Negative feedback helps to keep a variable within its regular range and lessens an overreaction.
How does unfavourable criticism work and what is it?
Negative feedback occurs when an output of a system, process, or mechanism is given back in a way that aims to reduce oscillations in the output, whether these oscillations are caused by changes in the input or other disturbances.
What possible repercussions could negative feedback have?
Because the feedback energy (voltage or current) is out of phase with the input signal when there is negative feedback, the input signal opposes the feedback energy. Negative feedback reduces the amplifier's gain. It also reduces distortion, noise, and instability. The bandwidth is increased while the input and output impedances are improved by this feedback.
Become familiar with Bandwidth.
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Answer: B
Explanation:
Which are functions of the lysosome?
Choose all that apply:
cell membrane repair
digestion
immune response to bacteria
protein synthesis
creation of lipids
creation of membranes
Answer:
Repair, Digestion, immune response.
Explanation:
the ER is responsible for the creation of lipids and membranes and ribosomes are responsible for protein synthesis.
for a two allele system in a population, if you have an allele frequency of a equal to 0.6, then the frequency of the homozygous recessive allele will be
The frequency of the homozygous recessive allele will be 0.48
How do you find the frequency of two alleles in a population?We once again examine each person's genotype, count the copies of each allele, then divide that number by the total number of gene copies to determine the allele frequencies.Take the square root of q2 to get q, or the frequency of the recessive allele in the population, which is 0.632 (0.632 x 0.632 = 0.4). So, q = 0.63. P must be 1 - 0.63 = 0.37 since p + q = 1.When gametes mix at random to make zygotes and each allele appears at the same rates in sperm and eggs, the likelihood that any two alleles will combine to create a certain genotype is equal to the product of the allele frequencies.Given data :
Frequency of allele P = 0.6 or 60%, Frequency of allele p = 0.4 or 40%.
From Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium : (p^2 + 2pq + q^2)
2pq (Heterozygous genotype) = 2 x 0.6 x 0.4 = 0.48 or 48%
So, the correct answer is '0.48'.
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If the nerve to the arm were cut along the line marked X - - - - X, how would this affect the person's movements? Give a reason for your answer.
Central Nervous System question.
Diagram is attached
the femoral artery becomes the popliteal artery after passing the inguinal ligament.
The femoral artery becomes the popliteal artery after passing the adductor hiatus.
What is adductor hiatus?The femoral artery and vein travel from the thigh's adductor canal to the popliteal fossa through the adductor hiatus (AH), which is an opening in the muscle's aponeurotic distal attachment.
The femoral artery, vein, and femoral nerve branches are all located within the canal.
The area containing the femoral artery and vein below the femoral triangle is known as the subsartorial canal or adductor canal. Hunter's canal got its name because he was the first to explain how to expose and ligate the femoral artery to treat popliteal aneurysms.
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Very small changes in the solute concentrations in the various fluid compartments cause water to move from one compartment to another, which alters blood composition and blood pressure. How do the following physiological changes affect blood pressure?.
a. Decrease water reabsorption : decrease blood pressure.
b. Decrease peripheral resistance : decrease blood pressure
c. Vasodilation : decrease blood pressure
d. Decrease salt intake : decrease blood pressure
e. Decrease blood volume : decrease blood pressure
f. Vasoconstriction : increase blood pressure
g. Increase peripheral resistance: increase blood pressure
h. Increase salt intake: increase blood pressure
i. Increase blood volume : increase blood pressure
j. Increase water reabsorption: increase blood pressure
Total peripheral resistance: This term refers to the resistance offered by the vascular system to the blood flow. This resistance is a result of the friction between the blood and the vessel's walls. In other words, it is the opposition of the vessels to blood flow.
The total peripheral resistance is the summary of all the bloody circuit resistances in the body. Those mechanisms that induce vasoconstriction conduce to an increase in total peripheral resistance, while mechanisms that induce vasodilation provoke a decrease in total peripheral resistance.
Blood pressure: This term refers to the strength applied by the blood against the vessel walls as it flows. This pressure is determined by the bombed blood strength and the volume as well as by the vessel size and flexibility. Blood pressure changes continuously according to the activity, temperature, diet, emotional state, among others.
Salt ingestion causes an increase in plasmatic osmolarity, stimulates thirst, and hence, water ingestion. Sodium retains water, expanding the blood volume and causing an increase in vessel pressure.
The antidiuretic hormone, also known as vasopressin hormone, is released by changes in serum osmolarity or blood volume. Its function is to keep homeostasis and make kidneys conserve or keep water by concentrating urine and by reducing its volume. By these actions, the antidiuretic hormone stimulates water reabsorption, according to the organism´s needs.
Kidneys control blood pressure in many ways. If the pressure is elevated, kidneys produce the loss of salt and water, normalizing arterial pressure. But if pressure is low, kidneys conserve water.
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Full Question ;
Very small changes in the solute concentrations in the various fluid compartments cause water to move from one compartment to another, which alters blood composition and blood pressure. How do the following physiological changes affect blood pressure?
a. Decrease water reabsorption
b. Decrease peripheral resistance
c. Vasodilation
d. Decrease salt intake
e. Decrease blood volume
f. Vasoconstriction
g. Increase peripheral resistance
h. Increase salt intake
i. Increase blood volume
j. Increase water reabsorption
Place the events that occur during the effector response of cytotoxic T-lymphocytes in the correct sequence. Exposure to unhealthy or foreign cell Antigen is presented to T-lymphocytes in secondary lymphatic structures Activated cytotoxic T-lymphocyte contacts an infected cell at site of infection Cytotoxic T-lymphocyte releases perforin and granzymes Apoptosis of infected cell Cytotoxic T-lymphocytes migrate to the site of infection
The proper sequence is antigen given to T lymphocyte, T lymphocyte activation, cytotoxic T cell cloning, and cytotoxic T cell assault of the target cell.
How do T lymphocytes destroy infected cells?In cellular immunity, a killer T cell identifies and kills a virus-infected cell because of the viral antigen on its surface, thus aborting the infection because a virus will not grow within a dead cell.Thus, Cytotoxic T cells kill their targets by programming them to undergo apoptosis.Cytotoxic T cells kill their targets by programming them to undergo apoptosis. When cytotoxic T cells are mixed with target cells and rapidly brought into contact by centrifugation, they can program antigen-specific target cells to die within 5 minutes, although death may take hours to become fully evident.T lymphocytes are the type of immune cells that develop from stem cells in bone marrow and mature and differentiate in thymus.T cells may be either T helper cell (CD8+) or T cytotoxic cells (CD4+).Antibodies are secreted by plasma cells. T cytotoxic cells come in direct contact with infected cell to kill it by secreting the perforins specifically virus infected cells.
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Which statement best discribed the atoms of gas neon?
A.they slide pass eachother
B.they move freely in all directions
C.they vibrate in place
D. They are packed closely together
The statement which best describes the atoms of gas neon is that they move freely in all directions and is therefore denoted as option B.
What is Atom?This is referred to as the smallest particle of a chemical element that can exist and the combination of two or more atoms is referred to as a molecule and they are involved in chemical reactions.
The gas which is referred to as neon falls under the group of noble gases and they have a stable octet configuration which makes them unable to bond with others and the gas state of matter also makes it that they move freely in all directions which is why it was chosen as the correct choice.
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in a population of 1000 turtles, you observe the following genotypes: tt - 580 tt - 320 tt - 100 what is the frequency of allele t?
The frequency of allele t is 0.37.
The allele is defined as the variant form of the gene, which is present on the same locus of chromosome as the gene.
Alleles codes for two or more different traits. The combination of alleles can be heterozygous or purebred.
The heterozygous pair includes one dominant and one recessive allele, whereas the purebred genotype involves either both dominant or both recessive.
In the following pair of alleles, the genotype of the purebred dominant trait is TT.
In the case of the question above, the cross between the alleles of parents that both have the (TT x tt) alleles is shown below, using the Punnett square.
T t
T TT Tt
t Tt tt
Number of alleles of TT = 580
Number of alleles of tt = 320
Number of alleles of Tt = 100
The frequency of allele t = (320 + 50)/1000 = 0.37
Therefore, the frequency of allele t is 0.37.
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Which B vitamin is critical for DNA synthesis and cell division?
-Folate (folic acid)
-Pyridoxine
-Biotin
-Pantothenic acid
A B vitamin called folic acid is essential for cell division and DNA synthesis. Sperm motility and count have been shown to be negatively correlated with low levels of folic acid.
Which vitamin helps in DNA synthesis and cell division?Tetrahydrofolate, a form of folic acid that is active,
Folic acid is a water-soluble vitamin that is made up of a para-aminobenzoic acid (PABA) molecule with an amino terminus linked to a pteridine and a carboxyl group coupled to the -amino group of glutamic acid (Glu).The active cofactor form of FA known as tetrahydrofolate (THFA or H4 folate) is created when the enzyme folic acid reductase reduces the pteridine ring at positions 5, 6, 7, and 8. THFA is a crucial component of the metabolism of both prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells. It contributes one-carbon units and other tiny molecular building blocks to the manufacture of purines (see Chapter 15, phase two of the route), dTMP, and other amino acids, such as methionine.To Learn more About folic acid refer To:
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PLSSS HELP IF YOU TURLY KNOW THISS
Classify the components as most accurately describing cofactors, coenzymes, or neither.
a. Zn2+
b. FAD
c. metel ion
d. CoA
All the given components i.e., Zn²⁺, FAD, metal ion and CoA are all cofactors. FAD can act as a coenzyme as well.
FAD stands for Flavin Adenine Dinucleotide. It acts as a redox active coenzyme for some metabolic reactions while as a cofactor for cytochrome-b5 reductase enzyme. There are two forms of FAD: FAD⁺ and FADH₂.
Cofactor is a part of the protein which itself in non-proteinaceous in nature. The role of a cofactor is to act as a catalyst for the enzyme and increase the rate of the chemical reactions it participates in. In simple terms, cofactors are the helper molecules.
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organic foods have proven to be nutritionally superior to conventionally grown foods.
"Organic foods have been shown to be nutritionally superior to foods cultivated conventionally."
The statement is true.
Studies show that numerous nutrients are slightly to moderately increased in organic foods. Certain antioxidants and flavonoids, which have antioxidant characteristics, may be present in higher concentrations in organic vegetables.
Many have maintained that organic foods are better for our body than non-organic, or "conventional" meals, which has led to a long-running controversy about them. The distinctions between these two possibilities, nevertheless, are more nuanced than they initially appear.
Foods that are organic are frequently more fresh than those that are conventional, especially if you get them from a local produce stand or farmer's market.
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The merge and center icon will combine the contents of the selected cells into one larger cell.
a. True
b. False
The merge and center icon will combine the contents of the selected cells into one larger cell.
True
Which choice is used to merge all the cells and add the heading text in the center?
Utilize Excel's Merge and Center tool to combine cells.
The built-in Merge and Center option in Excel is the quickest and simplest way to join two or more cells. There are only 2 fast steps in the entire process: Choose the adjacent cells that you want to combine. Click Merge & Center under the Alignment group on the Home tab.Which choice is used to merge all the cells and add the heading text in the center?
Utilize Excel's Merge and Center tool to combine cells.
The built-in Merge and Center option in Excel is the quickest and simplest way to join two or more cells. There are only 2 fast steps in the entire process: Choose the adjacent cells that you want to combine. Click Merge & Center under the Alignment group on the Home tab.
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2. What is TRUE about split-brain patients?
Their corpus callosum is stronger than those of usual patients.
Their Broca's area and Wernicke's area are merged together.
They cannot transfer information from one hemisphere to another.
They are unable to use all four lobes of the cerebrum.
According to the research, the correct answer is Option C. The statement "They cannot transfer information from one hemisphere to another" is TRUE about split-brain patients.
What is split-brain?In general, it is a brain excision surgery, which consists of removing the corpus callosum, which creates a disconnection between the right and left hemispheres.
In this sense, the corpus callosum is an internal area of the brain that is extremely important, since it is the structure that serves as a bridge for the two cerebral hemispheres to communicate actively and for which all the functions of the brain can be carried out.
Therefore, we can conclude that according to the research, in split-brain patients the area of the brain called the corpus callosum, which is made up of a group of neurons dedicated to the union of the hemispheres, has been cut.
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a pathogen-carrying insect that makes it impossible to grow vitis vinifera in the southern us, is called:
A pathogen-carrying insect that makes it impossible to grow Vitis vinifera in the southern us is called a glassy-winged sharpshooter.
Glass-winged snipers are a serious pest for grapes as they act as vectors for strains of Xylella fastidiosa that cause Pierce's disease in vineyards. It also infects the stems that cause oleander leaf blight on oleanders. The most effective are small bees that feed on the pest's egg mass.
The glassing sniper is an insect native to northeastern Mexico and the southeastern United States. Snipers are invasive in agricultural production areas of California, Hawaii, and the southwestern United States. A healthy population of beneficial insects is the most effective way to control snipers.
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when heart muscle cells are deprived of oxygen, the heart still pumps. what must the heart cells be able to do?
The heart cells able to continue aerobic metabolism when skeletal muscle cannot. To supply the muscles with extra oxygen and remove the carbon dioxide, the heart rate increases.
Aerobic metabolism:
A biological component known as adenosine triphosphate is used by aerobic metabolism to extract energy from glucose (ATP).
The energy in the human body comes from ATP, and the energy released when ATP molecules are broken up is used for many different biological processes, including the transport of molecules across membranes.
Cellular respiration, aerobic cellular respiration, and aerobic respiration are other names for aerobic metabolism. The human body is not designed to sustain anaerobic respiration for an extended period of time, and doing so would be extremely stressful.
Anaerobic metabolism is another type of metabolism that happens without oxygen.
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Nanami is examining a partial skeleton that was uncovered during a recent excavation project. Nanami noted evidence of advanced decay in the small
bones along the spinal column. From this, what did she conclude?
O A.
OB.
The rest of the bones are probably nearby.
They are likely the bones of a Caucasian female.
O C. They belong to a person who lived hundreds of years ago.
O D. They belong to someone who lived past middle age.
According to the given statement They belong to a person who lived hundreds of years ago.
What is called skeleton?The rigid framework that safeguards a living thing's interior organs is called a skeleton. Skeletons can exist within or outside of living things. Humans are animals, hence we have a skeleton consisting of bones. The "body" of a body is comprised of all the bones when they are all connected together.
What is the skeleton constructed of?206 bones make up an adult human's skeleton. These comprise the ribs, ribcage, arms, and legs in addition to the vertebrae within the spine. Sophisticated bone cells and calcium-fortified connective tissue make up the structure of bones. Most bones also include the brain tissue that produces blood cells.
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during a fight-or-flight response, epinephrine is released into the body’s circulatory system and transported throughout the body. some cells exhibit a response to the epinephrine while other cells do not. t or f
The right answer is True , Epinephrine is released into the circulatory system during a fight-or-flight response and is circulated throughout the body. Some cells respond in this way.
Epinephrine uses a particular kind of cell signalling called endocrine signalling. A ductless gland secretes a hormone into the blood directly, which is a form of cell signalling known as endocrine signalling.
Adrenalin, commonly known as epinephrine, is an excitatory neurotransmitter that plays a role in the body's "fight or flight" response and controls several mental processes, including blood pressure, heart rate, and metabolism. One Messenger, Many Reactions is produced from norepinephrine and discharged from the adrenal gland. An essential cell signalling molecule in the fight-or-flight response is epinephrine. Epinephrine, also referred to as adrenaline, is a powerful cells
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Which essential molecule in the body is out of equilibrium because of a cftr gene defect?.
which bone development process involves a central primary ossification center with subsequent secondary ossification centers?
Endochondral Ossification , The process of bone production known as endochondral ossification involves the central primary ossification center with subsequent secondary ossification centers.
In this procedure, bone is used to replace hyaline cartilage. During endochondral ossification, hyaline cartilage is replaced with bone tissue. In this way, the majority of the bones in the skeleton are created. Endochondral ossification bones are what they are known as secondary ossification. Future bones are first created in this phase as models made of hyaline cartilage. Chondrocytes multiply quickly and release an secondary ossification extracellular matrix to create the cartilage that serves as the model for bone. Chondrocytes create a blueprint for the hyaline cartilage diaphysis in long bones.
The complete question is :
Which bone development process involves a central primary ossification center with subsequent secondary ossification centers?
a. Intramembranous Ossification
b. Intermembranous Ossification
c. Interchondral Ossification
d. Endochondral Ossification
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“How does the color of light affect plant growth?”
Identify the controlled variables
Answer:
The controlled variables in this situation would be the type and intensity of the light being used to illuminate the plants, as well as the duration of time the plants are exposed to the light. Other controlled variables could include the type of plants being grown, the temperature and humidity of the environment in which the plants are grown, the amount of water and nutrients the plants receive, and any other factors that could potentially affect the plants' growth.
Explanation:
Which of the following is a simple sugar? A:lactose B:glucose C:lactose D:sucrose
Answer:
B is the correct answer to your question
Answer:
glucose
Explanation:
Kettlewell's experiment is included in most biology texts as an example of evolution occuring. How do we know that the moths evolved?.
The environment in which the moth lived was uncontaminated. This made dark moths rare. As the areas where bright moths were found became more polluted there were fewer bright moths in polluted/dark areas.
Light moths began to evolve after they could no longer survive in the dark forest. To protect themselves from predators, they began to blend into darkened and polluted areas. To study bird predation on moths directly, Dr. Kettlewell's bright and dark moths on tree trunks were where he could observe them.
He noted the number of times birds found moths. He found that birds on dark logs were twice as likely to eat light moths than dark moths. was found to selectively hunt Therefore, the evolution of dark-colored bodies provided a survival advantage in contaminated areas. He finds that light moss camouflage in dark forests is not working. Dark moths live longer in dark forests, giving them more time to breed.
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22.Which statement describes a short-term effect of tornadoes and hurricanes?
A. Human populations move away from coastal regions for inland areas.
B. Wildlife is displaced by the destruction of wetlands and forests.
C. New construction standards are enacted to make buildings better able to withstand the effects of storms.
D. "Greenhouse gases" are trapped in Earth's atmosphere.
Answer:
B
Explanation:
Wildlife can be displaced due to inland flooding that will cause them to drift from their normal habitation spot. The destruction of wetlands and forests is also another effect because the strong winds often lay waste to trees during storms.
The small blue circles in the figure just inside the oocyte membrane represent vesicles containing calcium ions that are spilled into the extracellular space to prevent polyspermy. When does this take place?.
Just before the sperm's head enters the membrane of the egg.
Openings form in the sperm acrosome that expose enzymes that digest a passage through the zona pellucida enclosing the secondary oocyte when a sperm encounters an egg. Changes take place as soon as one sperm enters the secondary oocyte, blocking the entry of other sperm. Typically, the sperm loses its flagellum when it penetrates the egg to fertilise it. The second meiotic division of the secondary oocyte is triggered by sperm entrance. The male pronucleus and the female pronucleus combine to produce the diploid nucleus of the zygote after the head of the haploid sperm swells to form them.
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in procedure 2, will selection against the rr genotype ever lead to complete removal of the r allele from the population? explain your answer.
The frequency of a given early in the population has not changed. Since it does, it cannot be true. Then, of course, there is the B part at the population level. Yes, this is accurate.
What is a frequency of an allele ? The frequency of an allele in a population is referred to as its allele frequency. It is calculated by dividing the number of gene copies by the number of times the allele occurs in the population.The relative frequency of an allele at a certain locus in a population, represented as a fraction or percentage, is known as gene frequency or allele frequency. The percentage of chromosomes in the population that carry that allele relative to the whole population or sample size is what is being discussed.The methods that alter allele frequencies throughout time include natural selection, genetic drift, and gene flow. A population violates the Hardy-Weinberg presumptions when one or more of these factors are present, and evolution takes place.Learn more about allele frequency refer to :
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Solution 1: People can lower the amount of carbon dioxide being produced in the air, using Direct Air Capturing technology. Solution 2: People can reduce the dumping of plastics into the ocean.
3. Which solution would be better to implement? Justify your answer.
The 4Rs Pledge, developed by the Plastic Pollution Coalition, calls for avoiding throwaway plastic whenever possible, consuming fewer goods with excessive plastic packaging or parts, reusing sturdy containers, straws, bags, and other objects, and recycling the remainder.
What to reduce the dumping of plastics into the ocean?When plastic enters the ocean, it slowly breaks down into microscopic fragments known as microplastics, which can join the marine food chain and do a great deal of harm to marine species.
Therefore, The plastic you discard can end up in the ocean, even if you live hundreds of miles from the shore.
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What is thermal pollution?
1. Heat lost to the air and water causing environmental changes
2. A form of energy
3. A bi product of light energy
4. Heat used to warm up an area
Answer:
1) Heat lost to the air and water causing environmental changes.
Explanation:
I hope this helps!!!
I added an image below for you to have a better understanding.
which type of sprinkler system valve includes a hollow metal post that houses the valve stem and a movable plate with the words open and shut on it?
The Post Indicator Valve (PIV) type sprinkler system valve has a hollow metal post that houses the valve stem and a movable plate that says "open" and "shut" on it.
Explain about the Post Indicator Valve?Post indication valves (PIVs) are strong, above-ground access and operator valves used for automatic sprinkler systems and wet standpipe systems whose main water supply valves are buried.
In the case of apartments, a PIV system is often installed inside a wall or the space beneath the roof. It functions by bringing in outside air, filtering it, and then heating the filtered air before dispersing it into any living areas.
The National Fire Protection Association (NFPA) stipulates regulations in NFPA 14: Standard for the Installation of Standpipe and Hose Systems, which specified that each water supply (apart from an FDC) shall be provided with a listed indicating valve in an authorized location.
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a bomb calorimeter can provide a close approximation for the amount of energy that will be produced by the body through the process of metabolism. State True or False your answer:
a. True
b. False
A bomb calorimeter can provide a close approximation for the amount of energy and this is a true statement.
What is a bomb calorimeter ?A device with the main function of calculating combustion heats. The reaction occurs in a sealed area known as the calorimeter proper, in controlled thermal contact with its surroundings, the jacket, and at a constant temperature.
It measures the heat of a specific reaction or the calorific value of the fuels using a constant-volume type calorimeter.
Bomb calorimeters are constructed in a way that allows them to survive the intense pressure that the reaction or burning of fuel causes inside the calorimeter.
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