f(x) = x ^ 4 - 6x ^ 3 + 8x ^ 2 - 21 ^ 2 the possible rational zeros

Answer:

En la primera habitación son usadas 1200 baldosas.

En la segunda habitación son usadas 600 baldosas.

Sobraron 200 baldosas.

Step-by-step explanation:

Tienes 2000 baldosas, con las que se propone embaldosar dos habitaciones.

Para la primera habitación se han gastado [tex]\frac{3}{5}[/tex] de las baldosas. Esto se expresa como:

[tex]\frac{3}{5}*2000[/tex]

Para multiplicar una fracción por un número entero, el número entero n se puede escribir como la fracción [tex]\frac{n}{1}[/tex]. Luego se multiplica los numeradores y denominadores. En este caso:

[tex]\frac{3}{5}*2000=\frac{3}{5}*\frac{2000}{1} =\frac{3*2000}{5*1} = \frac{6000}{5}[/tex]

Para reducir la fraccion, divide 40 entre 10

[tex]\frac{6000}{5} =[/tex] 6000 ÷5= 1200

Entonces en la primera habitación son usadas 1200 baldosas. Por lo que las que quedan se calcula como:

2000 - 1200= 800 baldosas

De esta cantidad de baldosas que quedaron, [tex]\frac{3}{4}[/tex] son usadas para embaldosar la segunda habitación.  Esto se expresa como:

[tex]\frac{3}{4}*800[/tex]

Resolviendo de igual manera que en el caso de la primer habitación se obtiene:

[tex]\frac{3}{4}*800=\frac{3}{4}*\frac{800}{1} =\frac{3*800}{4*1} =\frac{2400}{4}[/tex]= 2400 ÷ 4= 600

Entonces en la segunda habitación son usadas 600 baldosas. Por lo que, teniendo en cuenta que se tenían 800 baldosas que quedaron de la primera habitación, las baldosas restantes se calculan como:

800 - 600= 200 baldosas

Sobraron 200 baldosas.

Answer:

C

Step-by-step explanation:

A x 4pi=4piA = C^2

square root both sides and here you go

hope that answers your question

a Binomial is 2 terms

so the solution is

A

B

E

Answer:

A, B, and E

Step-by-step explanation:

Binomials are equations that consist of two terms.

Answer:

The numbers are blurry on the graph

Answer: 0 solutions, II only, 1 solution

Step-by-step explanation:

When the first equation is factored, there are no real solutions that can be found. b^2 - 4ac has to be greater than 0 to have two solutions. x^2 + 2x + 1 is (x + 1) ^ 2, so there is one solution.

Answer: look at the picture

Step-by-step explanation: Hope this help :D

[tex]\mathfrak{\huge{\orange{\underline{\underline{AnSwEr:-}}}}}[/tex]

Actually Welcome to the concept of Angles.

Here we apply the concept of the Adjacent angles and linear pair of the angles.

1.) Angle 1 = 90° and Angle 2 = 60°

2.) Angle 4 = 90° and Angle 3 = 70°

3.) Angle 6 = 90° and Angle 5 = 65°

Answer:

1 and 5

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

21.4 mm

Step-by-step explanation:

area ÷ base = height

164.78 mm^2 ÷ 7.7 mm

21.4 mm

Check:

base • height = area

7.7 mm • 21.4 mm = 164.78 mm^2

The height of the Triangle is 47.08 mm

A triangle is a polygon with three sides , three vertices and three angles.

It is given that

Area of the Triangle = 164.78 sq. mm

Base of the Triangle = 7.7 mm

Area of the Triangle = (1/2) * base * height

164.78 = (1/2) * 7.7 * Height

Height = 164.78 * 2 /7.7

Height = 47.08 mm

Therefore the height of the Triangle is 47.08 mm

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Answer: x= (2/3,0) y=(0,2)

X=(4,0) y=(0,8)

X=(-3,0) y=(0,-3)

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

The probability that the result of one die roll is greater than 4 is the number of events in set A divided by the total number of possible outcomes (the size of the sample space S) and so the probability of getting a number greater than 4 on one die roll is  2/6  which reduces to  1/3 .

Step-by-step explanation:

Assuming you mean “greater”, rather than “greater than or equal to”, the “successful” rolls are 5 and 6. That’s two out of six choices, so the probability is 2/6 or 1/3.

It gets more interesting when you want the total of several dice to be above a certain number, or to get that number on M of N dice rolls.

But the two basic probability formulas work - 1) add up all possible successful results and all possible results, then divide the number of successes into the total. 2) Multiply all the failure probabilities together, then subtract the result from 1 (100%) to get the success probability. With these two rules, you can solve most simple probability problems.

Playing D&D, and want to know the chance of scoring a 17 or 18 total when rolling 3 dice? You can only get an 18 one way - 6 6 6. You can get a 17 three ways - 6 6 5, 6 5 6, or 5 6 6. So that’s 4 chances out of 6 x 6 x 6 possibilities, which is 216. That’s about 1.85%. With quite a bit more work, you can discover the chance of getting a 17 or better when rolling 4 dice and adding the 3 highest.

Answer:

3.04 units

Step-by-step explanation:

h = volume / (3.14 x r^2)

86 / (3.14 x 3^3) = 3.04 units

Answer:

g(x) = e^(x + 2) + 2

Step-by-step explanation:

First, let's describe the shifts.

Vertical shift.

For a function f(x), a vertical shift of N units is written as:

g(x) = f(x) + N

If N is positive, then the shift is upwards.

If N is negative, then the shift is downwards.

Horizontal shift.

For a function f(x), a horizontal shift of N units is written as:

g(x) = f(x - N)

If N is positive, the translation is to the right

If N is negative, the translation is to the left.

Now let's solve the question.

f(x) = e^x

First, we have a vertical shift up of 2 units, then:

g(x) = f(x) + 2

Now we have a shift to the left of 2 units:

g(x) = f(x - (-2)) + 2

g(x) = f(x + 2) + 2

Then:

g(x) = e^(x + 2) + 2

Answer:

It's on the third at the picture

Step-by-step explanation:

hope it helps make brainlliest ty the

Answer:

Ha recorrido 8 km.

Step-by-step explanation:

Primero debes multiplicar el diámetro de la rueda por el número de vueltas que ha dado para encontrar cuánto ha recorrido:

80cm*10.000=80.000 cm

Ahora, debes convertir los 800.000 cm a km usando una regla de tres considerando que 1 km es igual a 100.000 cm:

1 km    →    100.000 cm

 x       ←    800.000 cm

x=(800.000*1)/100.000

x=8 km

De acuerdo a esto, la respuesta es que ha recorrido 8 km.

Answer:

(-3,5)

Step-by-step explanation:

Rewrite in vertex form and use this form to find the vertex.

Answer:

761.54$

Step-by-step explanation:

Step-by-step explanation:

the answer is £761.54

if I am right plz give brainliest

Answer:

6 sessions

Step-by-step explanation:

s= session

silver gym: 30 +  45s

session 1: 75

session 2: 120

session 3: 165

session 4: 210

session 5: 255

session 6: 300

fit factor: 90+ 35s

session 1: 125

session 2 : 160

session 3: 195

session 4: 230

session 5: 265

session 6: 300

Answer:

[tex]120 \times \pi \div 180[/tex]

=2.094

Answer:

Andie spends $300   (Marisa spends 180)

Step-by-step explanation:

X= What Marisa spends

3------------5

X----------- x+120

CROSS MULTIPLICATION

5X = 3X+ 360

2X = 360

X = 180

     180+120 = 300

Andie spend $300.

A subfield of mathematics known as arithmetic operations deals with the study and application of numbers to all other subfields of mathematics. Operations like addition, subtraction, multiplication, and division make up the bulk of it.

These fundamental numerical activities (+, - , ×, and ÷) we use in our day to day existence. Arithmetic operations are used in every aspect of our lives, whether we need to figure out the annual budget or divide something equally among several people.

Given Marisa spend $3 and same time Andie spend $5,

let when Marisa spend $x,

spend of Andie = x + 120

spend of Marisa and Andie are in ratio and equal

3 / 5 = x/(x + 120)

3(x + 120) = 5x

3x + 360 = 5x

2x = 360

x = 180

spend of Andie = x + 120 = 180 + 120 = $300

Hence the spend is $300.

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Answer:

Ryan is a more consistent performer

Step-by-step explanation:

The complete question is

HEL 1. Shown are the final scores for Norm Duke in the past eight bowling tournaments.

299, 281, 285, 269, 280, 269, 286, 287

Part A: What is the mean absolute deviation of Norm Duke’s scores?

A.

7.50

B.

7.00

C.

7.25

D.

6.75

Part B: Based on the mean absolute deviation from Part A, who has been the more consistent bowler if Ryan Shafer has a mean absolute deviation of 7?

Solution

First we will find the mean deviation of Duke is 7.5

The standard deviation of Ryan is 7.0. This means that the average variation in case of Duke is higher than that of average variation of Ryan.

Hence, Ryan has been more consistent performer

3 bottom sections:

10 x 20 = 200

5x 20 = 100

10 x 20 = 200

Bottom area = 200 + 200 + 100 = 500 square feet.

Short side: 3 x 20 = 60

Deep end wall : 6 x 20 = 120

Side wall : (24 x6) - (10x3) - (1/2 x 4x3) = 144-30-6 = 108

2 side walls: 108 x 2 = 216

Total area : 500 + 216 + 60 + 120 = 896 square feet

Divide total area by area of 1 gallon:

896/400 = 2.24 gallons

It will take 2.24 gallons of paint

Answer:

10 and 64.

16 and 40

Step-by-step explanation:

The product of the two numbers is equal to the product of LCM and HCF

Number 1* Number 2= LCM * HCF

Number 1* Number 2= 8*80

Number 1* Number 2= 640

Both the numbers are greater than 8. Suppose one number is 10 then the other number will be 640 ÷ 10= 64

so the two numbers will be 10 and 64.

Similalrly the two numbers can also be 16 and 40 and like wise.

Any number greater than 8 dividing 640 will give the second number also.

Answer:

5 1/3

Step-by-step explanation:

You turn 1 1/3 into an improper fraction by multiplying 3 time 1 plus 4 and you get 4/3. you multiply 4/1 time 4/3 and get 16/3. 16/3 divided by 3 = 5 with a remainder of 1 and get 5 1/3

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

Determine the corresponding sides by the same opposite angles.

Opposite sides to 24° angle are FG and KL.

Correct expression is A: