In which type of reaction does a substance break down into its
components?
O decomposition
Oall reactions involve breaking down substances
O combustion
O acid-base

Answers

Answer 1

Answer:

yoyoyoyo

Explanation:


Related Questions

Lesson 1.2.2
Time of death
Temperature Measurements
How do you convert from Celsius to Fahrenheit? Convert each from Celsius to Fahrenheit
Answer:
0℃ 32 20℃ 68 50 ℃ 122
How will your team make it’s water bath & what does its water bath represent? To how many ℉ is 37℃ equal? What does the hot dog in the 37℃ water bath represent?
Answer: Answer:

Answers

To convert temperatures in degrees Fahrenheit to Celsius, one has to subtract 32 and multiply by .5556 (or 5/9).

To convert temperatures in degrees Celsius to Fahrenheit, multiply by 1.8 (or 9/5) and add 32.

How to calculate the temperature?

The physical concept of temperature expresses in numerical form how hot or cold something is. A thermometer is used to measure temperature.

The average kinetic energy of the particles inside an object is what determines its temperature, which is a way of expressing how hot or cold something is.

In this case, 37°C to Fahrenheit will be:

= (37 × 1.8) + 32

= 98.6° F

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Which wells/lanes (A-E; M is the reference well with DNA fragments of known sizes) contain fragments of DNA that are the same size as each other (included all similar fragments)?
What are the approximate sizes of the fragments?

Answers

PS100074 vector in vitro digested using purified Cas9 protein (Cat. No. TP790148) and particular sgRNA. Only when the purified Cas9 protein is combined with a particular sgRNA can it cut the substrate DNA.

The splitting or breaking of DNA strands into pieces is known as DNA fragmentation.

What do you mean by  DNA fragments ?

Cells can do it on purpose, laboratory workers can do it on purpose, or it can happen naturally. DNA fragmentation that occurs accidentally or spontaneously builds up over time in a cell.

The intrinsic causes of sperm DNA fragmentation include insufficient recombination, protamine imbalances, oxidative stress, and abortive apoptosis.Even in oocytes of high quality, sperm DNA fragmentation was inversely linked with blastulation and conception rates. High amounts of DNA damage encourage embryo arrest and cause the apoptotic pathway to be activated.

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When the vagus nerve is stimulated by pressure on the carotid sinus or by straining during a bowel movement, an electrical signal is sent down releasing what neurotransmitter

Answers

The neurotransmitter released when the vagus nerve is stimulated is acetylcholine.

When the vagus nerve is stimulated, it causes the release of acetylcholine in the brain and throughout the body. The release of acetylcholine causes the body to relax and can slow the heart rate and reduce blood pressure.

Acetylcholine also increases the production of mucous in the nose and throat, which helps protect the body from pathogens. Stimulation of the vagus nerve is one of the main ways the body regulates its autonomic functions, such as heart rate, blood pressure, and digestion.

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Classify the hypotheses about the dwarf planet pluto as falsifiable or non-falsifiable. pluto's surface is made mostly of frozen nitrogen. pluto has an unpleasant climate. pluto's orbit is slowing down due to tidal friction. pluto's landscape is dull and boring compared to other dwarf planets in its vicinity.

Answers

Falsifiability at pluto is the capacity for a claim, assertion, theory, or hypothesis to be proven false. That ability is a crucial part of the scientific method and hypothesis testing.

Pluto has a bad atmosphere.

Compared to other nearby minor planets, Pluto's scenery is uninteresting and uninspiring.

Most of the surface of Pluto is composed of frozen nitrogen.

Tidal friction is causing Pluto's orbit to slow down.

What do the terms "falsifiable" and "non-falsifiable" mean?

A falsifiable hypothesis is one that can be disproved using modern technological testing. On the other hand, the non-falsifiable hypothese cannot be disproven hypothesis because testing has shown them to be accurate.

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Pluto's surface is made mostly of frozen nitrogen.

This hypothesis is falsifiable. It can be tested through direct observation and analysis of Pluto's surface composition. By conducting close-up observations or sending a probe to Pluto, scientists can gather data to determine the composition of its surface and confirm or refute the hypothesis.

Pluto has an unpleasant climate.

This hypothesis is non-falsifiable. The term "unpleasant" is subjective and can vary depending on individual preferences or biases. What one person considers unpleasant, another might find intriguing or fascinating. Without a clear and objective definition of "unpleasant climate," it is not possible to conduct an empirical test to determine its validity.

Pluto's orbit is slowing down due to tidal friction.

This hypothesis is falsifiable. Scientists can study Pluto's orbit and collect data on its motion over an extended period. By analyzing the observed changes in its orbit and comparing them to the predictions of gravitational theory, they can evaluate whether tidal friction is causing the orbit to slow down or not.

Pluto's landscape is dull and boring compared to other dwarf planets in its vicinity.

This hypothesis is non-falsifiable. Similar to the second hypothesis, the terms "dull" and "boring" are subjective and dependent on personal interpretation. Different people may have different opinions about what constitutes an interesting or exciting landscape. Without a clear and objective criteria for assessing the dullness or boredom of a landscape, this hypothesis cannot be empirically tested.

In summary, the hypotheses about Pluto can be categorized as follows:

Falsifiable hypotheses:

Pluto's surface is made mostly of frozen nitrogen.

Pluto's orbit is slowing down due to tidal friction.

Non-falsifiable hypotheses:

Pluto has an unpleasant climate.

Pluto's landscape is dull and boring compared to other dwarf planets in its vicinity.

A scientist finds what she thinks is a new species of rodent on a small pacific island. However, some similar-looking rodents inhabit some nearby islands. She mates the new rodent with the nearby rodents and gets viable but infertile offspring. Why?.

Answers

The new rodents likely descend from dispersive allopatric speciation in relatively recent progenitors.

Dispersal, which happens when a few individuals of a species travel to a different region, or vicariance, which happens when a natural occurrence, such the development of a river or valley, physically divides species, are the two ways that allopatric speciation events might take place. Vicariance and peripatric are the two main theories that are commonly used to categorise allopatric speciation. By virtue of their population densities and geographical isolation mechanisms, the two models diverge from one another.

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acetylcholine is released by all somatic motor neurons, all preganglionic neurons of the ans and by the postganglionic parasympathetic nerve fibers.

Answers

The statement acetylcholine is released by all somatic motor neurons, is true as it performs the function of neurotransmitter.

Within the parasympathetic alone, the postganglionic neuron releases acetylcholine as its number one neurotransmitter. Both sympathetic and parasympathetic preganglionic neurons are cholinergic, which means they launch acetylcholine (Ach) on the synapse withinside the ganglion.

Acetylcholine is launched via way of means of all somatic motor neurons, all preganglionic neurons of the ANS and via way of means of the postganglionic parasympathetic nerve fibers. The ANS stimulates easy muscle tissues, skeletal muscle tissues and glands, while the somatic worried device innervates skeletal muscle tissues only.

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g what are the ratios of phenotypes produced in their offspring when the trait is arranged in ascending order?

Answers

3:1 and 1:2:1 are the ratios of phenotypes produced in their offspring when the trait is arranged in ascending order.

The percentage of offspring who display a particular characteristic or collection of traits is referred to as the phenotypic ratio. Based on the genotypes of the progeny, a test cross can be used to determine the frequency of a trait or trait combinations that will express themselves.

Progeny, or the young development of living creatures, can be produced by a single organism or, in the case of sexual reproduction, by two organisms. A brood or progeny, to use a more broad term, is a collective of children.

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Drag each tile to the correct location. Categorize the examples of competition between organisms as interspecific or intraspecific. Competition among rams for access to mates competition between argentine ants and native ant species for food competition among red-backed salamanders for territory competition between sharks and orcas for hunting seals.

Answers

Examples of interspecific competition include the fight for food between Argentine ants and other ant species.

Sharks and orcas compete with one another to hunt seals.

Interspecific competition is a sort of conflict involving two or more species, whereas intraspecific competition is a conflict involving several members of the same species. Therefore; instances of intra-specific competitions -

Rams competing for access to mates

Salamanders compete with one another for food sources.

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Which influencer, trendsetter and model embodies the dior backstage make-up collections?

Answers

Bella Hadid is a influencer, trendsetter and model who embodies the Dior backstage make-up collections.

Bernard Arnault, a French businessman, controls and chairs Dior, a French luxury fashion label.

The company was established in 1946 by French fashion designer Christian Dior, who was initially from Normandy. This brand only sells shoes, makeup, and clothing and is only available at Dior stores. Christian Dior, or simply Dior, is a luxury goods company best known for modernising the women's fashion industry. The brand has been credited with reviving Paris as the world's fashion capital after it fell out of favor following WWII.

Bella Hadid, who was born in the Netherlands to a Dutch mother and a Palestinian father, was announced as a Dior Makeup ambassador in 2016, and has started working on numerous Dior campaigns since then.

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What resource should you use to find where the moon cycle is at today?​

Answers

Explanation:

To find out the current phase of the moon, you can use a number of resources, such as a moon phase calendar or an app on your phone. You can also check online websites or local newspapers, which often include information about the current phase of the moon. Additionally, you can look up at the sky and observe the moon to determine its current phase. The moon goes through eight distinct phases, which repeat every 29.5 days, so you can also keep track of the phase of the moon by keeping a lunar calendar or by using a moon phase app.

When earthquake produce vibration called wave, how do thoe wave travel?

They ripple from the epicenter of the earthquake. They move back and forth and ide to ide through water. They travel away from the focu of the earthquake in all direction. They move lowly and increae in intenity a they reach Earth’ urface

Answers

They travel away from the focus of the earthquake in all directions.

the c ring of fof1 in spinach comprises 14 c subunits. calculate the number of atp produced per fadh2 in spinach

Answers

None; this ATP synthase's mechanism is entirely distinct from that of mitochondrial ATP synthase.

How so many c subunits are there in ATP synthase?

Although the H+/ATP ratio for various ATP synthase complexes can change, with significant implications for the bioenergetic, the number of membrane-embedded ion-binding c subunits vary between animals, ranging from 8 to 17.

Would the C ring in ATP synthase rotate?

Abstract.F1F0 ATP synthases produce ATP by a rotary catalytic process in which H+ transport is connected to the rotation of an oligomeric ring of c subunits that extends through the membrane.At the membrane's core, protons bind to and subsequently are released from the subunit C's aspartyl-61 residue.

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Sea anemones are ocean animals that can reproduce both sexually and asexually. A single sea anemone is located in a stable, isolated environment that is capable of supporting a colony of sea anemones.

Answers

Since the sea anemone lives in a place where the habitat is stable and good for the sea anemone colony, it would be better for the sea anemone to reproduce asexually and produce multiple copies.

They can reproduce asexually, incubating essentially identical twins from a single specimen. This can lead to the formation of a large colony of identical individuals, as can be seen in the local intertidal with the aggregate anemone. They can also reproduce sexually by relay spawning, where fertilization takes place in the water. The resulting larvae then swim around the plankton until they find a suitable place to settle, at which point they metamorphose into a juvenile anemone.

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How are energy carriers that are made during the first two steps of cellular
respiration used by the last step in the process?
OA. To accept oxygen molecules from electron transport chains
O B. To deliver electrons to electron transport chains
O
C. To regenerate the starting material of the Krebs cycle
O D. To make molecules of ATP by passing through ATP synthase

Answers

Energy carriers that are made during the first two steps of cellular

respiration used by the last step in the process To deliver electrons to electron transport chains

Explain cellular respiration.

Through the process of cellular respiration, which involves combining oxygen with food molecules, organisms direct the chemical energy contained in these substances toward life-sustaining processes while excreting carbon dioxide and water as waste, they are able to maintain their own existence. Adenosine triphosphate (ATP), an energy-rich compound that absorbs the chemical energy released from the breakdown of food molecules and releases it to power other cellular processes, is one goal of the degradation of foodstuffs.

The glycolysis , tricarboxylic acid cycle (TCA cycle and oxidative phosphorylation can be considered the three primary metabolic stages or steps that make up the entire process.

A glucose molecule is broken down into two pyruvate (pyruvic acid) molecules during a process known as glycolysis, which occurs in the majority of cells. Glycolysis produces energy that is captured and stored in ATP as it breaks down glucose and other organic fuel molecules from carbohydrates, fats, and proteins. The substance nicotinamide adenine dinucleotide (NAD+) is additionally changed into NADH during this process.

The breakdown, or catabolism, of organic fuel molecules is largely regulated by the TCA cycle, also referred to as the Krebs or citric acid cycle. The compounds NAD+ and flavin adenine dinucleotide (FAD), however, are responsible for capturing the majority of the energy produced by the TCA cycle and turning it into ATP.

Each pair of hydrogen atoms taken from NADH and FADH2 during the oxidative phosphorylation stage contributes a pair of electrons that, when used by a succession of iron-containing hemoproteins called cytochromes, finally convert one atom of oxygen to produce water. The sequence of steps by which electrons travel to oxygen enables a steady reduction in the electrons' energy. Sometimes referred to as the electron transport chain, this phase of the oxidative phosphorylation process.

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Which two organ systems interact to produce the sensation of hunger and ingest food in a bird? A. Lymphatic system B. Nervous system C. Respiratory system D. Digestive system ​

Answers

Answer:Digestive System and Nervous System

Explanation: Looking for TWO systems

The process of
photosynthesis
occurs when
plants take in
carbon dioxide
and water to
create which
molecule?
A. Sodium chloride
B. Glucose
C. Enzymes

Answers

Answer:

B. Glucose

Explanation:

hope this helps

The forces exerted on an object are shown.

A box has an arrow pointing right labeled F and an arrow pointing left labeled 8 N.

If the object moves left, which statement is correct about force F?

It is equal to 8 N.
It is equal to 10 N.
It is less than 8 N.
It is greater than 10 N.

Answers

Answer:

It is less than 8N

Explanation:

If the object moves left, the force on the left side must be greater, otherwise it would either stay still or move to the right

why might a species' "optimal" phenotype remain unchanged for long periods of time, resulting in apparent evolutionary stasis?

Answers

Species remain unchanged for long time resulting in habitat tracking

What is habitat tracking ?

The way in which a species reacts to environmental change can range from adaptation to the new circumstances, through dispersal to areas with better biological settings (a process known as habitat tracking), to extinction.

Species that traveled farther during their existence survived longer, according to a phylogenetically explicit examination of habitat tracking in Caenozoic big mammals. We demonstrated that the longest distance was preferentially covered just before extinction by dividing the fossil record into equal time periods. This affirms that habitat monitoring is a critical response to environmental change and that it causes a species' survival to be prolonged.

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Use the mRNA chart above to transcribe and then translate the DNA below.

Answers

The DNA is TTC AGC CCA CTG GGC ATT and the mRNA is AAG UCG GGU GAC CCG UAA, and the process is transcription. The translated product of the mRNA is Lys-Ser-Gly-Asp-Pro.

What is the difference between transcription and translation?

From the original DNA, first the mRNA is formed by the process of transcription, as the DNA does not directly involve itself in protein synthesis, and then the mRNA enters the translation process to form the polypeptide chain.

Hence, the DNA is TTC AGC CCA CTG GGC ATT and the mRNA is AAG UCG GGU GAC CCG UAA, and the process is transcription. The translated product of the mRNA is Lys-Ser-Gly-Asp-Pro.

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these proteins attach to distal control elements in enhancers a. these proteins attach to the core promoter region c. these proteins interact with activators and basal transcription factors d. these proteins help to bring the enhancer and promoter regions closer together

Answers

Enhancer regions serve as locations or binding sequences for particular transcription factors. A protein transcription factor binds to its enhancer sequence and activates the gene.

There are areas in several eukaryotic genes that aid in enhancing or increasing transcription. These areas, which are referred to as enhancers, are not always adjacent to the genes they enhance. They may be thousands of nucleotides apart, within the gene's coding region, downstream of the gene, or upstream of the gene. The shape of a protein changes when a protein transcription factor binds to its enhancer sequence, enabling it to interact with proteins at the promoter region. The DNA must bend to allow the proteins at the two locations to interact, while the enhancer region may be far from the promoter. The enhancer and promoter regions are brought together by the DNA being bent by DNA bending proteins.

Hence, enhancer upregulate gene expression on binding to promoter.

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o determine the most effective treatment course for mrs. jordan, which lab test is most important for you to evaluate in addition to blood osmolality

Answers

The most effective treatment course for mrs. john, which lab test is most important is metabolic panel

What does the metabolic plane signify ?

The hyperosmolar hyperglycemic condition of Mrs. Jordan may have an impact on the electrolyte levels and other vital blood constituents, which will be revealed by the metabolic panel. This information will be used to choose the best fluid and electrolyte replacement plan.

People with diabetes who have hyperglycemia may be affected by a number of things. They consist of things like diet and exercise, health issues, and diabetes-unrelated drugs. Hyperglycemia can also result from skipping dosages, not using enough insulin, or taking insufficient amounts of other blood sugar-lowering drugs.

The chemical process known as metabolism converts nutrients from the environment into energy and molecular building blocks.

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A fly has two alleles for the color of its eyes. The green allele is recessive, and
is represented by q. The blue allele is dominant, and is represented by p. If 20
of 100 organisms are green, what is q?
Homozygous dominant+ Heterozygous +Homozygous recessive = 1
A. 0.80
B. 0.89
C. 0.55
D. 0.45

p²+2pq+q² = 1

Answers

Answer: 0.45

Explanation: I have my ways ;>

Why did the population of peppered moths in England change from the light
variation to the dark variation after the Industrial Revolution?
A. The soot from the industrial revolution caused the light peppered
moth to fly away, and only the dark variation was left.
B. The industrial revolution made the trees darker, which made dark
moths easier to catch by predators, so only the light moths were left.
C. The industrial revolution made the trees darker, which made white
moths easier to catch by predators, so only the dark moths were left.
D. The industrial revolution did not have an effect on the peppered moth

Answers

Answer:

C. The industrial revolution made the trees darker, which made white

moths easier to catch by predators, so only the dark moths were left.

Explanation:

This process, known as industrial melanism, is an example of natural selection, in which certain traits become more or less common in a population over time based on their adaptive value.

Indicate whether each statement is true or false regarding primary and secondary responses to an antigen.

Answers

A primary response occurs when an antigens invades the body for the first time. B cells and T cell are activated to generate a response.

Which of the following statements regarding the primary versus the secondary immune response is true?The B cells form plasma cells and memory cells during a primary response.A secondary response is faster than the primary response. When a pathogen invades the body again, the immune system already has memory cells for this pathogen. These memory cells will generate a quick response.During a secondary response, the plasma cells will make more plasma cells and will also make memory cells as the pathogen might invade again.The statement 'a primary response results when naive lymphocytes are activated, while a secondary response is a result of activating memory cells' is TRUE.A primary immune response occurs when lymphocytes are activated after the first recognition of the antigenic harmful material (e.g., a specific piece of protein of a virus).The naive lymphocytes are withe blood cells, i.e., lymphocytes, which have not yet encountered their antigenic material.These cells are activated by antigen-presenting cells, i.e., by dendritic cells and macrophages.When memory cells encounter their antigens again, they proliferate and differentiate to produce plasma cells, thereby a secondary (memory) response is generated.

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Which laboratory activity involves a chemical change?

leaving a copper penny in vinegar until it turns green
boiling saltwater for several minutes until only solid salt remains
extracting iron filings from a sand mixture using a magnet
crushing a rock with a hammer to extract mineral deposits

Answers

Leaving a copper penny in vinegar until it turns green is a  laboratory activity involves a chemical change.

What do you understand by chemical changes?

Chemical synthesis, or, alternatively, chemical breakdown into two or more separate molecules, occurs when one material reacts with another to create a new substance. These processes are referred to as chemical reactions, and they are typically irreversible barring additional chemical reactions. Exothermic processes are those that generate heat; endothermic reactions, on the other hand, are those that may need heat in order to proceed. The science of chemistry places a lot of emphasis on comprehending chemical changes. Atoms are rearrange during chemical reactions, and as new products are produced, the reaction is accompanied by an energy change.

Thus from above conclusion we can say that leaving a copper penny in vinegar until it turns green is a  laboratory activity involves a chemical change.

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Why do researchers need a lot of data to monitor a specie population? what trends can you see in the data that you would have missed otherwise?.

Answers

Because there are many distinct species that can be found in different locations, researchers require a lot of data to monitor a specie population.

How do you keep track of population growth?

The vast majority of techniques (which are all varieties of surveys) used to keep tabs on populations often fall into one of three groups: demographic studies, population censuses, and biodiversity inventories.

What techniques are currently being used by scientists to study wildlife populations?

Scientists count animals or use other indirect methods to estimate wildlife populations. Counts are frequently imprecise and involve counting the number of animals in a sample of the study area in order to estimate the total number of animals present.

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here is a hypothetical mrna sequence: 5' c g g a u g c g u a a a u a g 3' what is the amino acid sequence encoded by this mrna?

Answers

This putative mRNA sequence, 5' c g g a u g c g u a a u a g 3', will yield the amino acid sequence Met-Leu-Val.

What distinguishes mRNA and siRNA from one another?

Small interfering RNA, often known as siRNA, is a synthetic RNA sequence that is identical to the mRNA sequence. When this siRNA is delivered into cells, it attaches to the mRNA sequence and prevents translation by starting the mRNA's decomposition.

What components make up amino acids?

A carbon atom, a hydrogen atom, a carboxyl group, an amino group, and a variable group are the main structural components of amino acids. Four categories of amino acids can be distinguished based on the variable group.

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In the fall, the leaves of some trees change color. This happens because chlorophyll breaks down and the accessory pigments become visible. What hormone is responsible for this?.

Answers

Answer:

Ethylene

Explanation:

i want to be a frog. can i be a frog?

Answers

Answer: yea

Explanation:

Answer:

No

Explanation:

God designed us to be humans

Genesis 1:27

So God created man in his own image, in the image of God created he him; male and female created he them.

describe two adaptations mammals have that allow them to protect and nourish their developing embryo and young.

Answers

The mother of a mammal is the only source of nutrition for the embryo.

What specializations do mammals have?

The size and shape of various body parts, thick skins, water-repellent fur, and camouflage are just a few more adaptations that mammals have made to better survive their environment.

How is the embryo cared for and fed?

The term "amniotic sac" refers to the bag with thin walls that surrounds the fetus during pregnancy. The sac is filled with amniotic fluid, which the fetus produces, and membrane that covers the fetal side of the placenta (amnion). As a result, the fetus is protected from injury. Additionally, it helps regulate the fetus's body temperature.

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Explain how socialism or communism destroyed Europe? How do both of these works represent the culture they were created in? Be sure to address how the subject matter and stylistic elements connect them to their culture. 50 points and brainliest. what kind of instructions does each specialized cell in an animal's body use?A. the entire set of instructions on a complete copy of DNAB. the set of instructions from every gene in a every chromosome C. a subset of instructions on a complete copy of DNAD. a set of instructions on incomplete chromosomes Which action did Congress restrict by passing the Boland Amendment? providing money to help overthrow Nicaragua's government ordering military planes into Grenada's air space entering Chernobyl's exclusion zone without permission sending ground troops to fight in Lebanon's civil war How Technological advances have/ havent made people less competent in the wild a new dictionary in the shape of a rectangular prism will have a thickness of 333 inches (\text{in})(in)(, start text, i, n, end text, ). the volume of the dictionary will be 216\,\text{in}^3216in 3 216, start text, i, n, end text, cubed. what must be the area of the front cover, a face perpendicular to the thickness, in square inches? for what reasons is it unlikely that the libertarian party will ever be an electoral force in texas politics? simplify the expression 6+4x3-18 divided by 6 an 8-year-old client with a fractured forearm is to have a fiberglass cast applied. which information will the nurse include when teaching the child and family about the cast? Why did Puritans choose to live in communities rather than on individual farms?A. More crimes were committed on the farms than the town.B. More jobs were available in the towns.C. Communities were funded by the Massachusetts Bay Company. What is a taxpayers maximum expected contribution toward health insurance coverage whose premium does not exceed the premium for a benchmark plan purchased through an ACA marketplace in 2022? I need help Arc QR =Arc RS=QPS =PSR = SRQ = Given: line a || line b.angle 5 is supplementary to angle 2.Prove: line l || m What mass of silver (in grams) is solidified when 749 joules of heat are released by a sample of molten silver at its freezing point of 962C? The heat of fusion of silver is 109 J/g. Round your answer to the nearest hundredth. Montag initially believed that the ""beetle"" that tried to run him over was most likely driven by. The number line includes points A, B, C and D which statement is true. 9. Delia bought $45 dollars worth of clothes, but the total including sales tax came to $54. What isthe sales tax rate that Delia paid?of the vehicles What other art form most influences the third movement of a classical symphony?1) Poetry2) Painting3) Literature4) Dance A triangle has side lengths of 200 units and 300 units. Write a compound inequality for the range of the possible lengths for the third side, Fred deposits $6,500 in a saving account that pays 0.5% interest, compounded quarterly. Round each answer to the nearest cent.a. Find the first quarter's interest.b. Find the first quarter's ending balance.c. Find the second quarter's interest.d. Find the second quarter's ending balance.e. Find the third quarter's interest.f. Find the third quarter's ending balance.g. Find the fourth quarter's interest.h. What is the balance at the end of one year?i. How much interest does the account earn in the first year?