Answer and Explanation:
The excess reserves are the reserves banks that maintain more the legal requirement. It shows the difference between the required reserve and the actual reserve
Hence, the last option is correct
Now the required reserve is
= ($11,000 × 11%)
= $1,210
And, the excess reserve is
= $2,200 - $1,210
= $990
Hence, the same would be relevant
Tax Increment Financing zones encourage economic development by Group of answer choices reducing or eliminating state or local taxes paid by businesses locating in the zone. reserving taxes generated by a new tax base in the zone for infrastructure or other public services within the zone. cutting the interest rate on private debt issued on business investment increments in the zone. providing financing to help pay additional taxes when business expands in an impacted area. All of the above. None of the above.
Answer:
Tax Increment Financing zones encourage economic development by
reserving taxes generated by a new tax base in the zone for infrastructure or other public services within the zone.
Explanation:
A Tax Increment Financing (TIF) zone is an economic development tool that reserves the property taxes within the zone for a period of time. Thereafter, the accumulated taxes are used to finance approved infrastructure and development improvement projects in the TIF zone through developer refunds. As an economic tool, a TIF zone encourages continued development of an area by attracting investors to the location.
Farm products which are perishable and seasonal nature are supplied by
Answer:
★ Farm products which are perishable and seasonal nature are supplied by many producers.
Explanation:
Hope you have a great day :)
Taxes that are paid by individuals on all money earned, including investments, are
Answer:
Personal Income Taxes
Explanation:
As the name of the tax implies, personal income taxes are simply taxes that are paid by individuals. A personal income tax is a percentage of the total amount of income a person received during a period of time, often a year, through different means: salary, permanent investments, occasional investments, and so on.
In some countries, personal income taxes are not levied on investment income in order to promote investment.
All of the following are true about the basic EOQ model except One half the order size equals the average inventory level. The average dollar value of inventory equals unit price multiplied by order quantity. Annual demand divided by EOQ will give the optimal number of orders per year. The reorder point equals daily demand multiplied by the lead time in days, excluding safety stock.
Answer:
Hence, the second statement describing the average inventory is false
Explanation:
The Economic Order Quantity (EOQ) is the order size that minimizes the balance of ordering cost and holding cost. At the EOQ, the carrying cost is equal to the holding cost. It is the order size that optimizes the investment in stock ordering.
The following statements
The number of orders = Annual demand/order size
Re-order level(point) Average daily usage × average lead time
Average inventory = safety stock × (1/2× order size)
The average Dollar value = Unit price × average inventory
Hence, the second statement describing the average inventory is false
Membo just paid a dividend of $4.6 per share. Dividends are expected to grow at 5%, 4%, and 3% for the next three years respectively. After that the dividends are expected to grow at a constant rate of 2% indefinitely. Stockholders require a return of 7 percent to invest in Membo’s common stock. Compute the value of Membo’s common stock today.
Answer:
P0 = $99.2830 rounded off to $99.28
Explanation:
The dividend discount model (DDM) can be used to calculate the price of the stock today. DDM calculates the price of a stock based on the present value of the expected future dividends from the stock. The formula for price today under DDM is,
P0 = D1 / (1+r) + D2 / (1+r)^2 + ... + Dn / (1+r)^n + [(Dn * (1+g) / (r - g)) / (1+r)^n]
Where,
D1, D2, ... , Dn is the dividend expected in Year 1,2 and so on g is the constant growth rate in dividends r is the discount rate or required rate of return
P0 = 4.6 * (1+0.05) / (1+0.07) + 4.6 * (1+0.05) * (1+0.04) / (1+0.07)^2 +
4.6 * (1+0.05) * (1+0.04) * (1+0.03) / (1+0.07)^3 +
[(4.6 * (1+0.05) * (1+0.04) * (1+0.03) * (1+0.02) / (0.07 - 0.02)) / (1+0.07)^3]
P0 = $99.2830 rounded off to $99.28
Plymouth Company owns equipment with a cost of $600,000 and accumulated depreciation of $375,000 that can be sold for $300,000, less a 4% sales commission. Alternatively, Plymouth Company can lease the equipment for four years for a total of $320,000, at the end of which there is no residual value. In addition, the repair, insurance, and property tax expense that would be incurred by Plymouth Company on the equipment would total $40,000 over the four-year lease.
A. Prepare a differential analysis on August 7 as to whether Plymouth Company should lease (Alternative 1) or sell (Alternative 2) the equipment.
B. Should Plymouth Company lease (Alternative 1) or sell (Alternative 2) the equipment?
Answer:
A. We have:
Profit from Lease Equipment (Alternative 1) = $280,000
Profit from Sell Equipment (Alternative 2) = $288,000
Differential Effects = Net gain from selling = $8,000
B. Since the net gain from selling is $8,000, Plymouth Company should sell (Alternative 2) the equipment.
Explanation:
A. Prepare a differential analysis on August 7 as to whether Plymouth Company should lease (Alternative 1) or sell (Alternative 2) the equipment.
Note: See the attached excel file for the differential analysis.
In the attached excel file, the following calculation is made:
Cost of Sell Equipment (Alternative 2) = Sales commission = Revenue * Sales commission percentage = $300,000 * 4% = $12,000
From attached excel file, we have:
Profit from Lease Equipment (Alternative 1) = $280,000
Profit from Sell Equipment (Alternative 2) = $288,000
Differential Effects = Net gain from selling = $8,000
B. Should Plymouth Company lease (Alternative 1) or sell (Alternative 2) the equipment?
Since the net gain from selling is $8,000, Plymouth Company should sell (Alternative 2) the equipment.
What is the proper order to eliminate debt?
The Buck Store is considering a project that will require additional inventory of $216,000 and will increase accounts payable by $181,000. Accounts receivable are currently $525,000 and are expected to increase by 9 percent if this project is accepted. What is the project's initial cash flow for net working capital
Answer:
$607,250 outflow
Explanation:
Net Working Capital is the amount of money needed to maintain operations on a day to day basis.
Net Working Capital = Current Assets - Current Liabilities
where,
Current Assets are calculated as :
Inventory $216,000
Accounts Receivable ($525,000 x 1.09) $575,250
Total $788,250
and
Current Liabilities = $181,000
therefore,
Net Working Capital = $788,250 - $181,000 = $607,250
Conclusion
The project's initial cash flow for net working capital is $607,250 outflow.
Activity-Based Product Costing
Sweet Sugar Company manufactures three products (white sugar, brown sugar, and powdered sugar) in a continuous production process. Senior management has asked the controller to conduct an activity-based costing study. The controller identified the amount of factory overhead required by the critical activities of the organization as follows:
Activity Budgeted Activity Cost
Production $471,200
Setup 310,800
Inspection 81,000
Shipping 156,000
Customer service 65,500
Total $1,084,500
The activity bases identified for each activity are as follows:
Activity Activity Base
Production Machine hours
Setup Number of setups
Inspection Number of inspections
Shipping Number of customer orders
Customer service Number of customer service requests
The activity-base usage quantities and units produced for the three products were determined from corporate records and are as follows:
Machine Hours Number of
Setups Number of
Inspections Number of
Customer Orders Customer
Service
Requests Units
White sugar 3,340 180 200 780 50 8,350
Brown sugar 2,130 270 300 2,150 320 5,325
Powdered sugar 2,130 250 500 970 130 5,325
Total 7,600 700 1,000 3,900 500 19,000
Each product requires 0.9 machine hour per unit.
Required:
If required, round all per unit amounts to the nearest cent.
1. Determine the activity rate for each activity.
Production $ per machine hour
Setup $ per setup
Inspection $ per move
Shipping $ per cust. ord.
Customer service $ per customer service request
2. Determine the total and per-unit activity cost for all three products.
Total Activity Cost Activity Cost Per Unit
White sugar $ $
Brown sugar
Powdered sugar
3. Why aren’t the activity unit costs equal across all three products since they require the same machine time per unit?
The unit costs are different because the products consume many activities in ratios different from the .
no matteehow much times i read this is still cant process this
ThingOne Company has the following information available for the past year. They use machine hours to allocate overhead. Actual total overhead$80,510 Actual fixed overhead$32,000 Actual machine hours11,000 Standard hours for the units produced10,600 Standard variable overhead rate$4.60 What is the variable overhead efficiency variance
Answer:
the variable overhead efficiency variance is $1,840 unfavorable
Explanation:
The computation of the variable overhead efficiency variance is shown below:
= Standard variable overhead rate × (standard hours - actual hours)
= $4.60 × (10,600 - 11,000)
= $1,840 unfavorable
Hence, the variable overhead efficiency variance is $1,840 unfavorable
As the standard hours would be less than the actual hours so it would be unfavorable variance
Craigmont uses the allowance method to account for uncollectible accounts. Its year-end unadjusted trial balance shows Accounts Receivable of $130,500, allowance for doubtful accounts of $925 (credit) and sales of $1,055,000. If uncollectible accounts are estimated to be 7% of accounts receivable, what is the amount of the bad debts expense adjusting entry
Answer:
the amount of bad debt expense for the adjusting entry is $8,210
Explanation:
The computation of the amount of bad debt expense for the adjusting entry is shown below:
= Unadjusted trial balance × estimated percentage - credit balance of allowance for doubtful accounts
= $130,500 × 7% - $925
= $9,135 - $925
= $8,210
Hence, the amount of bad debt expense for the adjusting entry is $8,210
Direct material budget. Inglenook Co. produces wine. The company expects to produce 2,500,000 two-liter bottles of Chablis in 2015. Inglenook purchases empty glass bottles from an outside vendor. Its target ending inventory of such bottles is 80,000; its beginning inventory is 50,000. For simplicity, ignore breakage. Compute the number of bottles to be purchased in 2015.
Answer:
2,530,000 bottles
Explanation:
Regarding the above information, we will compute the number of bottles to be purchased in 2015 as seen below
Purchase in units = Usage + Desired ending material inventory units - Beginning inventory units
Purchase in units = 2,500,000 + 80,000 - 50,000
Purchase in units = 2,530,000
Therefore, the number of bottles to be purchases in 2015 is 2,530,000
The following events apply to Guiltf Seafood for the 2018 fiscal year:
a. The company started when it acquired $39,000 cash by issuing common stock.
b. Purchased a new cooktop that cost $15,400 cash.
c. Earned $23,900 in cash revenue.
d. Paid $14,000 cash for salaries expense.
e. Adjusted the records to reflect the use of the cooktop. Purchased on January 1, Year 1, the cooktop has an expected useful life of five years and an estimated salvage value of $3,200. Use straight-line depreciation. The adjusting entry was made as of December 31, Year 1.
Required:
Record the above transactions in a horizontal statements model.
Answer:
Cash + Equipment - Accumulated depreciation = Common stock + Retained = $46,460
Explanation:
Note: See the attached excel file for the horizontal statements model.
In the attached excel file, we have:
Accumulated depreciation = (Cost of cooktop or equipment - Estimated salvage value) / Expected useful life = ($39,000 - $3,200) / 5 = $2,440
From the attached excel file, the accounting equation can be proved from the balances as follows:
Cash + Equipment - Accumulated depreciation = $33,500 + 15,400 - $2,440 = $46,460
Common stock + Retained = $39,000 + $7,460 = $46,460
Therefore, we have:
Cash + Equipment - Accumulated depreciation = Common stock + Retained = $46,460
The December 31, 2021, post-closing trial balance for Strong Corporation is presented below:
Accounts Debit Credit
Cash $ 23,400
Accounts receivable 23,200
Prepaid insurance 4,300
Supplies 160,000
Long-Term Investments 57,000
Land 46,000
Buildings 278,000
Accumulated depreciation 83,000
Accounts payable 37,200
Notes payable, due 2022 62,000
Interest payable 11,000
Notes payable, due 2031 121,000
Common stock 210,000
Retained earnings 67,700
Totals $ 591,900 $ 591,900
Question Completion:
Prepare a classified balance sheet as of December 31, 2021.
Answer:
Strong Corporation
STRONG CORPORATION
Classified Balance Sheet
As of December 31, 2021
Assets
Current Assets:
Cash $ 23,400
Accounts receivable 23,200
Prepaid insurance 4,300
Supplies 160,000 $210,900
Total current assets
Long-Term Investments $57,000
Long-term assets:
Land 46,000
Buildings 278,000
Acc. depreciation 83,000 195,000 $241,000
Total assets $508,900
Liabilities and Equity
Current liabilities:
Accounts payable 37,200
Notes payable, due 2022 62,000
Interest payable 11,000 $110,200
Long-term liabilities:
Notes payable, due 2031 $121,000
Equity:
Common stock 210,000
Retained earnings 67,700 $277,700
Total liabilities and equity $508,900
Explanation:
a) Data and Analysis:
STRONG CORPORATION
Post-closing Trial Balance
December 31, 2021
Accounts Debit Credit
Cash $ 23,400
Accounts receivable 23,200
Prepaid insurance 4,300
Supplies 160,000
Long-Term Investments 57,000
Land 46,000
Buildings 278,000
Accumulated depreciation $83,000
Accounts payable 37,200
Notes payable, due 2022 62,000
Interest payable 11,000
Notes payable, due 2031 121,000
Common stock 210,000
Retained earnings 67,700
Totals $ 591,900 $ 591,900
b) The balance sheet is a summary of the financial position or assets, liabilities, and equity of Strong Corporation as at December 31, 2021.
g Mad Mex just paid a dividend of $4.00. Next year they anticipate paying a dividend of $6 and then a dividend of $7 in the subsequent year. After that point, the company plans to grow dividends by at a constant 5% growth rate forever. Your required rate of return for the stock is 10%. What is the market value of the stock
Answer:
The market value of the stock is $132.73.
Explanation:
D0 = Dividend just paid = $4
D1 = Anticipated next year dividend or Year 1 dividend = $6
D2 = Dividend of in the subsequent year or Year 2 = $7
D3 = Year 3 dividend = D2 * (100% + Dividend growth rate forever) = $7 * (100% + 5%) = $7.35
Sum of present values of D1 and D2 = (D1 / (100% + required rate of return)^1) + (D2 / (100% + required rate of return)^2) = ($6 / (100% + 10%)^1) + ($7 / (100% + 10%)^2) = $11.2396694214876
Stock price in year 2 = D3 / (Required rate of return - Dividend growth rate forever) = $7.35 / (10% - 5%) = $147
Present value of Stock price in year 2 = Stock price in year 2 / (100% + required rate of return)^2 = $147 / (100% + 10%)^2 = $121.487603305785
Market value of the stock = Present value of Stock price in year 2 + Sum of present values of D1 and D2 = $121.487603305785 + $11.2396694214876 = $132.73
Therefore, the market value of the stock is $132.73.
Consider a series of end-of-period CFs spanning 2040-2050, which increase by a fixed amount each period. The amount of the first CF in the series is $149 and the increment is $76. The nominal interest rate is 1.3%; compounding occurs 5 times per year. What is the equivalent value of this series at the beginning of 2040
Answer:
The equivalent value of the series=$ 10,536.61
Explanation:
An annuity is a series of equal payment or receipt occurring for certain number of period.
The series of cash flows of $149 and the increase $76 occurring for 10 years are example of ordinary annuity.
So we can workout their present value using the formula stated below:
This is done as follows:
The Present Value of annuity = A × (1- (1+r)^(-n))/r
Present value of series of fixed amount cashflow
A- periodic cash flow-149, r- semi annual rate of interest - 1.3/5= 0.26%
n- number of period- (10×5) = 50.
Present value = 149× (1-1.0026^(-50)/0.0026=6,977.57
Present value of the increment series of cashflow
A- periodic cash flow-76, r- semi annual rate of interest - 1.3/5= 0.26%
n- number of period- (10×5) = 50.
Present value = 76× (1-1.0026^(-50)/0.0026=3,559.03
The equivalent value of the series = Present value of the fixed amount + present value of the increment= 6,977.57 + 3,559.03= 10536.61
The equivalent value of the series=$ 10,536.61
WiseGuy Capital mutual fund has $200 million in assets and 10 million shares at the start of the year and with $250 million in assets and 11 million shares at the end of the year. During the year investors have received income distributions of $2 per share and capital gain distributions of $.25 per share. Assuming that the fund carries no debt, does not charge any load, and the total expense ratio is 2%, what is the rate of return on the fund
Answer:
The return rate on the fund is "23.75%".
Explanation:
The given values are:
In the starting of the year,
Mutual fund assets,
= $200
Share,
= 10 million
In the end of the year,
Income distribution,
= $2 per share
Capital gain distribution,
= $.25 per share
Total expense ration,
= 2%
Now,
The initial NAV will be:
= [tex]\frac{200mn}{10mn}[/tex]
= [tex]20[/tex]$
The final NAV will be:
= [tex]250-\frac{250\times 0.01}{11}[/tex]
= [tex]22.5[/tex]
hence,
The return will be:
= [tex]\frac{Change \ in \ NAV+Div+Capital \ gain \ distribution}{Initial \ NAV}[/tex]
On substituting the values, we get
= [tex]\frac{22.5-20+2+0.25}{20}[/tex]
= [tex]\frac{4.75}{20}[/tex]
= [tex]0.2375[/tex]
i.e.,
= [tex]23.75[/tex]%
Assume that you have entered into a fixed for fixed currency swap agreement under which every 6 months you agree to pay 3% on a notional of 110M USD and receive 4% on a notional of 100M EUR. On the date you signed the contract the spot exchange rate is 1.1 USD/EUR. Six months later the spot exchange rate is 1.05 USD/EUR. Your actual payment net of what you receive at the first payment date equals to :__________
Answer: -0.55M USD
Explanation:
The payment made will be:
= 3%/2 × 110M USD
= 0.03/2 × 110M USD
= 1.65M USD
The amount received will be:
= 4%/2 × 100M EUR
= 2% × 100M EUR
= 0.02 × 100M EUR
= 2M EUR
Since exchange rate = 1.1 USD/EUR
2M EUR = 2 × 1.1 = 2.2M USD
Therefore, net payment will be:
= 1.65M - 2.2M
= - 0.55M USD
Bummerland finds itself in a recession caused, as assumed in class, a sticky nominal (money) wage (W) which is too high to clear the labor market.
Bummerland has a Treasury and a "Federal Reserve" (called the Bummerb¬ank). At a meeting of officials of both agen¬cies, various antirecess¬ionary policies are considered. The economic staffs of both agencies are seriously split on issues such as how interest sensitive investment is and how interest sensitive the demand for money is. However, they are in agreement that the marginal propensity to consume (b) is .75 and the marginal propensity to hold cash (k) is .2. Bummerland has banks, but the reserve requirement is 100%, so they don't create money.
Debate has narrowed to four prospective policies. Your as¬signment is: (1) illustrate these policies using IS,LM diagrams; (2) compare as completely as possible ( if you can't, you must explain what additional information would be required ) the effects of these policies on Y*, r, I*, the real wage, and unemployment. Class format is strongly encour¬aged.
Here are the four policies: (1) a $50 billion increase in the money supply by means of open market opera¬tions; (2) a $50 billion increase in the money supply to be introduced by reducing tax collections; (3) a $50 billion increase in the money supply to be introduced through government spending; (4) a $50 billion increase in unemployment benefits paid for with a tax increase.
Answer:
is this a book if so send me a link
Explanation:
Select the correct answer. How does insurance protect a policyholder against financial loss? A. by allowing the policyholder to make premium payments B. by allowing the policyholder to make a claim for reimbursement C. by allowing the policyholder to avoid maintenance costs for the insured items D. by allowing the policyholder to pay for all the losses
Answer:
by allowing the policyholder to make premium payments
Explanation:
Answer:
B. by allowing the policyholder to make a claim for reimbursement
Explanation:
Took the test on plato 100% right
Coffee Klatch is an espresso stand in a downtown office building. The average selling price of a cup of coffee is $1.49 and the average variable expense per cup is $0.36. The average fixed expense per month is $1,300. Use the formula method to determine how many cups of coffee would have to be sold to attain target profits of $3,000 per month.
Answer:
See below
Explanation:
The formula method is denoted by
Unit sales to attain the targeted profit =( Target profit + Fixed expenses) / Contribution margin per unit
Target profit = $3,000 per month
Fixed expenses = $1,300
Contribution margin per unit = $1.49 - $0.36 = $1.13
Therefore, unit sales to attain targeted profit = ($3,000 + $1,300) / $1.13 = 3,805.31 units
It means that 3,805.31 cup of coffee would have to be sold to attain target profit of $3,000 per month.
How would you change bankruptcy law?
The provisions of Section 706(a) of the Bankruptcy Code permit debtors to convert a Chapter 7 case into a Chapter 13 case. However, the debtor cannot convert if the Chapter 7 case previously was converted from a case filed under a different chapter on request of a creditor, the trustee, or the bankruptcy court.
You may file a complaint with OSHA if you believe a violation of any of the following situations exist in your workplace.
Safe conditions
Job Hazard Analysis
Imminent Danger
• No Hazards
Answer: Imminent Danger
Explanation:
A complaint with OSHA can be filed with the existence of the following workplace situation C. Imminent Danger.
What is OSHA?OSHA stands for the federal government's regulatory agency known as the Occupational Safety and Health Administration. OSHA is one of the agencies of the United States Department of Labor. It has powers to inspect, examine workplaces, and impose sanctions.
Thus, employees can file complaints with OSHA when there is an imminent danger, but they do not need to do so where safe conditions, job hazard analysis, and no hazards exist.
Learn more about filing OSHA complaints here: https://brainly.com/question/10078747
If a price ceiling is imposed at $15 per unit when the equilibrium market price is $12, there will be:
Answer:
the tiny thing dont work
Income Statement; Net Loss The following revenue and expense account balances were taken from the ledger of Acorn Health Services Co. after the accounts had been adjusted on January 31, 20Y7, the end of the fiscal year: Depreciation Expense $16,900 Insurance Expense 8,280 Miscellaneous Expense 6,590 Rent Expense 68,300 Service Revenue 324,500 Supplies Expense 4,060 Utilities Expense 26,030 Wages Expense 255,200 Prepare an income statement. Acorn Health Services Co. Income Statement For the Year Ended January 31, 20Y7
Answer:
See below
Explanation:
Acorn Health Services Co.
Income statement for the year ended, January 31st
Service revenue $234,500
Expenses:
Depreciation expense
$16,900
Insurance expense
$8,280
Miscellaneous expense
$6,590
Rent expense
$68,300
Supplies expense
$4,060
Utilities expense
$26,030
Wages expense
$255,200
Total expense ($385,360)
Net income (loss) $150,860
Coffee Klatch is an espresso stand in a downtown office building. The average selling price of a cup of coffee is $1.49 and the average variable expense per cup is $0.24. The average fixed expense per month is $1,600. An average of 2,100 cups are sold each month. What is the CM Ratio for Coffee Klatch?
Answer:
The contribution margin ratio for Coffee Klatch is 83%.
Explanation:
Given that Coffee Klatch is an espresso stand in a downtown office building, and the average selling price of a cup of coffee is $ 1.49 and the average variable expense per cup is $ 0.24, and the average fixed expense per month is $ 1,600, to determine what is the CM Ratio for Coffee Klatch if an average of 2,100 cups are sold each month, the following calculation must be performed:
Contribution margin ratio: (sales - variable costs) / sales
((2,100 x 1.49) - (2,100 x 0.24)) / (2,100 x 1.49) = X
(3.129 - 504) / 3.129 = X
2.625 / 3.129 = X
0.83 = X
Thus, the contribution margin ratio for Coffee Klatch is 83%.
Which best explains why banks consider interest on loans to be important?
Answer:
what are the options as answers?
Explanation:
To encourage employee ownership of the company's common shares, KL Corp. permits any of its employees to buy shares directly from the company through payroll deduction. There are no brokerage fees and shares can be purchased at a 13% discount. During May, employees purchased 15,000 shares at a time when the market price of the shares on the New York Stock Exchange was $13 per share. KL will record compensation expense associated with the May purchases of:
Answer:
$25,350
Explanation:
Calculation to determine what KL will record compensation expense associated with the May purchases of
Compensation expense =[(15,000 shares
x $13 per share)*13%]
Compensation expense =$195,000 x 13%
Compensation expense =$25,350
Therefore KL will record compensation expense associated with the May purchases of $25,350
Product A is normally sold for $9.60 per unit. A special price of $7.20 is offered for the export market. The variable production cost is $5.00 per unit. An additional export tariff of 15% of revenue must be paid for all export products. Assume there is sufficient capacity for the special order.
Required:
A. Prepare a differential analysis dated March 16 on whether to reject (Alternative 1) or accept (Alternative 2) the special order.
B. Should the special order be rejected (Alternative 1) or accepted (Alternative 2)?
2) Product B has revenue of $39,500, variable cost of goods sold of $25,500, variable selling expenses of $16,500, and fixed costs of $15,000, creating a loss from operations of $17,500.
Required:
A. Prepare a differential analysis as of May 9 to determine if Product B should be continued (Alternative 1) or discontinued (Alternative 2), assuming fixed costs are unaffected by the decision.
B. Determine if Product B should be continued (Alternative 1) or discontinued (Alternative 2).
Answer:
A. Differential Analysis dated March 16
Reject Accept
Sales revenue per unit $0 $7.20
Variable production cost 0 5.00
Additional export tariff 0 1.08
Total variable costs 0 $6.08
Net income $0 $1.12
B. The special order should be accepted.
2) Product B:
Revenue of $39,500
Variable cost of goods sold of $25,500
Variable selling expenses of $16,500
Fixed costs of $15,000
Operational loss $17,500
Differential Analysis of May 9
Reject Accept
Sales revenue $0 $39,500
Variable costs:
Product $0 25,500
Selling $0 16,500
Fixed costs $15,000 15,000
Total costs $15,000 $57,000
Net loss $15,000 $17,500
B) Product B should be discontinued.
Explanation:
a) Data and Calculations:
Normal selling price per unit of Product A = $9.60
Special order price for the export market = $7.20
Variable production cost = $5.00 per unit
Additional export tariff = $1.08 ($7.20 * 15%)
Total variable production and export costs = $6.08
You won the lottery when the jackpot was $3,300,000 (annual payments of $165,000 paid for 20 years). Your choice is to take the annual payments for 20 years or take the lump sum payout today. The lottery administration uses a 4% interest rate. What is the value of the lump sum payout
Answer:
Lump sum= $2,242,403.85
Explanation:
First, we need to calculate the future value of the annual payments using the following formula:
FV= {A*[(1+i)^n-1]}/i
A= annual payment
FV= {165,000*[(1.04^20) - 1]} / 0.04
FV= $4,913,382.97
Now, the lump sum is the present value of the annual payments:
PV= FV / (1 + i)^n
PV= 4,913,382.97 / (1.04^20)
PV= $2,242,403.85