helppp meee i don’t understand ittt

Step-by-step explanation:

2. B (6,6 )

3. C (-3,-5)

5. is angle B

4. AC

6.

7. Is translated 2 unit to the right

c. they all move 2 unit to the right

Answer:    B (6,6 )

                 C (-3,-5)

                is angle B

                       AC

Is translated 2 unit to the right

they all move 2 unit to the right

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

If it has a diameter of 10, divide it by 2 to get Radius (5) because Area = πr²

Then you do r * π *r which would be 78.5. so C is your answer.

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

$0.25r + $5 = $12.50

Step-by-step explanation:

r represents the amount of rides Lacy went on during the day. If you do the problem in the correct order, you will get the answer

Step 1)

Subtract 5 from both sides

$0.25r + 5 (-5) = 12.50 (-5)

Step 2)

Divide by 0.25

0.25r (Divided by 0.25) = 7.50 (Divided by 0.25)

Step 3)

Answer

r = 30 rides

Answer:

1/5 ; 1.64

Step-by-step explanation:

Cara used 1.64 pints of blue paint or 1/5 of 8.2.

Answer:

1.64 pints or 41/25 or 1.64/8/2 i dont know which will take

Step-by-step explanation:

1/5 = x/8.2 1/5=0.20

.20=x/8.2

x=8.2x.20

x=1.64

Answer:

D, 10m x 20m

Step-by-step explanation:

If the scale is 1cm in the diagram is 5m in real life, then:

In diagram:

Length of study area - 4cm

Breadth of study area - 2cm

In real life:

Length of student area - (4/1) x 5 = 20m

Breath of student area - (2/1) x 5 = 10m

Answer:

A

Step-by-step explanation:

2(8)(6) + 2(8)(10) + 2(6)(10) = 376

Answer:

im so confused  

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

It is 6x13

Step-by-step explanation:

you would multiply the length which is 13 times the height. The 8 is slanted so you wouldn’t multiply that. The 6 is a straight line so that is the correct height

Answer:

13*6=78 cm^2

Step-by-step explanation:

8 is redundant in this question, it's just there to throw you off and you don't need it.

To get the area of a parallelogram, multiply the base by the height.

13*6=78

Answer:

16

Step-by-step explanation:

-The greatest common factor of 16 and 80 is 16, it is the greatest number that divides evenly into it.

-The factors of 16 are 1,2,4,8,16;

-The factors of 80 are 1,2,4,5,8,10,16,20,40,80

The greatest common factor of 16 and 80 is 16.

To find the greatest common factor (GCF) of 16 and 80, we can list the factors of each number and identify the largest factor they have in common.

The factors of 16 are 1, 2, 4, 8, 16.

The factors of 80 are 1, 2, 4, 5, 8, 10, 16, 20, 40, 80.

Looking at the lists of factors, we can see that the largest factor they have in common is 16. Therefore, the GCF of 16 and 80 is 16.

The GCF represents the largest number that can evenly divide both 16 and 80 without leaving a remainder. In this case, 16 is the greatest number that can divide both 16 and 80, as it is a factor of both numbers.

To learn more about the greatest common factor;

https://brainly.com/question/11221202

#SPJ6

Answer:

314.28 cm²

Step-by-step explanation:

The radius of track = 10 m .

Using Formula of Area of circle :-

[tex]\implies Area =\pi r^2\\\\\implies Area = \dfrac{22}{7}\times 10cm\times 10cm \\\\\implies \boxed{ Area = 314.28 \ cm^2 }[/tex]

Answer:

The mode of a data set is the number that occurs most frequently in the set. To easily find the mode, put the numbers in order from least to greatest and count how many times each number occurs. The number that occurs the most is the mode.

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

mode of a data set is the number that is repeated the most in the given data set, simply count how many times a number is repeated in a given data set and which ever number is repeated the most will be your mode.

Hope this helps! and yes math can be hard sometimes but have a good day!

Answer:

12cm

Step-by-step explanation:

l=V

hw=180

3·5=12cm

Answer:

20

Step-by-step explanation:If p=100% and t=20% than 5×20=100 because if you add 20 five different times you get 100.

Answer:

Figure b

Step-by-step explanation:

A translation is when a shape hoves to different coordinates but doesn't change size.    

Answer:

its a counterclockwise rotation of 90° about the origin.

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

53% is the answer

Step-by-step explanation:

100%-47= 53%

Answer:

53% of the school is boys

Step-by-step explanation:

I can't really explain this in full detail since its pretty simple but all we would have to do is take 100 (the full precentage) and subtract 47 from it because we know that this is the precentage of girls in the school, and our answer would be 53%.

hope this helps <3

Answer:

still dont knoe

Step-by-step explanation:

dfgyewtruy

Answer:

y=-4x+17.           17

Step-by-step explanation:

y=-4x+m

(5)=-4(3)+m

5=-12+m

  +12

17=m

Answer:

h = 9

Step-by-step explanation:

4.25 x h = 38.25

38.25 / 4.25 = 9

Answer:

B. C is the correct answer

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

You're supposed to divide 1.875 inches by 500, because there are 500 pieces of paper. 1.875 divided by 500 is 0.00375, not 0.015 so Diego is wrong.

Answer:

You're gathered to separate 1.875 inches by 500, since there are 500 pieces of paper. 1.875 partitioned by 500 is 0.00375, not 0.015 so Diego is not right

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer: 5(x+1) -2(y-3) = 0

Step-by-step explanation: For a given line ax+by=c and point (h, k), a perpendicular line through the point can be written as ...

 b(x-h) -a(y-k) = 0

A graphing calculator shows the point of intersection of the graphs of the two lines to be (x, y) = (-1, 3), so the line perpendicular to 2x+5y=5 through that point can be written ...

 5(x+1) -2(y-3) = 0

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

division

division

division

Answer:

D

Step-by-step explanation:

The symbol, ≥, represents at or greater than the amount on the right side. This means the balance must be at or greater than $500.

Answer:

E

Step-by-step explanation:

The transversal of the parallel lines makes the alternate interior angles congruent according to the alternate interior angles theorem

Answer:

D i believe.

Step-by-step explanation:

P.S. if im wong im really sorry, its been awhile since ive had to do that. But honestly i think its D. also comment on this if im right or wrong pls, id like to know.

Answer: c

Step-by-step explanation:

all opposite sides are parallel and each angle is 135 degrees. it cannot be D because the angles are too wide to be 45 degrees

Answer:

1. 1/36

2. 9/64

Step-by-step explanation:

First Question:

1. First thing I look for is how many spots are there and how many of them are for each color: both green and orange have 1 spot each out of six spots.

2. The chances of landing on each one is 1/6.

3. Now that they have to land back to back, I multiply the fractions by using the denominator which is 1 in 36 or 1/36.

Second Question:

1. Once again I see there are eight spots and blue has 3 of those.

2. I multiply the chance of it landing on blue on the first time, 3/8, by itself for the second time, 3/8.

3. You multiply the fractions and you get 9 in 64 or 9/64.

Answer:

G

Step-by-step explanation: