the basic functional unit of the liver is the
The basic functional unit of the liver is the lobule.
What are Lobules?
Hepatic lobules are the minute, thin, profusely branched septa-like trabeculae that extend inwards from the Glisson's capsule and divide each liver lobe into polyhedral units. These are the structural and functional units of the liver.
What are the functions of lobules in the liver?
Each lobule is made up of numerous liver cells, called hepatocytes, that line up in radiating rows. Between each row are sinusoids. These small blood vessels diffuse oxygen and nutrients through their capillary walls into the liver cells.
Thus, the functional unit of the liver is the lobule.
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which of the following best describes a difference between generalist species and specialist species?
While specialists only utilize a small number of resources to thrive, generalists use a wide variety of resources.
What do generalists and specialists do?Generalists can survive in a variety of environments and eat a variety of foods. On the other side, specialists have a more constrained diet and more stringent habitat requirements. An illustration of a generalist species is the raccoon (Procyon lotor).
What does a generalist look like in practice?Generalist species are those that can thrive in a wide range of habitats and consume a variety of foods. The archetypal example of such a generalist species is the raccoon. Their distribution encompasses all of Mexico and South America. They are omnivores and can survive on a variety of diets, including human waste.
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what would you expect to see in regions of dna that are sensitive to digestion by dnase i in terms of acetylation? please choose the correct answer from the following choices, and then select the submit answer button. answer choices more acetylation supercoiling less acetylation no change in acetylation
A significant epigenetic modification known as histone acetylation modifies the chromatin architecture and controls the expression of genes by either opening or closing the chromatin structure.
How does acetylation of histones affect DNA structure?Chromosome structure is changed by histone acetylation.
When histones are acetylated, chromatin becomes more accessible and DNA binding proteins can interact with exposed regions to stimulate gene transcription and other cellular processes.It is generally known that both histone deacetylation and DNA methylation inhibit gene transcription. In contrast, when histones are deacetylated by HDAC, their electrostatic contacts with DNA become stronger, resulting in relaxed chromatin that upregulates transcription.Acylation: The addition of an acyl group to a molecule. In this illustration of the Friedel-Crafts acylation process, acetyl chloride and benzene are acylated to form acetophenone in the presence of the Lewis acid catalyst AlCl3. The electrophilic aromatic substitution mechanism underlies the reaction.To Learn more About histone acetylation refer to:
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order the following events from first to last in initiation of translation in prokaryotes.
1) 16S rRNA base pairs with the Shine-Dalgarno sequence
2) Initiator tRNA charged with fMet binds the P site on the 30S
3) 30S subunit binds near 5' end of mRNA
4) 50S subunit binds the 30S subunit
Answer:
Not sure but I think the answer is C. Don't quote me on it.
Explanation:
9.Anhidrosis is the inability to sweat normally. If the human body cannot sweat properly, it cannot cool itself, which is potentially harmful. Anhidrosis most directly interferes with
A) a feedback mechanism that maintains homeostasis
B) an immune system response to harmless antigens
C) the synthesis of hormones in the circulatory system
D) the enzymatic breakdown of water in cells
Anhidrosis directly disrupts a feedback system that maintains homeostasis.
How anhidrosis interferes with homeostasis?When ones sweat glands don't work properly, one have anhidrosis. This can be due to a congenital problem or a disorder that impacts our nerves or skin. Anhidrosis can also result from dehydration. It's not always possible to identify the cause of anhidrosis. This is because homeostasis, which is the capacity to maintain one's internal environment, prevents a person with anhidrosis from sweating and allowing their body to cool. Because negative feedback has the power to alter the response to a stimulus and prevent it from continuing, it has an impact on the negative feedback system that maintains homeostasis. The body reaches a point when it is unable to cool itself because to a loss in its capacity to react to heat stimuli.
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Where is the cranial ganglia?
Answer:
along the roots of cranial nerves V (trigeminal), VII (facial), IX (glossopharyngeal), and X (vagus) as they enter the brain stem.
Explanation:
Cranial Ganglia is analogous to the dorsal root ganglion, except that it is associated with a cranial nerve, instead of a spinal nerve (associated with the spinal cord).
Where are the cranial ganglia?
The CG are located along the roots of cranial nerves V (trigeminal), VII (facial), IX (glossopharyngeal), and X (vagus) as they enter the brain stem.
How many cranial ganglia are there?
23 pairs of ganglia can be found.
What is the function of the ganglia?
Movement. The basal ganglia are a key part of the network of brain cells and nerves that control your body's voluntary movements. They can approve or reject movement signals that your brain sends, filtering out unnecessary or incorrect signals.
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What is the term for an organism's ability to maintain constant internal conditions.
Homeostasis is the term for an organism's ability to maintain constant internal conditions.
Homeostasis is the process by which the organism maintains a stable internal environment. There are different physical and chemical parameters found within the body of an organism.
The organism maintains these parameters to keep the internal environment stable. This homeostasis is influenced by many factors like energy, fluids, electrolytes, nutrition, and immune response mediators.
Body temperature regulation is one example of homeostasis. Suppose a person is walking under a hot sun, he is exposed to heat.
This person's body temperature raises. This signal will be sent to the brain. In response, the brain will signal the blood vessels and sweat glands.
As a result, the blood vessels will dilate. And the sweat glands will produce sweat. Thereby, the body temperature decreases.
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What does a karyotype allow doctors to detect?
Karyotype test checks the chromosomes in the cell. A doctor is able to check the chromosomes of cells through the test of karyotype.
What is a chromosome ?It is the hereditary unit of a genetic expression where the chromosomes carry the genetic information in them through parents and the genes are the unit of inheritance in them.
An average person has a 23 set of chromosomes that is they are having total of 46 chromosomes among which 44 are autosomes and 2 are the sex chromosomes. Karyotype test helps to diagnose the number of the
chromosomes.
If there is another pair or extra chromosome copy present where the disorder might occur like down syndrome, turner syndrome or klinefilter as well.
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dr. garcia is interested in the genetic and environmental influences on musical ability. which of the following methods would be most useful for determining how heritable musical ability is (i.e. how much it depends on genes vs. environment)?
The question above isn't complete, as there are no options for us to choose from. That being said, the most common method for determining musical heritability is comparison.
Heritability is generally defined as a statistic that estimates the degree of variation in a trait in a population that is due to genetic variation between individuals in that population. To determine how heritable musical ability is, one can compare participants coming from musical families with participants coming from non-musical families. It can also be more specific, like whether the participants were trained in music or not, to determine how much environment matters vs genes.
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different genotypes can produce the same phenotype. true or false. answer: what information can be obtained by working with a punnett square? check all that apply. a. possible genotypes of offspring b. possible phenotypes of offspring c. possible gametes of parents d. possible advantages of trait
The statement is true because different genotype is able to produce the same kind of phenotypes. The information on possible genotypes of offspring could be obtained by working with a Punnett square.
So, the correct option is A.
Different environments can result in different traits in people with a specific genotype because the phenotype is the result of how genes and the environment interact. Moreover, a phenotype might result from many genotypes having distinct genotypes. Genetic allele diversity accounts for this. Only if a person possesses two copies of the gene will a recessive allele manifest its effects.
The percentages of various genotypes that are anticipated to be present in the children of two parents may be calculated using a Punnett square. The percentages of traits that will be present in a cross's progeny from known genotypes may be predicted using a Punnett square. They are beneficial because they can forecast the genetic likelihood of a specific trait developing in a couple's kids.
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A cycle consists of a carefully balanced set of molecules. In order for the cycle to continue, this balance must be maintained. How many turns of the calvin cycle must occur before one molecule of g3p can leave?.
Three cycles of the Calvin cycle must occur before a molecule of G3P can leave as the molecule contains a total of three carbon atoms.
Calvin cycle is the first process of the light-independent reactions of photosynthesis. The process occurs in three steps: carbon fixation, reduction and regeneration. The reaction is carried out the inorganic environmental carbon into organic form.
G3P stands for Glyceraldehyde 3-phosphate. It is also known by other names like triose phosphate or 3-phosphoglyceraldehyde. It s formed in the Calvin cycle by the process of reduction that involved the use of ATP. These are used for glucose synthesis as well as for RuBP regeneration.
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what does the intrinsic growth rate of a species measure? how does it vary among species?
The intrinsic growth rate of herbal boom, is frequently interpreted because the most populace boom charge beneathneath given biotic (e.g., diet) and abiotic situations. The max ability for boom beneathneath best situations for a among species: R- excessive boom bc have many infants and K- Slow boom due to the fact do not have lots of infants.
The intrinsic charge of boom, as described withinside the exponential equation, isn't a consistent range in any respect however instead is itself a characteristic of the density of the populace. Genetic version is the presence of variations in sequences of genes among character organisms of a species. It allows herbal selection, one of the number one forces riding the evolution of life.
Implied Dividend Growth Rate = Cost of Equity – (Dividends Per Share ÷ Current Share Price). Species extrade over time; a few tendencies turn out to be greater not unusualplace, others less. This procedure of extrade is pushed through herbal selection. The tendencies that turn out to be greater not unusualplace are those that are “adaptive” or “boom fitness” (that is, a creature's possibilities of dwelling longer and generating greater offspring).
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which of the following dna mutations is the most likely to be damaging to the protein it specifies? a. a base-pair deletion b. a codon deletion c. a codon substitution d. a point mutation e. a substitution in the last base of a codon
The base-pair deletion dna mutations is the most likely to be damaging to the protein it specifies.
What is DNA mutation?A mutation is a change in an organism's DNA sequence. Mutations can occur as a result of mistakes in DNA replication during cell division, mutagen exposure, or viral infection. Cystic fibrosis, hemophilia, and sickle cell disease are all caused by hereditary mutations. Other mutations can occur on their own during a person's life. These are referred to as sporadic, spontaneous, or novel mutations. They only have an effect on a subset of cells. In gametes, germline mutations arise. Other cells in the body experience somatic mutations. Chromosomal changes are mutations that modify the structure of the chromosome. Point mutations affect only one nucleotide.
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Which of the following statements about pattern formation are true? Select the four statements that are true.
1) Homeotic genes code for transcription factors that control the development of segment-specific body parts.
2) Homeotic genes establish major body axes.
3) Cells receive molecular signals that communicate their position in relation to other cells.
4)Differential gene expression affects the developmental process in animals.
5)Pattern formation begins in adult animals.
6)The process of pattern formation involves segmentation of the body but does not involve the development of segment-specific body parts.
7)Positional information controls pattern formation.
The correct ones are:
Differential gene expression affects the developmental process in animals.Positional information controls pattern formation.Homeotic genes code for transcription factors that control the development of segment-specific body parts.Cells receive molecular signals that communicate their position in relation to other cells.Gene expression is the process by which information from a gene is used in the synthesis of a functional gene product, allowing it to produce end products such as protein or non-coding RNA and, as a result, affect a phenotype.
A homeotic gene is any of a group of genes that control the pattern of body formation in organisms during early embryonic development. These genes encode proteins known as transcription factors, which direct the formation of various body parts.
Molecular signaling refers to molecules that transmit information between cells in the body. However, the molecular properties of signaling molecules can vary greatly.
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What is dna sequence that serves as a recognition and recruitment site for transcription factors & rna polymerase?.
The RNA polymerase enzyme is a large complex made up of multiple subunits1. The prokaryotic form of RNA polymerase has 4 subunits able to transcribing all types of RNA. In eukaryotes, these enzymes have 8 or greater subunits that facilitate the attachment and processing of DNA at some stage in transcription.
All eukaryotes have 3 special RNA polymerases (RNAPs) which transcribe exceptional kinds of genes. RNA polymerase I transcribes rRNA genes, RNA polymerase II transcribes mRNA, miRNA, snRNA, and snoRNA genes, and RNA polymerase III transcribes tRNA and 5S rRNA genes.
RNA polymerase binds to a chain of DNA known as the promoter, found close to the start of a gene. each gene (or group of co-transcribed genes, in micro organism) has its personal promoter. as soon as bound, RNA polymerase separates the DNA strands, imparting the unmarried-stranded template wished for transcription.
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the sexual orientation of the mother does not necessarily affect the psychosexual development of children. true or false
True, sexual orientation of mother doesn't affect the psychosexual development of child.
What is psychosexual development?One of the first attempts to place psychology within the same scientific framework and technique as medicine was Freud's developmental theory on psychosexual development. Normative human sexual development was initially defined in order to achieve this union. Five separate stages of psychosexual maturation were identified by Freud. Each stage represents how the libido or instincts are focused on a particular part of the body (i.e., erogenous zones). One must move through each of the aforementioned psychosexual stages in order to develop into a fully-functional adult.
Each of the five stages has a corresponding age range, erogenous bodily location, and clinical fixation consequence according to Freudian psychosexual development theory:
Stage I: mouth, 0–1 year old.
Stage II: Bowel, and Bladder, 1-3 years old.
Age 3-6, phallic genitalia, stage III.
Stage IV: latency, dormant sexual desires, ages 6 to 12.
Stage V: 13–18 years old, mature sexual feelings in the genitalia.
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stimulates t lymphocyte activity can be initiated by specific types of pathogens intensifies the effect of antiviral interferons accelerates microbial growth by increasing iron absorption from the digestive tract
The given statement is true about the accelerates microbial growth by increasing iron absorption from the digestive tract that stimulates t lymphocyte activity affect it.
What are t lymphocyte?T cells, also known as T lymphocytes, are a vital component of the immune system and are a type of leukocyte (white blood cell). The specificity of the immune response to antigens (foreign substances) in the body is determined by one of two main types of lymphocytes, T cells, with B cells being the other type.
T cells develop in the thymus after emerging from the bone marrow. T cells proliferate and differentiate into memory T cells, helper, regulatory, or cytotoxic T cells in the thymus. They then travel through the blood or lymphatic system or are sent to peripheral tissues. Helper T cells secrete chemical messengers known as cytokines after being triggered by the proper antigen, which encourages B cells to differentiate into plasma cells (antibody-producing cells).
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Which of the following will not increase cardiac output?
a. increase venous return b.increase sympathetic activity C.increasing parasympathetic activity D. increasing blood volume E. increasing intracellular calcium in contractile cells
Increasing parasympathetic activity will not increase cardiac output.
Cardiac output is measured in liters per minute and is the product of heart rate (HR) and stroke volume (SV). HR is most commonly defined as the number of heartbeats per minute. SV is the volume of blood ejected during ventricular contraction or each heartbeat.
Cardiac output (CO) is the amount of blood pumped by the heart per minute. It is determined by dividing the stroke volume by the heart rate.
In calm "rest and digest" situations, the parasympathetic nervous system predominates, whereas the sympathetic nervous system drives the "fight or flight" response in stressful situations. The primary function of the PNS is to conserve energy for later use and to regulate bodily functions such as digestion and urination.
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During photosynthesis, the energy used to pump protons comes from ___________, whereas in cellular respiration it comes from _____________.
During photosynthesis, the energy used to pump protons comes from light whereas in cellular respiration it comes from NADH/FADH2.
What source of energy does photosynthesis and cellular respiration use?The primary goal of photosynthesis is to transform solar radiation into chemical energy that can be used to produce food. The process of breaking down sugar in the presence of oxygen in the mitochondria of organisms (animals and plants) releases energy in the form of ATP.
What direction does photosynthesis pump protons in?the source of the electrons: photosynthesis uses H2O while oxidative phosphorylation uses NADH/FADH2. the chloroplasts' thylakoid space as opposed to outside the mitochondrion's matrix is the direction of proton pumping.
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Osmosis Activity
1. An animal cell is made of 50% water. The solution that surrounds the cell is
made of 50% water. Draw a picture that illustrates how osmosis will affect
this cell, and identify the type of solution this cell is in. Will this cell survive
in this type of solution? Why or why not?
Isotonic solutions contain the same volume of water and other dissolved substances as a cell's cytoplasm. When a cell is placed in a hypotonic solution, water from the surroundings causes the cell to expand. However, it keeps its size and shape if stored in an isotonic solution.
When compared to the hypertonic solution, the cell contains more water. In isotonic fluids, equal quantities of impermeable solutes are present on both sides of the membrane, preventing the cell from expanding or contracting. The osmotic pressure of an isotonic solution, like the ECF, is equal to that of the ICF. In these circumstances, water continuously flows across the semipermeable membrane to maintain the equilibrium of the cell with its surroundings.
As a result, the solution type can be described as isotonic. This type of solution allows this cell to survive.
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which of the following represent mechanisms by which proteobacteria generate a proton motive force for atp synthesis?
The mechanism by which proteobacteria generate a proton motive force for ATP synthesis is: (1) aerobic oxidation of H2S; (2) light-driven proton pumps; and (4) anaerobic oxidation of glucose.
Proteobacteria is a large phylum of the Gram-negative bacteria. The microorganisms of proteobacteria are: hydrogenogenic CO oxidizers. These bacteria may have varying shapes and forms. They are also called purple bacteria and relatives.
Proton motive force (PMF) is a type of potential energy that drives the synthesis of ATP. It is comprised of charge and chemical components. PMF is created by the pumping out of the of protons by the respiratory chain complexes.
The given question is incomplete, the complete question is:
Which of the following represent mechanisms by which proteobacteria generate a proton motive force for ATP synthesis?
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Eukaryotic chromosomes tend to be much larger than prokaryotic chromosomes. In order to package these large chromosomes into the nucleus, which family of proteins are used by the cell?.
Eukaryotic chromosomes tend to be much larger than prokaryotic chromosomes. To package these large chromosomes into the nucleus, histones are used by the cell.
What are histones?
Histone is a type of protein that packages the chromosome so it can comfortably adjust into the cell nucleus.
From the question, eukaryotic chromosomes are usually larger than prokaryotic chromosomes. Eukaryotic chromosomes are found in organisms that the cell has a nucleus. This is common with organisms such as animals and plants. However, prokaryotic chromosomes are present in organisms that don't have a cell nucleus.
So, histones play a major role to ensure the large chromosomes in eukaryotes are perfectly fitted into the cell nucleus.
In summary, histones belong to a family of proteins that allows large eukaryotic chromosomes to wrap around them.
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as fragment area size increases, the number of infected ticks per acre decreases. the number of infected ticks in a fragment size of 30 acres will be less than the number of infected ticks in a fragment size of 16 acres. there are over three times more infected ticks in the smallest fragments (1.2 - 6.3 acres) compared to the number of infected ticks in the second smallest fragments (6.4 - 11.1 acres). a decrease in the fragment area size causes more ticks to be infected there.
One method of preventing Lyme disease involves using acaricides on mice, deer, or other animals to reduce the amount of ticks.
What causes tick populations to rise?Ticks, land development, and climate change. Numerous spider species' tick habitats are likely expanding as a result of climate change. Because ticks are exotherms, which means that they don't maintain constant internal temperatures like mammals and birds, it may have an impact on the range of ticks.
How can ticks get sick?If ticks consume infected creatures like mice and other mammals, they may become affected themselves. When an infected tick bites a human and remains attached for a while, the disease may be transmitted.
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what type of fossil forms when a buried organism decays or is dissolved, but the original shape is preserved in the sediment?
Mold is the imprint of organisms left on rocks. Creature remains are completely decomposed. The rock that fills the form resembles the original ruins. A fossil that forms in a mold is called a cast (pictured below).
Fossil fungi (multiple fungal fossils) A fossil that fills the interior and exterior of a dead organism with sediment, leaving no remains of the organism, only the shape and texture of the rock, indicating that there was organic matter there. . When animals die and their bodies decompose, they can leave traces in the sediment. When this trail fills with minerals from sediment or groundwater, it can harden and become a fossil. This fossil is called a cast fossil. Fossilized traces are called mold fossils.
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What is herbicide used for?
Herbicides are chemicals used to manipulate or control undesirable vegetation.
What are herbicides?
Herbicides are typically chemical agents used to eradicate or stunt the growth of undesirable plants, such as invasive species and weeds in residential or agricultural areas.
Since 2001, glyphosate, also referred to by many brand names, such as Roundup, has been the most frequently used herbicide in the US. Although herbicides are intended to kill plants, they can also be harmful to people and other animals. Herbicides differ greatly in terms of how they affect the environment, specifically in terms of how toxic they are and how long they last. By interfering with specific biochemical processes, they change the plant's normal biological function. They thus enter the plant as well as translocate to their site of action when applied to foliage or soil. Atrazine, glyphosate 2,4-dichlorophenoxyacetic acid (2,4-D), and simazine are a few examples of translocated herbicides.
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Deficiencies in folic acid are noticed first in rapidly growing cells, such as those in which areas?
a. Gastrointestinal (GI) tract
b. Bone marrow
c. Cancerous tissues
Deficiencies in folic acid are noticed first in rapidly growing cells, such as those in which areas like bone marrow. correct option is (B).
Here, you have a lower-than-normal number of red blood cells and these cells are abnormally large. These lead to a reduced amount of oxygen circulating in your blood and with time, having less oxygen in your blood can make you feel weak.
As we know blood cells are formed in bone marrow, the deficiency of folic acid is first seen in bone marrow.
This deficiency means not enough vitB9 in body
Folate is required for red blood cells and when body doesn’t have folate, bone marrow produce large red blood cells known as megaloblast. They are large and may not come out of bone marrow which results in less blood cells in bloodstream and hence the decrease in blood cells lead to anemia.
Symptoms of folate deficiency-
1. Tiredness
2. Shortness of breath
3. Pale skin
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Which of the following groupings correctly identifies the classification of fungi?
Multiple Choice
a. Domain Eukarya, supergroup Opisthokonts, kingdom Fungi
b. Domain Bacteria, supergroup Opisthokonts, kingdom Fungi
c. Domain Eukarya, supergroup Amoebozoans, kingdom Fungi
d. Domain Eukarya, supergroup Amoebozoans, kingdom Plantae
e. Domain Eukarya, supergroup Rhizaria, kingdom Fungi
a. Domain Eukarya, supergroup Opisthokonts, kingdom Fungi
Flagellate cells, like the sperm of the majority of mammals and the spores of the chytrid fungus, push themselves with a single posterior flagellum. This is a frequent feature of opisthokonts. This characteristic is responsible for the group's name. Other eukaryote groups' flagellate cells, in contrast, propel themselves with one or more anterior flagella. However, flagellate cells have been lost in certain opisthokont groupings, including the majority of fungi.
The synthesis of extracellular chitin in the exoskeleton, cyst/spore wall, or cell wall of filamentous growth and hyphae, the extracellular digestion of substrates with osmotrophic nutrient absorption, and additional cell biosynthetic and metabolic pathways are all characteristics of opisthokonts. Each clade's base genera are phagotrophic and amoeboid.
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the pyruvate kinase in red blood cells has a deltag value of -31.4, what is the equilibrium constant keq for the reaction at 25?
The following reaction's equilibrium constant, Keq K e q, was found to be 7.2 x 103 at 25 degrees Celsius.
The K equilibrium constant is what?Equilibrium constant (K) is a mathematical ratio that displays the product concentrations subtracted from the reactant concentrations.
Keq equilibrium: what is it?The equilibrium constant (Keq) is the ratio of the mathematical product of the concentrations of the products of a reaction to the mathematical product of the concentrations of the reactants of the reaction.
What is the equilibrium Keq value?If Keq is a small number (Keq<1), it means that, at equilibrium, the concentration of the reactants is large. In this case, the reaction favors the formation of reactants. If Keq ≈ 1, it means that there are sizeable amounts of both reactants and products at equilibrium.
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Under different conditions, stomata can open or close to regulate gas exchange.
carbon dioxide needed
nighttime
daytime
oxygen produced by photosynthesis
hot daytime temperatures
Answer:
it can open cause when it uses
What alleles only show their effect if the individual has two copies of the allele?.
Recessive alleles show their effect if the individual has two copies of the allele.
Only when an individual has two copies of a recessive allele will its effects manifest. For instance, the recessive nature of the "blue eye" allele means that two copies are required for someone to have blue eyes. When a person carries two copies of a particular allele,the recessive alleles manifest their traits. Having the identical two alleles in this way is referred to as homozygosity. For the phenotype to manifest, the allele must exist in two copies.
When two genes in a pair are abnormal, a disease can only be caused by the abnormal gene. The term "carrier" refers to individuals who have just one faulty gene out of a pair. Most frequently, no ailment affects these persons. The abnormal gene, however, can be passed on to their offspring.
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