Jill is a vegan. To avoid developing a serious nutritional deficiency , she wants to include a source of Vitamin B12 in her diet.
Red blood cells and DNA must be formed, which requires vitamin B12. Additionally, it plays a significant role in the growth and operation of brain and nerve cells. The protein in the foods we eat forms a bond with vitamin B12. Vitamin B12 becomes free vitamin in the stomach when enzymes and hydrochloric acid break its bond.A daily dose of 6 micrograms of vitamin B12 is the recommended daily intake (RDI). Deficiencies are frequent, particularly in those who consume a vegetarian or vegan diet. In fact, it's estimated that up to 90% of those who follow these diets are deficient in some way.learn more about Vitamin B12 here: https://brainly.com/question/22468338
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Think about how the two-process theory would explain the perpetuation of a phobia. Specifically, how would the two-process theory explain the initial development of a phobia, and how would it explain how the phobia could continue for a very long time?
Mowrer's two-factor theory gives us a valuable starting point for dealing with many of those manifestations in which fear limits well-being.
How would the two process theory explain the early development of a phobia and how would it explain how the phobia could continue for a long time?The Doctor Orval Hobart Mowrer focused his research on behaviorism. He established that the first process that involves the emergence of phobias and many anxiety disorders is classical conditioning:
A seemingly neutral and innocuous stimulus (an airplane, a spider, a work scene, a crowded supermarket, etc.) suddenly becomes a painful or traumatic stimulus.
With this information, we can conclude that after suffering the impact of classical conditioning (a specific stimulus acquires a painful connotation), it would be enough to avoid this situation to return to normality. However, when it comes to phobias and anxiety, the brain works differently.
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According to the ASCM guidelines if you are just getting back in to muscular fitness the recommendation is for you to participate in _________.
According to the ASCM guidelines if you are just getting back in to muscular fitness the recommendation is for you to participate in 150 minutes of moderate intensity exercise per week.
The American College of Sports Medicine (ASCM) has several recommendations:
All healthy individuals between the ages of 18 and 65 should exercise for at least 30 minutes, five days a week, at a moderate level, or for at least 20 minutes, three days a week, at a vigorous intensity.According to the American College of Sports Medicine (ACSM), a strength training program should be done at least twice a week on different days, with one set of 8 to 12 repetitions for adults in good health and 10 to 15 repetitions for elderly and weak people.Start out slowly and progressively up the difficulty of your workouts.Never do two days of strength training on the same body part.Always keep the right form and technique.Maintaining appropriate form should be challenging for the final few repetitions.learn more about ASCM guidelines here: https://brainly.com/question/9640515
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One of the following structures that does not pass
under the inferior extensor retinaculum of the
foot is:
A. Deep peroneal nerve
B. Tibialis anterior
C. Extensor hallucis longus
D. Anterior tibial artery
E. Superficial peroneal nerve
One of the following structures that do not pass under the inferior extensor retinaculum of the foot is The tibialis anterior. Option B. This is further explained below.
What is the Tibialis anterior.?Generally, The tibialis anterior muscle, which may also be referred to as the tibialis anticus muscle, is the biggest of the four muscles that are located in the anterior compartment of the leg.
In conclusion, The tibialis anterior tendon (TAT) inserts distally on the medial edge of the foot. Its large muscular belly originates from its proximal connection at the lateral tibia.
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A/An ____________________ is a surgical procedure to correct myopia by making incisions in the cornea to cause it to flatten.
A/An radial keratotomy is a surgical procedure to correct myopia by making incisions in the cornea to cause it to flatten.
Myopia or nearsightedness is treated with a type of refractive surgery called radial keratotomy (RK). RK, which was invented in Russia in the 1970s by Svyatoslav Fyodorov, a Russian ophthalmologist, was the first refractive surgical technique to become popular in North America.
In an RK surgery, the cornea is flattened by use of a series of small, deep incisions. As myopia is frequently caused by an excessive corneal curvature, this surgery will ideally aid to lessen nearsightedness and astigmatism.
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A practitioner order is for a continuous infusion of insulin
A practitioner order is for a continuous infusion of insulin by using insulin pump therapy.
What is insulin?Insulin is a type of hormone that is secreted by the islets of langerhans in the pancreas. it is used mainly for the metabolism of glucose in the body.
A continuous infusion of insulin can be prescribed by a practitioner to a patient suffering from type 1 diabetes.
The insulin pump therapy is used for this purpose because it mimics a physiological way of delivering the insulin into the body.
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A 7-year-old patient goes into sudden cardiac arrest. You initiate cpr and correctly perform chest compressions at which rate?.
Answer:
100 to 120 per minute.
Explanation:
.
which would be included in the nursing care for a client at 41 weeks' gestation who is scheduled for a contraction stress test
Emptying the client’s bladder would be included in the nursing care for a client at 41 weeks' gestation who is scheduled for a contraction stress test.
The contraction stress test (CST) is a test for pregnant women. It will check your baby for signs of stress during uterine contractions. During the test, your nurse will give you a hormone that causes your uterus to contract. These contractions are similar to labor contractions, but usually do not initiate labor. When the test starts, the client will require continuous electronic monitoring and will be restricted to bed; contractions are more uncomfortable with a full bladder, so the client is suggested to empty her bladder for some relief.
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Healthy individuals who are not in periods of growth or recovering from an illness or injury need to consume protein in an amount that is ______ the amount lost in urine, feces, sweat, skin cells, hair, and nails.
Healthy individuals who are not in periods of growth or recovering from an illness or injury need to consume protein in an amount that is equal to the amount lost in the urine, feces, sweat, skin cells, hair, and nails.
A lack of protein can make you lose muscle groups, which in turn cuts your power, makes it more difficult to preserve your balance, and slows your metabolism. it is able to additionally result in anemia, whilst your cells do not get sufficient oxygen, which makes you tired.
Someone is stated to be in nitrogen balance when the nitrogen input equals the amount of nitrogen used and excrete. someone is in negative nitrogen balance whilst the amount of excreted nitrogen is extra than that eaten up, which means that the body is breaking down extra protein to fulfill its needs.
A story review of the studies and smaller research has recommended better protein intakes between 2.2 to a few. Four grams/kg (1 to 1.5 grams consistent with a pound of frame weight) for the duration of a massive calorie surplus (to promote weight advantage) outcomes in decreased profits in body fat promoting extra muscle average (14,15).
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. ____________ is an example of a legalized recreational stimulant drug.
25. The insanity defense is attempted in about _______% of cases and is
successful about _____% of the time.
Marijuana is an example of a legalized recreational stimulant drug.
25. The insanity defense is attempted in about 1% of cases and is
successful about a fraction of those.
What is legalized recreational stimulant?Of the total of 50 US states, 20 allow the use of marijuana for recreational and medical use. Restrictions on the amount of possession vary with each legislation, as well as for domestic cannabis cultivation.
What is insanity defense?While cases invoking the insanity defense usually get a lot of media attention, the defense is actually not raised very often. Virtually all studies conclude that the insanity defense is raised in less than 1% of criminal cases and is successful in only a fraction of those.
With this information, we can conclude that the insanity defense refers to a defense that a defendant can plead in a criminal trial.
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You are assessing a 28-year-old patient and you notice he has pinpoint pupils. You suspect a drug overdose. What drug is the likely cause of this phenomenon?
According to the research, heroin drug is the likely cause of this phenomenon of pinpoint pupils in the 28-year-old patient.
What is heroin?It is an opioid with narcotic properties (generates drowsiness and modifies sensitivity) and sedatives.
The effect of heroin is very intense and fast, causing a depression of the central nervous system and can cause pinpoint pupils.
Therefore, we can conclude that according to the research, heroin drug is the likely cause of this phenomenon of pinpoint pupils in the 28-year-old patient.
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When providing care for a toddler with hemophilia who is being prepped for an elective procedure, which nursing action is priority
When providing care for a toddler with hemophilia who is being prepped for an elective procedure, the nursing action which is a priority is to ensure that all the side bed trails are padded.
Hemophilia: It is a severe medical condition in which the individual loses the ability to clot the blood due to which even a minor cut results in severe bleeding circumstances. The condition is typically caused by a hereditary lack of a coagulation factor, most often factor VIII.
Elective procedure: This is the broad term used for the surgical process related to any diseased condition which is scheduled to provide a better quality of life.
Now, a nurse taking care of a toddler with hemophilia should ensure that she will not expose the child to any sharp or fragile or kind of object or situation resulting in even a small scratch on the toddler's body because even a small cut can lead to severe bleeding and blood loss will not be favorable just before the surgery.
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Scenario: The patient questions the accuracy of the glucose readings obtained using their glucometer. The medical assistant requests that the patient bring their glucometer to the office so the results can be compared with the glucometer used by the clinic. Also that the medical assistant demonstrates the use of a control on the patients device.
The medical assistant should reassure the patient of the accuracy of the glucometer readings by speaking kindly and repeating testing with a control.
What is the best way for the medical assistant to help the patient?A medical assistant seeking to assist a patient should treat the patient in a respectful and kind.
Given a scenario where a patient doubts the accuracy of the glucose reading from the glucometer. The medical assistant should respectfully demonstrate to the patient when he brings his own glucometer how to use the glucometer.
The medical assistant should also use a control on both glucometers to demonstrate the accuracy of the readings.
In conclusion, treating the patient in a kind and respectful will reassure and convince the patient.
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The most effective and least expensive treatment of puerperal infection is prevention. What is important in this strategy?
The important strategy to prevent puerperal infection include Strict aseptic technique which includes hand washing by all health care personnel involved.
What is puerperal infection?A puerperal infection occurs when bacteria infect the uterus and surrounding areas after a woman gives birth.Also known as a postpartum infectionAbout 10% of pregnancy related deaths are caused by these infections.It is caused due to trauma to the abdominal wall, genital and urinary tracts during childbirth or abortion.This trauma allows bacteria to enter normally sterile environments of genital tract.The most common puerperal infection is endometritis (inflammation of the uterine lining).Learn about bacterial infections here:
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The medical assistant applies pressure to the venipuncture site using gauze. After two minutes the medical assistant observes that bleeding has not stopped. The next appropriate action would be to
To elevate the arm while applying pressure would be the next appropriate action.
What is venipuncture?A process when blood is drawn from a vein using a needle, typically for laboratory examination. Venipuncture can also be used to treat some blood diseases by removing extra red blood cells from the blood.
The median cubital and cephalic veins are commonly used for venipuncture. The vein is punctured with a needle. The blood gathers into a tube or vial that is linked to the needle and is sealed. You take off the elastic band from your arm. After removing the needle, the area is bandaged to halt the bleeding. Pressure should be applied to a venipuncture site for at least 5 minutes.
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which is the purpose of encouraging active leg and foot excercises for a client who has had hip surgery
Encouraging active leg and foot exercises for a client who has had hip surgery helps increase muscle flexibility and strength, which helps protect joints and it promotes healing by increasing blood flow.
hope this helps :)
Answer:
To increase blood flow throughout your legs, which will decrease swelling and help with recovery.
How do nutrition experts come to a consensus in order to formulate health promoting guidelines to the public
To put dietary recommendations into practice, it is made up of nutritionists who operate in many contexts, such as state and local health agencies, community nutrition programs, policy and advocacy organizations, educational institutions at all levels, and research facilities.
How do nutritionist formulate health promoting guidelines to public?
Traditional education programs need to be updated in order to better the knowledge of nutrition specialists and their abilities to instruct a wide range of audiences to base their eating habits on dietary guidelines.
For instance, in addition to emphasizing the scientific foundation of the recommendations, courses must also highlight the social and behavioral components of promoting dietary changes. Curriculums should also include pertinent information from the agriculture and food sciences. This necessitates a careful balance. The practical aspects of nutrition and dietary change may be overlooked if the scientific underpinnings are given too much weight.
The rising body of research on diet has to be incorporated into programs by public health and other community-based nutrition specialists that actively promote health among target populations. Increase the degree of understanding of food, nutrition, and the connections between diet and health among all medical professionals. Establish a distinct program with ultimate responsibility for planning and developing a research and education agenda in human nutrition within the faculty of each health-care professional school. Create a program at the Public Health Service to aid in faculty members' nutrition education. For each of the accredited graduate programs in the healthcare professions, the objective should be to have at least one nutrition faculty member per health-care professional school.
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Vitamin B6 is a collective term for three naturally occurring substances that are all metabolically and functionally related. Vitamin B6 _________.
CH E6 has broader requirements than FDA or HHS concerning confidentiality of medical records and access by third parties. If investigators are complying with ICH E6 guideline, they must:
If investigators are complying with ICH E6 guideline, they must: Clearly disclose to subjects in the informed consent form that the monitor, auditor, IRB/IEC, and the regulatory authorities may have access to the subject's medical records.
What are ICH E6 guidelines?
In order to discuss and produce ICH recommendations, the International Council for Harmonization of Technical Requirements for Pharmaceuticals for Human Use (ICH) brings together regulatory agencies and the pharmaceutical sector. Beyond the membership and regional representation of ICH itself, the ICH E6 Good Clinical Practice (GCP) Guideline is extensively used by clinical trial researchers and has a substantial effect on trial participants and patients.
The ICH E6 guidelines do not have the force of law in the U.S. and are not regulations.
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A researcher wants to study quality of sleep. She looks at the prior literature to identify an existing questionnaire that other researchers have developed and used to measure sleep quality. The questionnaire would be an example of which term?
The questionnaire would be an example of a consent term for scientific research.
What is a consent form?The Free and Informed Consent Term (ICF) is the document that, in addition to explaining the details of the research
justificationobjectivesproceduresdiscomfortsrisksbenefits and allocation groups, among other aspectsmust inform and ensure the rights of the participants.
With this information, we can conclude that the questionnaire would be an example of a consent term for scientific research.
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Impaired____
activity may be a major cause of erectile dysfunction.
A: dopamine
B. Acetylcholine
c. glutamate
D. nitric oxide
Answer:
dopamine
Explanation:
Which aspects of the physical assessment should the nurse include for a complete understanding of the client's physical health?
The aspect of the physical assessment that nurses should include for a complete understanding of the client's physical health is inspection.
What is Physical Assessment?Physical assessment may be defined as the methodology of estimating accurate anatomic conclusions through the use of various aspects.
Inspection is the first aspect of the physical assessment which involves the complete monitoring of the patient's external body parts and symptoms.
After the completion of this aspect, the nurses estimate a complete understanding of the client's physical health and what are they required as medical treatment.
Therefore, it is well described above.
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____________________ is characterized by sudden, severe, lightning-like pain due to an inflammation of the fifth cranial nerve.
Trigeminal neuralgia is characterized by sudden, severe, lightning-like pain due to an inflammation of the fifth cranial nerve.
Trigeminal neuralgia is characterized by painful electric shock-like sensations due to an inflammation of the fifth cranial nerve. This will affect the trigeminal nerve, which transmits sensations from the face to the brain and also controls the facial muscles. It is caused due to dental problems and various facial injuries that puts pressure on the trigeminal nerve. The pain can be on one side of the face. There is no specific test to diagnose trigeminal nerve problems. Only symptoms can tell about this condition.
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2. Myoclonus is best treated by:
What should you consider when evaluating the clinical significance of a clinical practice guideline recommendation
You should consider when evaluating the clinical significance of a clinical practice guideline recommendation that patient care should always be the best possible, and clinical practice guidelines inform the direction to optimize the care provided.
What are clinical practice guidelines?Clinical guidelines, in a broad sense, are informative documents that include recommendations aimed at optimizing patient care.
With this information, we can conclude that Clinical Practice Guidelines are statements/manifestos systematically developed to assist healthcare professionals in making decisions about appropriate healthcare for specific patients and circumstances.
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A client is preparing to leave the clinic after her first prenatal visit. What is important for the woman to do before she leaves the office
Make a follow-up appointment is important for the woman to do before she leaves the office.
What about prenatal visit?Pregnancy and prenatal care may educate women about critical actions they can take to safeguard their unborn child and ensure a healthy pregnancy, which can help prevent difficulties. Regular prenatal care helps women: Lower their risk of difficulties throughout pregnancy.Prenatal treatment should involve healthy eating and lifestyle choices both before and during pregnancy.Prenatal care lessens pregnancy complications and avoids issues with delivery.Learn crucial information about physical changes that could endanger the pregnancy or health from routine prenatal care.Learn more about pregnancy here:
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Mrs. Higgins believes that aliens from another planet have removed her stomach and are watching her to see how long it takes her to grow another one. Mrs. Higgins is most likely suffering from.
Answer:
Schizophrenia or Cotard delusion.
Explanation:
It could be 'schizophrenia' or 'Cotard delusion'. Since Mrs. Higgins is having illusions, it's probably related to schizophrenia. Cotard delusion is also another possibility, as it includes the person believing that their loss of limbs is reality.
Hope you have an amazing dayWhich vitamin is most difficult to obtain from natural dietary sources, although it may be found in several fortified foods
Which aspect of care at a long-term care facility most clearly suggests that a functional model of care delivery is being used
Option (a) i.e, Registered nurses perform all assessments while unlicensed assistive personnel provides all feeding and hygiene at a long-term care facility most clearly suggests that a functional model of care delivery is being used.
What is a care facility?A private facility that offers housing and treatment to elderly patients who are chronically ill.
Patients who are unable to live freely can get both medical and personal assistance services from long-term care institutions.
A variety of services known as long-term care are meant to assist people who are unable to take care of themselves. This circumstance may be ongoing due to chronic or progressive medical issues, disability, or age, for example, or it may be transient as a result of an accident, injury, or medical incident.
Long-term Care Comes in Three Forms:
Competent nursing,Senior Living,Healthcare at home.Short-term care is far more goal-oriented than long-term care. This kind of care is focused on assisting the patient is going home or getting back to their regular routine. Long-term care is usually intended to preserve the patient's health and quality of life as much as possible.
The complete question is:
Which aspect of care at a long-term care facility most clearly suggests that a functional model of care delivery is being used?
a) Registered nurses perform all assessments while unlicensed assistive personnel provides all feeding and hygiene.
b) Unlicensed assistive personnel coordinate each resident's care and occasionally delegate to practical nurses.
c) One nurse is assigned to provide all of a resident's care during a shift.
d) A pairing of one registered nurse and one practical nurse provides all the care for a designated pool of residents.
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In 2004, the AACN proposed a new doctoral degree, the doctor of nursing practice (DNP). What is the focus of the DNP degree in nursing
The DNP degree focuses on working in clinical practice rather than working in a research or academic capacity. Nurses with this advanced training often take a leadership role in the clinical setting to ensure high quality care. The DNP degree is a terminal degree - the highest degree that nurses can earn in their lifetime.
The practice-oriented DNP degree is the highest level of clinical nurse education. DNP programs can focus on advanced clinical care, evidence-based practice, leadership, and quality improvement. The DNP focuses more on administrative and leadership roles in the patient care process. The DNP degree requires coursework focused not only on more advanced clinical practice skills, but also on high-level organizational skills such as leadership, program management, health care administration, and health policy.
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Monica is an agent focused on serving seniors eligible for Medicare. As she reviews her records, she is trying to determine which of the following items are considered compensation. What do you tell her?
She reviews her records and she is trying to determine the items considered as compensation:
I. Commissions
II. Bonuses
IV. Referral fees
What is medicare?Medicade and medicare are the health insurance program started by the U.S. federal government.
People over the age of 65 are covered under this plan. The younger people with the certain disease condition are also eligible for this program.
Thus, I, II, and IV only Correct options.
I. Commissions
II. Bonuses
III. Mileage reimbursement
IV. Referral fees
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