
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Related Questions
when fluid intake is normal, the specific gravity of urine should be: 1.000 less than 1.010 greater than 1.025 1.010 to 1.025
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when fluid intake is normal, the specific gravity of urine should be:1.010 to 1.025
Urine-specific gravity is a measurement of the kidneys' ability to concentrate urine. The specific gravity of water is 1.000. A urine-specific gravity less than 1.010 may indicate inadequate fluid intake. A urine-specific gravity greater than 1.025 may indicate overhydration.The normal specific gravity ranges from person to person. Your urine specific gravity is generally considered normal in the ranges of 1.005 to 1.030. If you drink a lot of water, 1.001 may be normal. The urine specific gravity test is easier and more convenient, and is usually part of a routine urinalysis. The urine osmolality test may not be needed. The normal range for urine specific gravity is 1.005 to 1.030. Normal value ranges may vary slightly among different laboratories. Some labs use different measurements or test different samples.
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Which of the following protects plants from excess light by detoxifying reactive oxygen species?
Answers
The photosynthetic electron transfer chain (PETC) can produce O2• and H2O2 by reducing O2 using reduced forms of electron carriers. In chloroplasts, the interaction of O2 with PETC is thought to be the major source of ROS, and light is necessary for this ROS formation.
Regarding the reactive oxygen species quizlet, which statement is accurate?
Which of the following is accurate with regards to reactive oxygen species. When O2 is overexposed to electrons, reactive oxygen species are created.
Are ROS produced during photosynthesis?
Innumerable reactive oxygen species (ROS) are generated by photosynthesis. In redox signal transduction, which is crucial for chloroplast to nucleus communication, ROS and antioxidants perform a role. Some chloroplasts have unique signaling capabilities that control both genetic and epigenetic programming.
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-------- alveolar cells provide the primary diffusional area for gas exchange with the blood in the lung
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The alveolar cells of the lung provide the primary diffusional area for gas exchange between the air and the blood. Alveoli are tiny, balloon-like sacs in the lungs that are lined with a single layer of alveolar cells.
These cells form a thin, permeable membrane through which oxygen and carbon dioxide can pass from the air into the blood, and vice versa.
The alveolar cells are extremely important for respiration. Oxygen from the air enters the alveolar cells, where it diffuses into the blood. At the same time, carbon dioxide from the blood diffuses across the membrane into the alveolar cells, where it is expelled out of the body. This process, known as gas exchange, is essential for maintaining oxygen levels in the body and eliminating carbon dioxide.
The alveolar cells are also involved in the process of surfactant production. This is a complex mixture of lipids and proteins that provides a lubricating surface in the alveolar sacs, preventing them from collapsing and allowing for easier breathing.
The alveolar cells play a critical role in the process of respiration, providing the primary diffusional area for gas exchange with the blood. Without them, oxygen and carbon dioxide would not be able to diffuse across the alveolar membrane, and respiration would be impossible.
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Successful vaccination requires the generation of an antibody response and long-term memory. Mounting this response requires a coordinated series of events.
Arrange the following statements in the correct order to describe how an antibody response is generated.
1. Dendritic cells process antigens
2. dendritic cells present antigens on their surface
3. Th cells recognize MHC II/antigen complexes on dendritic cells
4. Stimulated by IL-4, Th cells differentiate into Th2 cells
5. B cells (presenting MHC II/antigens) are activated after interacting with Th2 cells
6. B cells differentiate into memory cells and plasma cells
Answers
Steps involved in antigen response generation is:
1. Dendritic cells process antigens.
2. Dendritic cells present antigens on their surface.
3. T helper cells recognize MHC II/antigen complexes on dendritic cells.
4. Stimulated by IL-4, T helper cells differentiate into T helper2 cells.
5. B cells (presenting MHC II/antigens) are activated after interacting with T helper2 cells.
6. B cells differentiate into memory cells and plasma cells.
The B cell produces antibodies (specialized white blood cells). A B cell multiplies and clones when it comes into touch with an antigen. These plasma cells, also known as cloned B cells, unleash countless amounts of antibodies into your lymphatic and blood systems.
Our body has antibodies in a number of places, including your skin, lungs, tears, saliva, and even breast milk. In actuality, colostrum contains significant levels of antibodies (a thick fluid secreted by the breasts for a few days after giving birth). Because of this, breast- or chest-feeding helps strengthen your baby's immune system.
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Corrected Question:
Successful vaccination requires the generation of an antibody response and long-term memory. Mounting this response requires a coordinated series of events.
List any two structural differences between fungus and bacterium.
Answers
Explanation:
1.Bacteria do not contain membrane-bound organelles
1.but fungi contain membrane-bound organelles
2.Bacteria contain 70S ribosomes
2.but Fungi Contain 80S ribosomes
Fungi have a cell wall made of chitin, while most bacteria have a cell wall made of peptidoglycan.
Fungi are typically multicellular, while bacteria are usually single-celled organisms.
Other structural differences between fungi and bacteria include the presence of organelles such as mitochondria and the endoplasmic reticulum, which are found in fungi but not in most bacteria. Fungi also have a more complex and organized cell structure, with a nucleus that contains the organism's genetic material, while bacteria often have a more diffuse arrangement of their genetic material.
the name propionibacterium is derived from the fact that the organism produces propionic acid during fermentative metabolism. which of the following statements about fermentative metabolism is true?
Answers
Fermentation produces far less ATP than aerobic respiration, although it does create NAD+, which may be utilised in glycolysis.
define glycolysis ?
Glycolysis is the metabolic pathway that converts glucose (C6H12O6) to pyruvate (CH3COCO2H). The free energy released in this process is used to form the reduced high-energy molecules adenosine triphosphate (ATP) and nicotinamide adenine dinucleotide (NADH). Glycolysis is a series of ten reactions catalyzed by enzymes.
Summary of 10 reactions of the fecal pathway
Glycolysis is a metabolic pathway that does not require oxygen (Under anaerobic conditions, pyruvate is converted to lactic acid). The striking presence of glycolysis in other species suggests that it is an archaic metabolic pathway. Indeed, the reactions that make up glycolysis and its parallel pathway, the pentose phosphate pathway, which occurred in the oxygen-free conditions of the ancient oceans, as well as the absence of enzymes, were catalyzed by metal.
Fermentation produces far less ATP than aerobic respiration, although it does create NAD+, which may be utilised in glycolysis.
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The order in which plants appeared in the fossil record along with analysis of their anatomy have helped scientists establish the main groups of land plants. Which of the following is the correct order of how land plants evolved?
flowering plants, seed plants, vascular plants that gave rise to ferns, low growing plants with spores
low growing plants with spores, seed plants, flowering plants, vascular plants that gave rise to ferns
low growing plants with spores, vascular plants that gave rise to ferns, seed plants, flowering plants
low growing plants with spores, vascular plants that gave rise to ferns, flowering plants, seed plants
Answers
Fossil records which shows the correct order in which plants appeared is low growing plants with spores, vascular plants that gave rise to ferns, seed plants, flowering plants. Thus, the correct option is C.
What are fossil record?
A fossil record is a group of fossils which has been analyzed and arranged in a chronological order and in the taxonomic order. Fossils are created when a living organism die, and are incased in dirt and rock. These are slowly replaced by minerals over a certain period of time. The remains of living organisms is a mineral impression of an animal which once existed there.
Fossils are important as they provide important evidence for evolution and adaptation of plants and animals to their environments. The correct order of plant evolution is low growing plants with spores, vascular plants that gave rise to ferns, seed plants, flowering plants.
Therefore, the correct option is C.
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which of the six basic nutrient might a person need to restric after an operation to remove the gallbladder? why?
Answers
You need to restrict lipids as the bile works on fats which is stored in the gall bladder until secretion.
What is Gall bladder?One of those organs that you usually don't give much thought to till something goes wrong is the gallbladder.
Bile, which aids in the body's breakdown and digestion of the fats you consume, is its primary purpose. It doesn't make bile; your liver does, and it enters your small intestine during meals via the common bile duct.
The majority of bile produced by the small intestine is transported to the gallbladder, where it is stored until it is required again. In the small intestine, where partially digested food is also present, your gallbladder releases bile when you ingest fatty meals.
Therefore, You need to restrict lipids as the bile works on fats which is stored in the gall bladder until secretion.
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Which cell organelle does cyanobacteria resemble to with its function?
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Answer:
Cyanobacteria, also known as blue-green algae, are photosynthetic prokaryotes that produce oxygen as a byproduct of photosynthesis. In this respect, cyanobacteria resemble the chloroplasts found in plant and algal cells, which are also responsible for photosynthesis.
Like chloroplasts, cyanobacteria have an outer membrane and an inner membrane that enclose the photosynthetic pigments. These pigments, such as chlorophyll, capture light energy and convert it into chemical energy. The inner membrane of cyanobacteria is also folded into thylakoid stacks, similar to the thylakoid membranes found in chloroplasts.
Thus, while cyanobacteria are not eukaryotes and do not have cell organelles, their function as photosynthetic organisms is similar to that of the chloroplasts found in eukaryotic cells.
Explanation:
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Within vascular plants, the large, prominent plant is the _______; in nonvascular plants it is the _______.
A. gametophyte; sporophyte
B. sporophyte; gametophyte
C. gametophyte; gametophyte
D. sporophyte; sporophyte
E. None of the above
Answers
Within vascular plants, the large, prominent plant is the _______; in nonvascular plants it is the _______: B. sporophyte; gametophyte.
Plants have haploid and diploid stages in which the age and shift occur. The haploid period of the plant is known as the gametophyte and the diploid period of the plant is known as the sporophyte. The sporophyte creates spores in the plants while the gametophyte produces the gametes in the plants.
Difference Between Gametophyte and Sporophyte
Sporophytes
Sporophytes utilize the course of meiosis
Brings about the arrangement of spores
Sporophytes are diploid plants
Sporophytes have two arrangements of chromosomes
Sporophytes repeat asexually
Diploid spore mother cell goes through meiosis and results in the arrangement of haploid (n) meiospores
Gametophytes
Gametophytes utilize the course of mitosis
Brings about the creation of gametes
Gametophytes are haploid plants
Gametophytes have a solitary arrangement of chromosomes
Gametophytes produce sexually
The gametes partake in treatment or breaker, which leads to diploid (2n) zygote
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which of the following would contain the greater number of touch receptors? inside of the forearm, back of the hand, or tip of the index finger
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Tip of the index finger contain the greater number of touch receptors.
Because the tip of the index finger has more sensory neurons than the forearm or back of the hand. There is a larger brain area devoted to receiving their signals when an area has more sensory neurons, resulting in greater sensitivity.
In comparison to the skin on the back, the fingertips have around 100 times more receptors per square centimeter. As a result, the cortical area that gets input from the fingertips is much larger than the area that receives input from skin on the back because more CNS neurons must be devoted to receiving fingertip sensations.
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glycolysis, which provides energy by breaking down carbohydrates like glucose, relates to activities lasting .
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Activities lasting under three minutes are referred to as glycolysis, which produces energy by destroying carbs like glucose.
The decomposition of carbohydrates is known as glycolysis. Physical exercise lasts for around 10 seconds to between two and three minutes. Glucose or the stored form of glucose, glycogen, provides the energy for glycolysis.
Depending on the kind of workout and nutrition, restoring all of the glycogen in the body might take many hours or even days. Restoration for intermittent exercises, such as regular strength or endurance training, takes two hours to recover 40%, five hours to recover 55%, and twenty-four hours to fully restore 100%.
Every day, either with or without oxygen, it occurs. And while doing so, some energy is transferred to ATP.
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FILL IN THE BLANK The line of evidence that relies on examining distributions of organisms across the planet in order to determine evolutionary relationships is ______
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The line of evidence that relies on examining distributions of organisms across the planet in order to determine evolutionary relationships is biogeographical.
In the field of biology, such features that combine biological study with a geographical study are referred to as the biogeographical aspects of something.
When the geographical distribution of organisms is considered in order to understand the biological aspect of evolutionary relationships, then in such a case, the line of evidence is the biogeographical aspect. This will help in determining the evolutionary history of organisms based on their locations.
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which of the following lies under the skin covering the lateral and posterior surfaces of the mandible?
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The lateral and posterior surfaces of the mandible are covered in parotid salivary glands that are located beneath the skin.
On each side of the face, directly in front of the ears, are the parotid glands, which produce saliva. To help in chewing and digestion, salivary glands create saliva. The lips, cheeks, mouth, and throat all include salivary glands. Major salivary glands called parotid glands are found just in front of and beneath each ear. Our parotid glands generate saliva (spit), similar to our other major salivary glands (submandibular and sublingual), to keep our mouth moist and to help with eating and digestion. Salivary glands called parotids, which are situated between the ear and the jaw, become painfully swollen when we have parotitis. A virus, like the mumps, herpes, or Epstein-Barr, is the most frequent cause. Parotitis can also be brought on by bacterial infections, diabetes, salivary gland tumors or stones, and dental issues.
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how is the sensory somatic nervous system involved in sensing information and motor function
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The sensory nervous system is responsible for receiving and processing sensory information from the body's senses, such as sight, sound, touch, taste, and smell. This information is collected by specialized sensory receptors, such as photoreceptors in the eyes or auditory receptors in the ears, and is transmitted to the brain and spinal cord via sensory neurons.
The motor nervous system, on the other hand, is responsible for controlling the movement of the muscles and organs of the body. It does this by transmitting motor signals from the brain and spinal cord to the muscles and organs via motor neurons. These signals cause the muscles to contract and relax, allowing for the movement of the body and its various parts.
Together, the sensory and motor nervous systems work together to allow the body to sense and respond to the external environment, enabling the coordination of movement and the performance of various functions and tasks.
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The inheritance of a skin condition in humans
The inheritance of eye color in Drosophila is controlled by genes on each of the fly's four chromosome pairs. One eye-color gene is on the fly's X chromosome, so the trait is inherited in a sex-linked manner. For this sex-linked trait, the wild-type (brick red) allele is dominant over the mutant vermilion (bright red) allele.
A homozygous wild-type female fly is mated with a vermilion male fly.
Predict the eye colors of F1 and F2 generations. (Assume that the F1 flies are allowed to interbreed to produce the F2 generation.)
F1 Female = All ______________
F1 Males = All _____________
F2 Females = All ______________
F2 Males = 1/2 ________, 1/2 _________
Both F1 females and F1 males will have the wild-type eye color, but because the trait is sex-linked, F1 females will be heterozygous for the trait.
As a result, F2 males have a 1/2 chance of inheriting each allele, and thus of having that eye color. F2 females, on the other hand, will all have the wild-type eye color because they inherit the dominant allele on the X chromosome from their fathers (the F1 males).
Answers
F1 Female = All wildtype
F1 Males = All wildtype
F2 Females = All wildtype
F2 Males = 1/2 wildtype, 1/2 vermilion
Vermilion (Xᵛ⁺), which is a sex-related characteristic, is subordinated to the wild-type allele (Xᵛ⁺). Male and female flies each have an X and a Y chromosome, but male and female flies only have one of each. An XᵛY male fly and an Xᵛ⁺Xᵛ⁺ homozygous wild-type female fly are mated. There are only Xᵛ⁺ gametes that the female parent can create. It depends on the male parent whether Xᵛ or Y gametes are produced.
The genotypes Xᵛ⁺Xᵛ (females with wild type eyes) and Xᵛ⁺ Y (males with Y-chromosomes) will be present in the F1 offspring after the gametes from both parents mate (males with wild type eyes).
F1 females have the ability to produce Xᵛ⁺ and Xᵛ gametes. F1 males have the ability to create Xᵛ⁺ and Y gametes. Gametes combine to create F2 children when F1 people interbreed. The following gamete combinations could result in the various genotypes and phenotypes in the F2 population:
Xᵛ⁺Xᵛ⁺ females with wild type eyes
Xᵛ⁺ Y males with wild type eyes
Xᵛ Xᵛ⁺ females with wild type eyes
Xᵛ Y males with vermilion eyes
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FILL IN THE BLANK. dr. watson is interested in the effects that higher than normal amounts of testosterone have on the gender of embryos. dr. watson favors the___approach.
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Dr. Watson is interested in the effects that higher than normal amounts of testosterone have on the gender of embryos. Dr. Watson favors the biological approach.
Does testosterone levels affect baby gender?In mammals, high parental testosterone levels present around the time of conception are thought to skew offspring sex ratio toward sons. The second to fourth digit ratio is now widely accepted as a negative correlate of prenatal testosterone.Testosterone can contribute to individual differences within each sex in gender-related characteristics, as well as to differences between the sexes, and the influences of testosterone are generally linear and graded, with increasing doses of testosterone producing increasingly large effects. Thus amount of testosterone will affect gender of embryos.Learn more about determine baby gender here: brainly.com/question/3216782
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A group of students are reviewing material about endocrine system function. The students demonstrate understanding of the information when they identify which of the following as secreted by the adrenal medulla?Epinephrine
Answers
D) Epinephrine is secreted by the adrenal medulla.
Both epinephrine and norepinephrine are secreted by the adrenal medulla. Glucocorticoids, mineralocorticoids, and trace levels of androgenic sex hormones are produced and secreted by the adrenal cortex. The pancreas releases glucagon.
Epinephrine, commonly known as adrenaline, is a hormone that is largely generated by the medulla of the adrenal glands and has two main functions: it increases cardiac output and blood glucose levels.
The stimulatory effects of epinephrine, which are often released under acute stress, strengthen and prepare a person for either "fight or flight."
The only structural difference between epinephrine and norepinephrine is the presence of a methyl group on the nitrogen side chain.
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Complete Question:
A group of students are reviewing material about endocrine system function. The students demonstrate understanding of the information when they identify which of the following as secreted by the adrenal medulla?
A) Glucocorticoids
B) Mineralocorticoids
C) Glucagon
D) Epinephrine
Three newborn babies have been separated from their parents. You need to make sure that each child is reunited with the proper set of parents_ The data below was gathered by amplifying two VNTR loci in each baby and the possible parents. Fragments were then separated using gel electrophoresis. Assume that each parent couple had only one of the babies_ Match the babies with the proper parents. VNTR Locus Baby 1 Baby 2 Baby 3 Mike Molly Jim Judy Adam Amy VNTR Locus 2 Baby 1 Baby 2 Baby 3 Mike Molly Jim Judy Adam Amy Baby Choose Choose Baby 3 Choose_ Baby
Answers
Fragments were then separated using gel electrophoresis. Assume that each parent couple had only one of the babies. The babies with the proper parents is:
Baby 1 - MIKE AND MOLLY
Baby 2 - ADAM AND AMY
Baby 3 - JIM AND JUDY
Each parents should have a band corresponding to the band for the baby.
For eg, For Baby 1. JIM AND JUDY is not a possibility since their VNTR 1 does not have a band corresponding to the baby band. ADAM AND AMY is also not possible since in VNTR 2, the upper band is not present for neither of the parents.
Like wise, you can look for the Baby 2 and Baby 3 by ruling out parents.
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I need help, I have no idea what the pictures mean. (20 points)
Answers
Answer: You just need to match the symbols to the rock type and environment it represents.
Explanation:
Igneous rocks form when hot, molten rock crystallizes and solidifies.
Sandstone is a clastic sedimentary rock composed mainly of sand-sized silicate grains.
Limestone is a type of carbonate sedimentary rock which is the main source of the material lime. It is composed mostly of the minerals calcite and aragonite, which are different crystal forms of CaCO₃.
Shale is a fine-grained sedimentary rock that forms from the compaction of silt and clay-size mineral particles and is easily broken into thin, parallel layers.
What is true about an iris scan?
O It picks out the unique characteristics of each person's iris.
OIt would not require a database.
O Many police departments are currently using iris scans for identifying missing persons.
O All of the above
Answers
Answer:
First one It picks out the unique characteristics of each person's iris. is the correct answer
Iris scans, particularly highlight each individual's distinctive iris traits and do not need a database, are already being used by many police departments to locate missing people.
Iris scans are a biometric identification method that uses the unique patterns in the iris of the eye to identify a person. The iris is the colored part of the eye, and it is made up of a complex pattern of blood vessels and fibers that is unique to each person.
Iris scans are very accurate, and they are becoming increasingly popular for use in security applications.
Many police departments are currently using iris scans to identify missing persons, and they are also being used in airports and other secure facilities.
Therefore, the answer is all of the above.
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a phylogenetic tree of bird families constructed by cladistic analysis would be a hypothesis about which of the following?
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A theory concerning the evolutionary links of bird groups would be a phylogenetic tree of bird families created through cladistic analysis.
A phylogenetic tree depicts the link between several creatures by tracing the course of evolution from a shared ancestor to various offspring. The links between people in a population to the whole Earth's history of life may all be represented by trees.
The most popular technique for creating phylogenetic trees is cladistics. Based on evolutionary ancestry, it produces cladograms, which are trees. Clades, which are collections of organisms made up of an ancestor species as well as its offspring, are also identified through cladistics.
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FILL IN THE BLANK. in a nucleotide, the nitrogenous base is attached to the sugar's___carbon and the phosphate group is attached to the sugar's___carbon.
Answers
In a nucleotide, the nitrogenous base is attached to the sugar's 1 carbon and the phosphate group is attached to the sugar's 5 carbon.
The combination of biological nitrogen-containing molecules known as nucleobases, also known as nitrogenous bases or, more commonly, just bases, results in nucleosides, which go on to become parts of nucleotides, the fundamental constituents of nucleic acids. Long-chain helical forms like ribonucleic acid (RNA) and deoxyribonucleic acid are made possible by the nucleobases' capacity to pair and stack one another (DNA). The five basic or conventional nucleobases are adenine (A), cytosine (C), guanine (G), thymine (T), and uracil (U) (U). The nucleotides A, G, C, and T found in DNA and A, G, C, and U found in RNA are the basic building blocks of the genetic code.
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Mention and explain different types of grafting (with crop examples).
Answers
Grafting is a process that unites two plants to create a single plant. In order for the tissue of both plants to grow together, a cut is typically made on one plant, and the other plant is then inserted into it.
Types of grafting -
Cleft grafting - Cleft grafting is a technique for changing the variety of fruiting and blooming trees. example - apples, cherries, pears, and peaches.Bark grafting - Bark grafting is mostly used to top work fruit and flower trees. Unlike cleft grafting, this method can be used on rootstock with a diameter of 4 to 12 inches, and it is carried out in the early spring. Example - persimmon, mango, etcSide veneer grafting - The most common method for grafting conifers, particularly those with a compact or dwarf form, is this method. On potted rootstock, side-veneer grafting is typically carried out. Example - pinus and spruceSplice grafting - To attach a scion to the stem of a rootstock or to an unbroken rootpiece, splice grafting is utilised. This straightforward technique is typically used on herbaceous materials that calluses or "knits."Bridge grafting - A plant's sick or damaged section can be "bridged" by bridge grafting, typically at or near the base of the trunk.Inarch grafting - Similar to bridge grafting, inarching is used to support or go around a plant stem's weak or damaged section.To know more about grafting click here
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a nucleus with mass number and atomic number undergoes decay (positron emission). the mass number and atomic number, respectively, of the product nucleus are
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Alpha decay, in general, decreases the atomic number (Z) by two and the mass number (A) by four. For example, alpha decay generates Rn-222 with atomic number 86 and mass number 222 from Ra-226 with atomic number 88 and mass number 226.
The electron is ejected as a particle, but the proton remains in the nucleus, raising the atomic number while remaining constant in mass.
One of the neutrons in the nucleus unexpectedly turns into a proton during beta decay, raising the atomic number of an element.
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three species of north american frogs, leopard frogs, green frogs, and wood frogs, all mate in the same ponds, but they pair off correctly because they have different mating calls. this is a specific example of a barrier, called . group of answer choices prezygotic ... temporal isolation prezygotic ... gametic isolation prezygotic ... behavioral isolation postzygotic ... behavioral isolation
Answers
The three species of North American frogs, leopard frogs, green frogs, and wood frogs, all mate in the same ponds, but they pair off correctly due to their different mating calls, which is an example of prezygotic behavioral isolation.
Prezygotic isolation is a reproductive barrier that prevents mating between species, or prevents the fusion of gametes, and is caused by external behaviors that prevent mating. In this case, the different mating calls of the three species act as a barrier, keeping them separate when they are in the same pond.
Behavioral isolation is a type of prezygotic isolation in which two species do not mate because their courting behaviors are different. The different mating calls of the three frog species are a form of behavioral isolation because the frogs are unable to recognize each other as potential mates, due to the difference in their mating calls. This barrier keeps the species from interbreeding, even when they are in the same pond.
In contrast to prezygotic isolation, postzygotic isolation occurs after mating and is caused by physiological or developmental differences that prevent the fertilized egg from developing into a viable offspring. In the case of the three frog species, there are no postzygotic barriers, as they are all able to mate successfully, and their offspring can develop into viable frogs.
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which of the following are virulence factors used by helicobacter pylori to facilitate the development of stomach ulcers?
Answers
Polar flagella and VacA toxin production are factors used by helicobacter pylori to facilitate the development of stomach ulcers.
The protective lining of the stomach and small intestine can be harmed by H. pylori. This might enable stomach acid to cause an open wound (ulcer). In about 10% of H. pylori carriers, an ulcer will form. lining of the stomach inflamed.
Urease is a crucial component of H. pylori virulence and is necessary for the bacteria to colonize the human gastric mucosa.
Particular Virulence Elements
Colonization and Adherence Factors. Many bacteria must first stick to a mucosal surface in order to spread illness, Influences of invasion, Other Surface Components and Capsules, Endotoxins, Endotoxin's chemical make-up.
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Please help!
Which of the following apply to RBC compatibility?
A. D donor antibody must recognize a cell surface molecule ( antigen) on the recipient (patient) RBC that results in a binding event
B. C. donor RBCs must have a cell surface molecule (antigen) recognized by recipient (patient) antibody that results in
a binding event
C. E. none of the above apply
D. A. recipient (patient) antibody must not recognize cell surface molecule (antigen) on the donor RBCs that results in
no binding
E. B. recipient (patient) RBCs must not recognize donor antibody that results in no binding
Answers
Donor RBC must have a cell surface molecules recognise by recipient antibody that result in a binding event.
What is RBC?Red blood cells, also this is referred to as red cells, red blood corpuscles and haematids, erythroid cells or to the erythrocytes, are the most common type of the blood cell and this is the vertebrate's principals of to the means of delivering the oxygen to the body tissues—via the blood flow through to the circulatory system.
In the context of blood by the transfusions, a blood is match is a compatibility of the between the donor's and blood and to the recipient's blood. This does not not always mean anything identical blood of match. Red blood cells from the a donor that is type of O+ can be transfused into patients of four different of blood types: A+, B+, AB+, and of course O+.
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Your body contains tens of thousands of different proteins, each with a specific structure and function. The unique three-dimensional shape of each of these diverse proteins is based on several superimposed levels of structure. Which if the following is an accurate statement about proteins?
The primary structure of a protein is the order of amino acids in a polypeptide, as coded for by the DNA of a gene.
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Proteins are complex molecules that are essential for the functioning of all living organisms. They are composed of amino acids which vary in sequence, size, and shape. The structure of a protein is based on several different levels of organization, from the most basic primary structure to the most complex quaternary structure.
The primary structure of a protein is the specific sequence of amino acids linked together by peptide bonds to form a polypeptide chain. This sequence is determined by the DNA of a gene, which codes for the order of the amino acids. The secondary structure of a protein is made up of hydrogen bonds that form between the peptide backbone of the polypeptide chain. It consists of regular repeating patterns of structure, such as the alpha helix and the beta pleated sheet.
The tertiary structure of a protein is the three-dimensional shape of the polypeptide chain, which is determined by the folding and interactions of the secondary structure elements. The quaternary structure of a protein is the arrangement of two or more polypeptide chains that interact with each other. This structure is determined by the interactions between the tertiary structures of the individual polypeptide chains.
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proto-oncogenes can change into oncogenes that cause cancer. which of the following best explains the presence of these potential time bombs in eukaryotic cells?
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The option that best explains the presence of these possible time bombs in eukaryotic cells is proto-oncogenes normally help regulate cell division. Correct answer: letter D.
Proto-oncogenes are normally involved in regulating cell growth, differentiation and survival in eukaryotic cells. When certain changes occur to these genes, they can become “activated” (or mutated) and can lead to uncontrolled cell proliferation, which can result in the formation of cancerous tumors. Thus, proto-oncogenes can act as possible “time bombs” that can contribute to the development of cancer if activated.
What are proto-oncogenes?Are normal genes found in cells that have the potential to cause cancer if they mutate or are expressed at high levels. Proto-oncogenes encode proteins that are involved in cell growth and division, and when mutated or expressed at high levels, can cause cells to proliferate uncontrollably.
In addition to point mutations, retroviruses can also cause proto-oncogenes to become activated. Retroviruses are viruses that can insert their genetic material into the DNA of our cells. In doing so, they can activate proto-oncogenes, leading to uncontrolled cell growth and division.
Proto-oncogene can change into oncogenes that cause cancer. Which of the following best explains the presence of these potential time bombs in eukaryotic cells?
A) Proto-oncogenes first arose from viral infections.
B) Proto-oncogenes are mutant versions of normal genes.
C) Proto-oncogenes are genetic “ junk.”
D) Proto-oncogenes normally help regulate cell division.
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