Function f is composed of an exponential piece and a polynomial piece.
Which inequality represents the domain of the exponential piece?
A) x ≥ -1
B) x > 1
C) x > 3
D) x ≤ -2

Answer:

there should be a "paper clip" sign

Step-by-step explanation:

then go to it click it and pick or take a photo

Answer:

D

Step-by-step explanation:

because 5 times 11 is 55. Times is also another word for multiplication.

Answer:

m<ACB=1/2 of m<AOB

so m<ACB=45⁰÷2

m<ACB=22.5⁰

I HOPE IT HELPS HAVE NICE DAY!

Answer:

m<ACB=22.5° [as inscribed angle is half to the central angle]

Answer:

B

Step-by-step explanation:

Step-by-step explanation:

We have,

3,3,3,4,4,6,7,10

The largest number (L) = 10

The smallest number(S) = 3

Since, the range is the difference between the largest and the smallest value given in the data,

Here,

R = L-S

= 10-3

= 7

Thus Range = 3

Answer:

(

−

7

)

(

6

+

5

)

g0gf0g0g0

Answer:

See Explanation

Step-by-step explanation:

Given

See attachment for complete question

First, we determine the cost function for all the three rides.

Ride A

From the graph, we have the following points

[tex](x_1,y_1) = (0,8)[/tex]

[tex](x_2,y_2) = (2,12)[/tex]

Calculate slope

[tex]m = \frac{y_2 - y_1}{x_2 - x_1}[/tex]

[tex]m = \frac{12-8}{2-0}[/tex]

[tex]m = \frac{4}{2}[/tex]

[tex]m =2[/tex] --- This represents the rate per ride

The equation is the calculated as:

[tex]y = m(x - x_1) + y_1[/tex]

So, we have:

[tex]y = 2(x - 0) + 8[/tex]

[tex]y = 2(x) + 8[/tex]

[tex]y = 2x + 8[/tex]

So, the cost function is:

[tex]C(x) =2x + 8[/tex]

Calculate the cost of admission i.e. x=0

[tex]C(0) = 2*0+8 = 8[/tex]

So, we have:

[tex]C(0) = 8[/tex] --- Admission Charge

[tex]C(x) =2x + 8[/tex] --- Cost function

[tex]m =2[/tex] --- Rate per ride

Ride B

From the table, we have the following points

[tex](x_1,y_1) = (0,12)[/tex]

[tex](x_2,y_2) = (4,15)[/tex]

Calculate slope

[tex]m = \frac{y_2 - y_1}{x_2 - x_1}[/tex]

[tex]m = \frac{15-12}{4-0}[/tex]

[tex]m = \frac{3}{4}[/tex]

[tex]m = 0.75[/tex] --- This represents the rate per ride

The equation is the calculated as:

[tex]y = m(x - x_1) + y_1[/tex]

So, we have:

[tex]y = 0.75(x - 0) + 12[/tex]

[tex]y = 0.75(x) + 12[/tex]

[tex]y = 0.75x + 12[/tex]

So, the cost function is:

[tex]C(x) = 0.75x + 12[/tex]

Calculate the cost of admission i.e. x=0

[tex]C(0) = 0.75*0 + 12=12[/tex]

So, we have:

[tex]C(0) =12[/tex] --- Admission Charge

[tex]C(x) = 0.75x + 12[/tex] --- Cost function

[tex]m = 0.75[/tex] --- Rate per ride

Ride C

No additional fee;

So, the cost function is;

[tex]C(x) = 30[/tex]

In summary, we have:

Ride A

[tex]C(x) =2x + 8[/tex] --- Cost function

[tex]m =2[/tex] --- Rate per ride

Ride B

[tex]C(x) = 0.75x + 12[/tex] --- Cost function

[tex]m = 0.75[/tex] --- Rate per ride

Ride C

[tex]C(x) = 30[/tex] --- Cost function

By comparison

Ride A has the highest rate per ride of (#2), followed by ride B with a rate  of #0.75 per ride.

Ride C has no charges per ride

The impact on the total cost is that:

Ride A: People that opt for ride A will pay the least to get admitted (i.e #8) but they pay the most (i.e. #2) per each ride they take

Ride B: People that opt for ride B will pay #12 to get admitted, but they pay 0.75 per each ride they take

For A and B, the overall cost depends on the number of rides taken.

Ride C: Irrespective of the number of rides taken, people that opt for ride C will pay the same flat fee of #30

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

LHS

tan θ * cot θ

= sin θ / cos θ * cos θ / sinθ

= 1

RHS

sec θ * cos θ

= 1/cos θ * cos θ

= 1

Therefore LHS = RHS proved.

Answer:

I would think 1050 but I may be wrong

Answer:

80

Step-by-step explanation:

Look at the figure below. The perimeter is the same as if the corners were moved out to form a square. Then you have 4 congruent sides of length 20.

P = 4 * 20 = 80

The perimeter of a shape is the summation of the sides of the shape. The perimeter of the shape is 80 units.

From the attached figure, we have the following observations

This means that if the shape is drawn (see attachment) to have 4 sides, opposite sides of the shape will be congruent.

The first side length is:

[tex]Length = 20[/tex]

While the adjacent side length is:

[tex]Width = 12 + 8 =20[/tex]

The perimeter (P) of the shape is then calculated as follows:

[tex]P = 2 \times (Length + Width)[/tex]

[tex]P = 2 \times (20 + 20)[/tex]

[tex]P = 2 \times 40[/tex]

[tex]P = 80[/tex]

Hence, the perimeter of the shape is 80 units.

Read more about perimeters at:

https://brainly.com/question/6465134

Answer:

Divide both sides by L

Step-by-step explanation:

Because L is multiplied by W, to find W you would need to move the L to the other side by doing the reverse operation, which in this case is division.

Answer:

x=4

Step-by-step explanation:

the ones on top of each other you are adding together so -10x + -2x equals -12x and -32+-16 equals -48 and -48 divided by -12x equals positive 4

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

you can see from the picture that adding 2y and -2y cancels out. So the remaining parts of the equations are

-10x=-32

-2x=-16

add the two together:

-12x=-48

x=4

Answer:

1,920 words

Step-by-step explanation:

60 divided by 4 is 15

15 times 128 is 1,920.

Hope it helps! :)

Answer:

1920

Step-by-step explanation:

We know that it takes her 4 minutes to type 128 words

So we need to figure out how many it takes her to type a word per minute

128 divided by 4=32

So multiply 32 word by 60 ( 60 mins = an hour)

Answer=1920

Answer: Monica

Step-by-step explanation:

Given

Monica has a 20% chance of winning a prize

Brianne has a  [tex]\frac{1}{10}[/tex] chance of winning a prize

20% chance refers to

[tex]\dfrac{20}{100}=\dfrac{2}{10}[/tex]

As

[tex]\dfrac{2}{10}>\dfrac{1}{10}[/tex]

therefore, monica is more likely to win the prize.

Answer:

Cells are the basic building blocks of all living things. The human body is composed of trillions of cells. They provide structure for the body, take in nutrients from food, convert those nutrients into energy, and carry out specialized functions.

Step-by-step explanation:

Hopes this help.

Answer:

x > 9.

Step-by-step explanation:

Here it is just simplifying the inequality.

6 - 2/3x < x - 9

Add 2/3x to both sides.

6 < 5/3x - 9

Add 9 to both sides.

15 < 5/3x

Multiply by 3/5.

9 < x

Flip it.

x > 9.

Answer:

x > 9

Step-by-step explanation:

I think I think I think I think

Answer:

4

Step-by-step explanation:

The given equation of circle is:

[tex] (x+2)^2 +(y-3)^2 =4 [/tex]

[tex] (x+2)^2 +(y-3)^2 =2^2 [/tex]

Equating it with:

[tex] (x-h)^2 +(y-k)^2 =r^2 [/tex]

We find:

[tex] r^2=2^2 [/tex]

[tex]\therefore r=2 [/tex]

Radius of the circle = 2 units

Therefore,

Diameter of the circle = 2*2= 4 units

Answer:

5x-27y=-2

Step-by-step explanation:

-2x+7x=5x

y-3y=-27y

0-2=-2

5x-27y=-2

Answer:

Measure of the side opposite to the angle measuring 33° is 9.37 unit

Step-by-step explanation:

If a, b and c are the sides of a triangle,

And 'a' = 8

b = 15

Measure of the Included angle C = 33°

By applying cosine rule in the given triangle,

c² = a² + b² - 2abcos(C)

c² = 8² + (15)² - 2(8)(15)cos(33°)

   = 64 + 225 - 201.28

   = 87.72

c = √87.72

c = 9.266

  ≈ 9.27

Therefore, measure of the side opposite to the angle measuring 33° is 9.37 units

Answer:

3 is answer .

follow me and help me

Answer:

18

Step-by-step explanation:

Intersecting Secants Theorem:

6(x + 6) = 8(8 + 10)

6x + 36 = 8(18)

6x + 36 = 144

6x = 144 - 36

6x = 108

x = 18

Answer:

94.5 days

Step-by-step explanation:

We are asked to calculate the time.

The formula to calculate the time for half life =

t = t½ × In (Nt/No)/-In2

t½ = half life = 16 days

No = Initial substance = 120mg

Nt = Amount of substances after time t = 2 mg

t = 16 × In (2/120)/-In2

t = 94.510249529736 days

Approximately = 94.5 days

Therefore, the time it would take for the substance to decay from 120mg to 2 mg is 94.5 days.

Answer:

9 gal

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

300

Step-by-step explanation:

6 × 10¹ ÷ 2 × 10-¹

= 300

no of aluminium is 300 times more than that of gold

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

favorable success: 6/10

marbles: 200

So

P=Favorable cases/total cases

P=6(20)/10(20)

P=120/200

60Answer:

Step-by-step explanation: