If this market is a monopoly and the elasticity of demand is -5, then at the quantity chosen by the monopolist the marginal cost is
Question 2 options:
a. 20% higher than the price charged by the monopolist
b. 20% lower than the price charged by the monopolist
c. 80% higher than the price charged by the monopolist
d. 80% lower than the price charged by the monopolist

Answers

Answer 1

If this market is a monopoly and the elasticity of demand is -5, then at the quantity chosen by the monopolist the marginal cost is 20% lower than the price charged by the monopolist. So, the correct answer is B.

What's characteristic of the monopoly market?

In a monopoly market structure, there is only one firm producing a unique product with no close substitutes, resulting in the firm having significant control over the market price.

The elasticity of demand measures the responsiveness of the quantity demanded to a change in price.

In this case, the elasticity of demand is -5, indicating that demand is elastic and sensitive to price changes.

To determine the relationship between marginal cost and price at the monopolist's chosen quantity, we can use the formula:

(Price - Marginal Cost) / Price = 1 / |Elasticity of Demand|

Plugging in the values, we have:

(Price - Marginal Cost) / Price = 1 / |-5|

Solving for Marginal Cost, we find that Marginal Cost = 0.8 * Price.

This shows that the marginal cost is 80% of the price charged by the monopolist.

Therefore, the correct answer is: b. 20% lower than the price charged by the monopolist.

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Related Questions

Question 3: (0.5 points) A manufacturer of electronic devices wants to invests $650,000 in equipment for making compact piezoelectric accelerometers for general-purpose vibration measurement. The reve nue from this machine will be $225,000 per year for 10 years and $70,000 in salvage value from the used equipment sale in year 10. Determine if this investment is suitable or not for a MARR = 35%.

Answers

The investment is not suitable for a MARR of 35% because the present worth of the cash flows is $331,833.44, which is less than the initial investment of $650,000.


MARR stands for Minimum Acceptable Rate of Return and represents the minimum rate of return that an investor expects to receive from an investment. It is used to evaluate the profitability of an investment by comparing the return on investment with the MARR. In this case, the MARR is 35%.
Present worth is the value of cash flows at a given point in time, usually at the beginning of the investment period. It is calculated by discounting the future cash flows using a discount rate, which in this case is the MARR of 35%.
In order to determine if the investment is suitable or not, we need to calculate the present worth of the cash flows from the investment. If the present worth is greater than the initial investment, then the investment is suitable, and vice versa. In this case, the present worth of the cash flows is $331,833.44, which is less than the initial investment of $650,000, so the investment is not suitable for a MARR of 35%.

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enny wants to spend her money earned waitressing ($300 a month) on bowling (Q1) and breakfast (Q2). Bowling costs $3 a game and her favorite breakfast is $15 a meal. Using Jenny's budget constraint, if she purchases 6 breakfasts, how many games of bowling can she purchase

Answers

Assuming Jenny's only expenses are bowling and breakfast, her budget constraint can be expressed as: if Jenny purchases 6 breakfasts, she can purchase 70 games of bowling with her budget of $300 per month.

3Q1 + 15Q2 = 300

where Q1 is the number of games of bowling and Q2 is the number of breakfasts.

If Jenny purchases 6 breakfasts, we can substitute Q2 = 6 into the budget constraint equation and solve for Q1:

3Q1 + 15(6) = 300

3Q1 + 90 = 300

3Q1 = 210

Q1 = 70

Therefore, if Jenny purchases 6 breakfasts, she can purchase 70 games of bowling with her budget of $300 per month.

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4. Assume that the equation for demand for bread at a small bakery is Qd = 60 - 10P6 + 3Y, where Q4 is the quantity of bread demanded in loaves and Y is the average income in the town in thousands of dollars. a. If the average income in the town is 10, state the equation for Qd in terms of Pb. b. Draw a graph of the demand curve with Qd on the horizontal axis and Ph on the vertical axis. Label the curve DD.

Answers

Let's answer step by step using the terms "small bakery", "explain Qd", "loaves", and "average income".

Once you plot these points, connect them with a straight line to represent the demand curve (DD). In the context of a small bakery, Qd represents the quantity of bread demanded in loaves, while Y represents the average income in the town in thousands of dollars. The equation for the demand for bread is given as Qd = 60 - 10P + 3Y. If the average income (Y) in the town is 10, we can plug that value into the equation to find Qd in terms of P:
Qd = 60 - 10P + 3(10)
Qd = 60 - 10P + 30
Qd = 90 - 10P
To plot the demand curve (DD) with Qd on the horizontal axis and P on the vertical axis. Since Qd = 90 - 10P, you can rearrange the equation to solve for P:
P = (90 - Qd) / 10

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The maximum price a consumer is willing to pay for an extra unit of a good or service when total utility is maximized is known as a. total utilityb. marginal benefit c. demand d. marginal utility

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The maximum price a consumer is willing to pay for an extra unit of a good or service when total utility is maximized is known as b) marginal benefit.

Marginal benefit is the additional satisfaction or utility that a consumer derives from consuming one more unit of a good or service. When a consumer's total utility is maximized, the marginal benefit of consuming one more unit of the good or service is equal to the price they are willing to pay for it.

Demand, on the other hand, refers to the quantity of a good or service that consumers are willing and able to purchase at different prices. Total utility is the total satisfaction or benefit a consumer derives from consuming all units of a good or service. Marginal utility is the additional satisfaction or benefit a consumer derives from consuming one more unit of a good or service.

Therefore, while demand, total utility, and marginal utility are all important concepts in economics, it is marginal benefit that directly relates to the price a consumer is willing to pay for an extra unit of a good or service when total utility is maximized.

Therefore, the correct answer is b) marginal benefit.

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The experiments surrounding the French Paradox proved that resveratrol was the active ingredient in red wine that countered atherosclerosis.

Answers

While red wine has been associated with a lower risk of heart disease, the experiments surrounding the French Paradox did not prove that resveratrol was the active ingredient in red wine that countered atherosclerosis, thus the statement is false.

While red wine consumption may have some potential health benefits, the role of specific compounds such as resveratrol in countering atherosclerosis is still an area of ongoing research and debate.

The French Paradox refers to the observation that the French have a lower incidence of heart disease despite a diet high in saturated fats. One hypothesis was that the consumption of red wine, which is also a common part of the French diet, was responsible for this effect.

Resveratrol is a polyphenolic compound found in red wine that has been associated with potential health benefits, including anti-inflammatory and antioxidant properties. However, studies examining the effects of resveratrol on atherosclerosis have had mixed results, with some suggesting a potential protective effect and others showing no significant effect.

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The complete question is:

"The experiments surrounding the French Paradox proved that resveratrol was the active ingredient in red wine that countered atherosclerosis. State true or false."

An appraiser is using the sales comparison approach to value. The subject property has three bedrooms, and a comparable property has four bedrooms. If the appraiser determines that an extra bedroom is worth $5,000, what adjustment should the appraiser make?A. add $5,000 to the subject propertyB. add $5,000 to the comparable propertyC. subtract $5,000 from the subject propertyD. subtract $5,000 from the comparable property

Answers

The appraiser should subtract $5,000 from the subject property  The  correct option is (D)

1. The appraiser starts by selecting a comparable property with a similar size, location, and other features.
2. In this case, the comparable property has four bedrooms, while the subject property has only three bedrooms.
3. The appraiser determines that an extra bedroom is worth $5,000.

4. To make the two properties more comparable, the appraiser should adjust the value of the comparable property, not the subject property.


5. Since the comparable property has one more bedroom than the subject property, its value should be decreased by the value of one bedroom, which is $5,000.
6. Therefore, the appraiser should subtract $5,000 from the comparable property's value to make the comparison more accurate and fair.
By making this adjustment, the appraiser can better compare the two properties and determine the value of the subject property using the sales comparison approach.

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What is the overall goal of effective corporate branding?a. To clearly tie the brand name and brand mark with the organization.b. To associate the organization with one or more philanthropic causes.c. To sell more product to members of the supply chain.d. To position the product relative to competing products.e. To build and enhance the organization's reputation.

Answers

The overall goal of effective corporate branding is to build and enhance the organization's reputation. So, correct option is E.

Corporate branding involves creating and promoting a unique image and identity for the organization that distinguishes it from its competitors and builds trust and loyalty among its stakeholders.

This includes developing a strong brand name, brand mark, and messaging that communicates the organization's values, mission, and purpose.

Effective corporate branding can help the organization establish a competitive advantage in the market, increase brand recognition and customer loyalty, attract and retain top talent, and improve overall financial performance.

By building a positive reputation and image, the organization can also create a strong emotional connection with its stakeholders and inspire trust and confidence in its products, services, and overall mission.

So, correct option is E.

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The overall goal of effective corporate branding is to build and enhance the organization's reputation. This is achieved by clearly tying the brand name and brand mark with the organization, positioning the product relative to competing products, and potentially associating the organization with philanthropic causes. These strategies contribute to selling more products and establishing a strong brand image.

Philanthropic is an adjective used to describe the act of giving to charitable causes or organizations. It refers to the practice of using one's resources, such as money, time, or expertise, to promote the welfare of others or advance social causes. Philanthropic individuals or organizations donate funds or resources to support a wide range of causes, including education, health, poverty, environmental conservation, and the arts. Philanthropic activities are motivated by a desire to make a positive impact on society, and they can have far-reaching effects on individuals and communities. Philanthropy plays a significant role in addressing social issues and is a crucial component of civil society.

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A major disadvantage of a flexible work force is that _________.
A) it leads to loss of some control over workers
B) it can lead to conflict between core and flexible workers
C) flexible workers are often less familiar with equipment
D) all of these

Answers

A major disadvantage of a flexible work force is that all of the above. The correct answer is D).

A flexible workforce is a staffing model that allows a company to quickly adjust its labor force to meet changing business needs, such as seasonal fluctuations or unexpected increases in demand. While this approach can offer several benefits, such as cost savings and increased efficiency, it also has some major disadvantages.

One of the main disadvantages of a flexible workforce is that it can lead to the loss of some control over workers. Since flexible workers are typically not permanent employees, they may be less invested in the company's mission and culture, and may be more difficult to manage and train.

Another disadvantage is that it can lead to conflict between core and flexible workers. Core workers, who are permanent employees, may feel threatened or resentful of flexible workers, who may be seen as taking away jobs or benefits. This can lead to tension and reduced morale in the workplace.

Finally, flexible workers are often less familiar with equipment and processes than core workers, which can lead to errors and inefficiencies. This can be especially problematic in industries that require specialized knowledge or training.

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In your view as a future educator, should there be a curricular canon in the curriculum? Why or why not? If you feel that there should be a curricular canon, list five books that should be included and state why they should be included. If you responded "no," how should educators determine the value of what students should read?

Answers

As a future educator, I believe that there should be a curricular canon in the curriculum.

This is because a curricular canon serves as a foundation that helps students understand the world around them by exposing them to important ideas, themes, and issues.

It also helps to create a shared cultural knowledge that is essential for students to communicate effectively with others and understand the perspectives of different communities.


In terms of five books that should be included in a curricular canon, I would suggest the following:
1. To Kill a Mockingbird by Harper Lee - This book provides a powerful exploration of racism, injustice, and the importance of empathy and courage.
2. The Catcher in the Rye by J.D. Salinger - This book examines themes of identity, alienation, and the challenges of adolescence.
3. 1984 by George Orwell - This book explores themes of power, control, and the dangers of totalitarianism.
4. The Great Gatsby by F. Scott Fitzgerald - This book examines themes of wealth, class, and the American Dream.
5. Pride and Prejudice by Jane Austen - This book provides insight into the social norms and expectations of the Regency era and explores themes of love, marriage, and societal expectations.
If educators responded "no" to the question of whether there should be a curricular canon, they could determine the value of what students should read by focusing on texts that are relevant to students' interests, needs, and experiences.

This approach would require a more personalized and individualized approach to curriculum development, with educators working closely with students to identify texts that resonate with them and provide opportunities for deep learning and growth.

It would also require ongoing assessments and evaluations to ensure that the texts being used are effective in helping students achieve their learning goals.

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Asking narrow, rather than broad, questions is more likely to elicit feedback on creative work.
True or False?

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The statement, "Asking narrow, instead of broad, questions is more likely to elicit feedback on creative-work." is False because asking broad questions is more likely to elicit feedback on creative-work.

The "Broad-Questions" allow the feedback provider to consider the overall message or concept of the creative work, and provide more general feedback on how the work is perceived or what improvements could be made.

On the other hand, the "Narrow-Questions" may limit the feedback provider's response to specific details or aspects of the creative work, which may not be as useful for improving the work as a whole.

Therefore, the statement is False.

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True, asking narrow questions is more likely to elicit feedback on creative work because they focus on specific aspects, allowing for targeted and actionable responses. Broad questions may generate vague feedback, making it difficult to improve the work effectively.

To elicit feedback means to actively seek and gather opinions, suggestions, or criticisms from individuals or groups in order to improve a product, service, or experience. This can be done through various means, such as surveys, focus groups, customer interviews, online reviews, or social media interactions. Eliciting feedback can provide valuable insights into customer needs and preferences, as well as identify areas for improvement or innovation. It can also help to build stronger customer relationships, increase customer satisfaction, and enhance overall brand reputation. Effective feedback elicitation requires clear and specific questions, active listening skills, and a commitment to addressing and implementing feedback received.

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When a product is well-suited with the physical set up and lifestyles and values, it is considered high on:
a. simplicity
b. communicability
c. trialability
d. compatibility

Answers

When a product is well-suited with the physical set up and lifestyles and values, it is considered high on compatibility. Therefore, the correct answer is option(d).

Compatibility refers to the extent to which a product is consistent with the existing values, needs, and experiences of its potential users. When a product is compatible with its target audience, it is more likely to be accepted and adopted by them. This can be especially important in fields like technology, where products must be designed to work seamlessly with existing hardware and software systems. Overall, compatibility is an important factor in the success of a product and can impact its adoption, usage, and long-term viability.

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Real per capita GDP in China in 1959 was about $350, but it doubled to about $700 by 1978, when Deng Xiao Ping started market reforms. What was the average annual economic growth rate in China over the 20 years from 1959 to 1978?
3.5%
20%
100%
140%

Answers

The average annual economic growth rate in China over the 20 years from 1959 to 1978 was approximately 3.5%.

The average annual economic growth rate in China over the 20 years from 1959 to 1978 can be calculated using the formula:

Growth rate = ((Ending value/Beginning value)^(1/number of years))-1

Using the provided information, we can plug in the values:

Beginning value = $350
Ending value = $700
Number of years = 20

Growth rate = (($700/$350)^(1/20))-1 = 3.5%

Therefore, the average annual economic growth rate in China over the 20 years from 1959 to 1978 was 3.5%.

To calculate the average annual economic growth rate, we can use the formula:

Growth Rate = ((Ending Value / Beginning Value)^(1 / Number of Years)) - 1

In this case, the beginning value is $350, the ending value is $700, and the number of years is 20. Plugging these values into the formula:

Growth Rate = ((700 / 350)^(1 / 20)) - 1

Growth Rate = (2^(1 / 20)) - 1

Growth Rate ≈ 0.035 or 3.5%

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richard is an independent contractor and buys materials from a local builders supply store. he takes possession of the products immediately and the store bills him at the end of the month. the store is providing a(n)

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The store is providing Richard with a form of credit or accounts receivable. As an independent contractor, Richard is responsible for purchasing his own materials and is not an employee of the store.

Therefore, the store is not providing him with any form of employment benefits or compensation beyond the materials he purchases. Instead, they are allowing him to take possession of the products immediately and pay for them later, similar to extending credit to a customer. This arrangement is common in many industries where businesses may need to purchase materials or supplies on credit in order to complete their work.

Richard is an independent contractor and buys materials from a local builders supply store. He takes possession of the products immediately and the store bills him at the end of the month. In this scenario, the store is providing a "trade credit" to Richard. This allows him to purchase the materials upfront and pay for them later, typically at the end of the month, as specified in your question.

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when there is a doubling in orders for a new business's products or services in a single month, it leads to an immediate increase in the cash flowing into the business.

Answers

An increase in orders can lead to an increase in cash flow, it is important for businesses to consider all the factors that can affect their cash flow to ensure they can meet their financial obligations and continue to grow.

Cash flow is the movement of money in and out of a business or individual's bank account over a specific period of time. It represents the amount of cash generated or consumed by an entity during a given period, typically a month, quarter, or year. Positive cash flow occurs when a business or individual receives more cash than they spend, while negative cash flow occurs when they spend more cash than they receive.

Cash flow is a critical measure of financial health and sustainability for businesses and individuals. It is essential for maintaining liquidity, funding operations, and investing in growth opportunities. A healthy cash flow enables businesses to meet their financial obligations, such as paying bills, salaries, and debts.

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quetzaltenango candle inc. projected sales of 63,000 candles for march. the estimated march 1 inventory is 3,200 units, and the desired march 31 inventory is 7,000 units. prepare a production budget report in units for quetzaltenango candle inc. for those boxes in which you must enter subtracted or negative numbers use a minus sign. quetzaltenango candle inc. production budget for the month ending march 31 line item description units - select - - select - total units available total units available - select - total units to be produced in march total units to be produced in march

Answers

Based on the information provided, the production budget report for Quetzaltenango Candle Inc. in units for the month ending March 31 can be prepared as follows:

Quetzaltenango Candle Inc. Production Budget for the Month Ending March 31

Line Item Description Units

1 Projected sales for March 63,000

2 Add: Desired ending inventory 7,000

3 Total units needed 70,000

4 Less: Beginning inventory on March 1 -3,200

5 Total units to be produced in March 66,800

Note that in line item 4, a negative number is used to indicate the beginning inventory on March 1. This is because the beginning inventory is being subtracted from the total units needed to arrive at the total units to be produced in March.

Therefore, the total units available (line item 6) can be calculated as

follows:

Total units available = Beginning inventory on March 1 + Total units to be produced in March

Total units available = -3,200 + 66,800

Total units available = 63,600

Finally, the total units to be produced in March (line item 7) is the same as the value calculated in line item 5:

Total units to be produced in March = 66,800.

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Reverse innovations involve a company buying a competitor's product and taking it apart to identify a competitor's ideas.
True or False?

Answers

Reverse innovation entails a corporation purchasing a product from a rival and disassembling it to find rival ideas. This statement is false.

Reverse innovation refers to the process of taking a product or service developed for a low-income or emerging market and adapting it for use in a developed market. It is a strategy that has been used successfully by companies such as General Electric, Procter & Gamble, and Nestle, to create new products that are low-cost, high-quality, and well-suited for emerging markets.

The practice of taking apart a competitor's product to identify their ideas is called reverse engineering. It is a common practice in industries such as software development, automotive manufacturing, and consumer electronics, where companies seek to understand their competitors' products in order to improve their own.

Reverse engineering can be a legitimate business practice as long as it is conducted in compliance with intellectual property laws and ethical standards.

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during which phase of the business cycle or industries and businesses producing and selling goods other maximum?a. troughb. expansionc. contractiond. peak

Answers

During the expansion phase of the business cycle, industries and businesses producing and selling goods are at their maximum. This is the period when the economy is growing, unemployment rates are low, and consumer confidence is high, resulting in increased demand for goods and services. As a result, businesses increase their production levels to meet the demand, and the supply of goods on the market increases.

During the contraction phase of the business cycle, there is a decrease in demand for goods and services, resulting in a decline in production levels, and a decrease in the supply of goods in the market. The trough is the lowest point of the business cycle, where the economy is at its weakest, unemployment rates are high, and consumer confidence is low. During this phase, industries and businesses struggle to sell their goods and services, resulting in low production levels. The peak phase is the highest point of the business cycle when the economy is strong, unemployment rates are low, and consumer confidence is high. During this phase, industries and businesses may experience some level of maximum production, but it is generally lower than during the expansion phase.

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Labor unions are successful in organizing and negotiate higher wages and benefits. What happens to SRAS?

Answers

Answer:

SRAS stands for Short-Run Aggregate Supply, which represents the total output that firms are willing and able to produce at a given price level in the short run. When labor unions are successful in organizing and negotiating higher wages and benefits, this increases the cost of labor for firms, which can lead to a leftward shift in the SRAS curve.

As the cost of labor increases, firms may reduce their output in order to maintain their profit margins, which can cause a decrease in the aggregate supply of goods and services in the short run. This leftward shift in the SRAS curve represents a decrease in the total output that firms are willing and able to produce at each price level.

In the short run, this can lead to an increase in the price level, as the decrease in supply may lead to higher prices. However, over time, firms may adjust to the higher costs of labor by investing in technology and capital, which can increase productivity and shift the SRAS curve back to the right. Therefore, the impact of labor unions on SRAS can be temporary and may depend on other factors such as technological advancements and market competition.

a firm that markets a product with no branding information attached to the packaging except a description of its contents is using _____ branding.

Answers

A firm that markets a product with no branding information attached to the packaging except a description of its contents is using generic branding.

Generic branding refers to the practice of marketing a product without any branding information, typically using only a description of the product's contents or features on the packaging.

This type of branding does not include any unique brand name, logo, or other branding elements that distinguish the product from competitors, and relies solely on the product's inherent features or attributes to attract customers.

Generic branding is often used for commodities or products where brand differentiation is not considered a significant factor in purchasing decisions, and the focus is primarily on the product's price, quality, or other functional aspects.

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why is staff scheduling in a service environment a difficult task? what can managers do to ensure that staff scheudles are effective and effiecnent

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Staff scheduling in a service environment is difficult due to the unpredictability of customer demand and employee availability, but managers can ensure effective and efficient schedules by using data analysis, communication, and flexibility.

In a service environment, customer demand can vary greatly, making it difficult to predict how many staff members will be needed at any given time. Additionally, employees may have varying availability due to personal reasons, further complicating scheduling. Managers can overcome these challenges by using data analysis tools to forecast demand and determine optimal staffing levels.

They can also communicate effectively with employees to understand their availability and preferences. Finally, they should remain flexible and open to making adjustments to schedules as needed to ensure the most efficient and effective use of staff.

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When a customer returns a product to Hartville Equipment that the customer purchased onâ account, Hartville will issue aâ __________ to authorize a credit to theâ customer's account receivable onâ Hartville's books:A.refund noteB.manager approvalC.return authorizationD.credit memo

Answers

When a customer returns a product to Hartville Equipment that the customer purchased on account, Hartville will issue a return authorization to authorize a credit to the customer's account receivable on Hartville's books.The correct option is c.

 A return authorization is a document that allows the customer to return the product and receive a credit for the amount paid on their account. This credit will be reflected on the customer's account receivable on Hartville's books.A refund note is a document that authorizes a refund of money to the customer for a return or cancellation of a purchase. This is not applicable in this case as the customer made a purchase on account and not with cash.

Manager approval may be required for certain returns or refunds, but it is not the document that authorizes a credit to the customer's account receivable.A credit memo is a document that is issued by the seller to the buyer, indicating a credit has been made to the buyer's account. This is the document that Hartville will issue to authorize a credit to the customer's account receivable on Hartville's books.
In summary, the correct answer is C. return authorization, which is the document that authorizes a credit to the customer's account receivable on Hartville's books.

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TC = 74 +58Q+4Q? What is the average variable cost when 14 units are produced? Enter as a value. Type your answer...

Answers

The equation TC = 74Q + 58Q + 4Q represents the total cost (TC) of producing Q units, where the cost has both fixed and variable components.

To find the average variable cost when 14 units are produced, we need to first calculate the total variable cost (TVC) at 14 units.

TVC = 58Q + 4Q (since the variable cost is represented by the 58Q and 4Q terms)

TVC = 58(14) + 4(14)

TVC = 908

Now, we can calculate the average variable cost (AVC) at 14 units by dividing the total variable cost by the number of units produced:

AVC = TVC / Q

AVC = 908 / 14

AVC ≈ 64.86

Therefore, the average variable cost when 14 units are produced is approximately $64.86.
To find the average variable cost, we first need to identify the total variable cost (TVC) in the given total cost (TC) equation. The equation provided is TC = 74Q + 58Q + 4Q.

Step 1:

Combine the terms with the variable Q to find the TVC.


TVC = (74Q + 58Q + 4Q)

Step 2:

Simplify the equation.


TVC = 136Q

Step 3:

Find the average variable cost by dividing the TVC by the number of units produced (14 in this case).


Average Variable Cost = TVC / Units Produced
Average Variable Cost = 136Q / 14

Step 4:

Substitute the value of Q (14) in the equation.


Average Variable Cost = 136(14) / 14

Step 5:

Solve the equation.


Average Variable Cost = 1904 / 14
Average Variable Cost = 136

So, the average variable cost when 14 units are produced is 136.

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Inaccurately because the scope of GDP measurements can change.A. TrueB. False

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While GDP is a widely used and important measure of economic activity, it is not perfect and should be interpreted with caution, taking into account its limitations and the broader context in which it is used thus the statement is true.

The scope of GDP measurements can change over time, which can lead to inaccuracies in GDP measurements. For example, changes in the way economic activity is defined or measured can affect the components of GDP, and changes in the size or composition of the economy can affect the overall level of GDP.

Moreover, GDP is a measure of economic output and does not take into account other factors that may be important for well-being, such as income distribution, environmental quality, and social cohesion. As a result, GDP may not provide a complete picture of economic and social progress, and policymakers may need to use other measures and indicators to guide decision-making.

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Suppose that you estimated the earnings regression, with quadratic form of experience, and your fitted equation is: EARNINGS = 9+8.89 +6EXP - 0.16EXP2 Find the level of experience at which the workers are predicted to maximize their hourly earnings? Answer:

Answers

The level of experience at which workers are predicted to maximize their hourly earnings is at 19.3 years of experience.


In this earnings regression model, the quadratic form of experience is used to capture the non-linear relationship between experience and earnings. The fitted equation shows that the coefficient for the squared term of experience is negative (-0.16), indicating that the relationship between earnings and experience initially increases but then decreases as experience continues to increase.

To find the level of experience at which workers are predicted to maximize their hourly earnings, we need to take the first derivative of the equation with respect to experience and set it equal to zero.
d/d(EXP)(9+8.89+6EXP-0.16EXP2) = 6 - 0.32EXP = 0


Solving for EXP, we get EXP = 18.75 or EXP = 19.3 (rounded to one decimal place). Since we are interested in the maximum point, we choose the second solution, which gives us the level of experience at which workers are predicted to maximize their hourly earnings.

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Respond to the following prompt in a post with a minimum of 150 words.
The market structure of perfect competition has a lot of ideal qualities–hence the name perfect. For example, perfectly competitive firms are productively efficient, and perfectly competitive markets are allocatively efficient. It is, however, difficult to find many examples of perfectly competition in the real world. Perfect competition is really a benchmark against which we compare other market structures in the real world.
How much actual competition occurs in perfectly competitive markets? Some make the claim that there is actually no competition between firms in a perfectly competitive market.
Do you agree or disagree with this claim? What is your reasoning?

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In a hypothetical market structure known as perfect competition, there are numerous enterprises competing for a tiny portion of the market. If any company in a market with perfect competition is able to turn a profit, other companies will enter the market right away.

Why is the perfect market structure frequently referred to as perfect competition?

Important Learnings. With a perfect market structure, both producers and consumers have complete and symmetrical information and there are no transaction costs. In this type of scenario, a sizable number of producers and customers are in competition with one another.

What qualities define a perfect competition?

Perfect competition is characterized by three key factors: (1) the absence of any significant market dominance; (2) standardization of industry output; and (3) freedom of entry and exit. If there is perfect competition, the efficient market equilibrium occurs when marginal revenue and marginal cost are equal.

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Consider the organization that you have identified for your group assignment. Identify the scope of business process that you would consider implementing analytical solutions for improvement. Based on the scope identified, you are required to identify the best team to work on the analytics project. Illustrate (using a mind map / diagram) your suggestion with the data scientist and the data analyst roles and responsibilities, their key characteristics, and knowledge required in this project.

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It is believed that implementing analytical solutions can greatly improve various business processes within this organization.

The scope of business processes that we would consider implementing analytical solutions for improvement include:

1. Inventory Management - optimizing inventory levels, predicting demand, and reducing overstocking/understocking.

2. Sales and Marketing - analyzing customer data to personalize marketing campaigns, predicting consumer trends, and improving customer experience.

3. Supply Chain Management - optimizing supply chain processes, improving supplier relationships, and reducing lead times.

For this project, we suggest forming a team consisting of a Data Scientist and a Data Analyst.


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Present Dunning OLI theory and apply it on Tesla
It must include:
the mission of the company
some relevant facts of its international expansion
the presentation of the FDI theories
the application of the theoretical concepts to the case study.
discussion and conclusions.

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The Dunning OLI theory, also known as the eclectic paradigm, suggests that firms invest in foreign markets when they possess Ownership, Location, and Internalization advantages.

Tesla's mission is to accelerate the transition to sustainable energy, and it has expanded internationally to achieve this goal. Tesla has invested in factories and assembly plants in countries such as China and Germany.

The theory explains that Tesla's ownership advantages include its technological expertise and brand reputation, while its location advantages include access to local markets and government incentives. Tesla also internalizes its operations, making it more efficient and cost-effective. Overall, the Dunning OLI theory provides a framework for understanding Tesla's successful international expansion strategy.

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For the product your group picked and wrote about in Group Assignment 2:
1) Describe how the targeted consumer's behaviour for this product is influenced by groups such as family, culture and media.
2) Describe how the target market's motivation to purchase a product is affected by the level of importance of the product to a customer.
Please ans this quetion in 1500 words

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The product that our group picked for Group Assignment 2 is a new line of organic and eco-friendly cleaning products. The targeted consumer's behavior for this product is heavily influenced by groups such as family, culture, and media.

The target market's motivation to purchase this product is directly affected by the level of importance of the product to a customer.

For example, if a customer highly values environmentally-friendly products, they will be more motivated to purchase this line of cleaning products.

The product that our group picked for Group Assignment 2 is a new line of organic and eco-friendly cleaning products. The targeted consumer's behavior for this product is heavily influenced by groups such as family, culture, and media. Family plays a big role in influencing the purchase of these products because people tend to value the opinions and recommendations of their loved ones when making purchasing decisions.

Additionally, culture is a significant factor because many people are becoming more environmentally conscious, and purchasing eco-friendly products aligns with their cultural values.

Media also plays a role in influencing consumer behavior for this product because of the increasing amount of information and advertisements promoting eco-friendly and sustainable products.
The target market's motivation to purchase this product is directly affected by the level of importance of the product to a customer. For example, if a customer highly values environmentally-friendly products, they will be more motivated to purchase this line of cleaning products.

Overall, the target market's motivation to purchase this product is influenced by their personal values and beliefs, which are then impacted by the product's benefits and level of importance to them.

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People over the age of 50 have ___% of financial wealth

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People over the age of 50 possess a significant percentage of financial wealth. Although the exact percentage may vary depending on the country and source of data, it is commonly observed that individuals in this age group have accumulated more wealth over their lifetime.

This can be attributed to a few factors. First, people over 50 have had more time to work, save, and invest, leading to a greater accumulation of financial resources. Additionally, they have likely experienced multiple economic cycles, allowing them to adapt and make wiser financial decisions.
Furthermore, this age group often has lower expenses compared to younger individuals, as they may have already paid off major debts like mortgages and student loans. This allows them to allocate more funds towards savings and investments.
Lastly, people over 50 may benefit from inheritance or wealth transfers from previous generations, further increasing their financial wealth. As a result, this demographic often holds a substantial portion of financial wealth in society. It's essential to recognize these disparities and consider policy measures to address wealth inequality and promote economic growth for all age groups.

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The optimal investment schedule shifts to the right if O A. current total factor productivity z decreases. O B. future total factor productivity z' increases. O C. future total factor productivity z'

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An investment schedule is a set of data for an aggregate amount invested by the firms at different income levels to produce the output. The variable on which the investment schedule depends is income. It is the supply of investment that is forthcoming in the economy.

The optimal investment schedule shifts to the right if future total factor productivity z' increases

This is because when future productivity is expected to be higher, it makes more sense to invest more in the future as the returns are expected to be greater. Conversely, if current total factor productivity z decreases, it would make less sense to invest more in the future as the returns are expected to be lower. Therefore, option B is the correct answer.

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