El lado de un rectángulo mide el tiple de su ancho, si el perímetro mide 96 cm ¿cuáles son sus dimensiones?

Answer:

=−745,537.6

Step-by-step explanation:

Hope that helps

Answer:

95

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

95

Step-by-step explanation:

8455 divided by 89

multiply the top equation by 3, multiply the bottom equation by 4, then subtract the bottom equation from the top equation

multiply the top equation by 3, multiply the bottom equation by -2, then add the equations

Answer: It's B.

Step-by-step explanation: I took the test.

Answer:

X=8

Step-by-step explanation:

JK would equal 28, since it basically is double the side of that triangle. So now we have the equation, 2x+12=28. Now we solve using inverse operation. 28-12=16 and then 16 divided by 2 is 8, so x=8.

The required simplified value of x is 8, for the given triangle.

A midpoint is a point on the line whose distance from both ends of the line is equal.

The triangle is a geometric shape that includes 3 sides and the sum of the interior angle should not be greater than 180°

Here,
The property of a triangle states that the line joining the midpoints of the two adjacent sides is equal to half of the third side.
So,
JK = 2NO
2x + 12 = 24
x = 16 / 2
x  = 8

Thus, the required simplified value of x is 8, for the given triangle.

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Step-by-step explanation:

(a) Fₙ₋₁ > 0, so Fₙ₊₁ > Fₙ.  Each term is bigger than the one before it, so the function is increasing, meaning the series will diverge to infinity.

(b) Fₙ₊₁ / Fₙ = (Fₙ + Fₙ₋₁) / Fₙ

Divide.

Fₙ₊₁ / Fₙ = 1 + (Fₙ₋₁ / Fₙ)

Rewrite the second fraction using negative exponent.

Fₙ₊₁ / Fₙ = 1 + (Fₙ / Fₙ₋₁)⁻¹

Take the limit of both sides as n approaches infinity.

lim(n→∞) Fₙ₊₁ / Fₙ = 1 + lim(n→∞) (Fₙ / Fₙ₋₁)⁻¹

Substitute with φ.

φ = 1 + φ⁻¹

Solve.

φ² = φ + 1

φ² − φ − 1 = 0

φ = [ -(-1) ± √((-1)² − 4(1)(-1)) ] / 2(1)

φ = (1 ± √5) / 2

Since the ratio can't be negative:

φ = (1 + √5) / 2

Answer: Your answer should be 5 quarts.

Step-by-step explanation:

After conversion 10 pints will be equal to 5 quarts .

Given,

Convert 10 pints to quarts.

Few unit conversions :

Conversion Factors:

1 mile = 5280 feet

1 foot = 12 inches

1 inch = 2.54 cm

1 cm = 10 mm

1 second = 1 s

Now,

Here 10 pints to quarts .

1 quart = 2 pints

Hence ,

10 quarts = 5 pints .

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Answer:

C is your answer

Answer:

96000 corn

Step-by-step explanation:

80,000/43500 = 1.84

1.84/0.5 = 3.678

3.678 x 26100 = 96000

Answer:

c

Step-by-step explanation:

288/6 = 48

Hope this helps

Answer:

c.

Step-by-step explanation:

For ratio, u should divide

So, 288/6 = 48:1 or 48/1

6 times 48=288

Pls mark me brainliest

Answer:

-6

Step-by-step explanation:

If x=3 and y=6, 4x-3y=-6 because 4x with x=3 makes the first number 12. 3y with y=6 makes the result 18, so now the equation is 12-18. 12-18=-6, so 4x-3y with x=3 and y=6 will equal -6.

Hopefully the answer and explanation helps!

Answer:

-6

Step-by-step explanation:

All you have to do is plug in the numbers. So it should look like 4(3) - 3(6). Now all you have to do is solve. 4 x 3 = 12. 3 x 6 = 18. Now subtract. 12 - 18 = -6

Answer: 40320 sequence to test.

Step-by-step explanation:

we have given the following data:

No of wires which need to be attached to a circuit board = 8

What We need to find is the number of possible sequences of assembly that must be tested.

Using our multiplication rule of counting we arrive at,

Number of possible sequences of assembly is given by

8! = 8 x 7 x 6 x 5 x 4 x 3 x 2 x 1

= 40320

i.e. there are 8 choices for the first wire, 7 choices for the second wire, 6 choices for the third wire, 5 choice for the fourth wire same till the 8th wire.

Hence, there are 40320 possible sequences of assembly.

Answer:

The value is -6.

Step-by-step explanation:

First, you use subsitution.

4(3) - 3(6)

Then, you multiply.

12 - 18

Do the subtraction and you're left with -6 as your answer.

Answer: down, by 3 units

Step-by-step explanation: -3 is negative so you go down on the graph 3 times

Answer:

down by 3 units

Step-by-step explanation:

i just did this assignment on edg

Answer:

11,236

Step-by-step explanation:

i think this might be the answer but if it not alseat I try helping

Answer:

0.3

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

3/20

Step-by-step explanation:

1/5=4/20

7/20-4/20=3/20

Hope this helps!

Answer:

slope is 0

Step-by-step explanation:

the equation describes a horizontal line with a y-intercept of -4. as the line is horizontal, the slope is 0

Answer:

X=5

Step-by-step explanation:

3x+4=19

3x+4-4=19-4

3x=15

15/3x=

X=5

Hope this helps!

Answer:284.55

Step-by-step explanation:divide 21 by 3=7  7times 2.40=16.8           14.35 times 21=301.55

Answer:

the answer to the question is 0.96.

Answer:

1 inch

Step-by-step explanation:

the 9 is in the tenths place.  5 or more you need to round up.

Answer:

m= -2

b= 2

y= -2x + 2

Step-by-step explanation:

Just did it

The slope of a line is m = -2 that passes through the points (-3, 8) and (4.-6), the y-intercept (b) of the line is 2, and the equation is y = -2x + 2.

The slope of a line is defined as the gradient of the line. It is denoted by m

Slope m = (y₂ - y₁)/(x₂ -x₁ )

Given that the line that passes through the points (-3, 8) and (4.-6).

Let

x₁ = -3, y₁ = 8

x₂ = 4, y₂ = -6

∵ Slope m = (y₂ - y₁)/(x₂ -x₁  )

Substitute values in the formula

m = (-6 - 8)/(4 -(-3))

m = (-14)/7

m = -2

y - 8 = m(x - (-3))

y - 8 = -2(x + 3)

y = -2x -6 + 8

y = -2x + 2

Since the slope-intercept form, y = mx+b

So the y-intercept (b) of the line,

b = 2

Thus, the slope of a line is m = -2 that passes through the points (-3, 8) and (4.-6), the y-intercept (b) of the line is 2, and the equation is y = -2x + 2.

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Answer:

c b a

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

cba

Step-by-step explanation:

sorry if its wrong

Answer:

The answer is the first one, I put 5 pounds of birdseed and he ate 5 pounds, leaving you with none, or zero.

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

7. 10^2

8. 3x3x3x3x3x3x3x3x3 = 19,683mi^2

Answer:

600

Step-by-step explanation:

Sense 2 hours has passed you divide the amount of distance the plane has traveled by the amount of time it took. :)

Answer:

600 mph

Step-by-step explanation:

its the speed of the plane

the solution is distance travel which is 1,200 miles divided by the time 2 hours will be equal to 600 miles per hour (mph).

Answer:

M=[tex]-\frac{3}{4}[/tex]

Step-by-step explanation:

M=[tex]\frac{rise}{run}[/tex]

From left to right, the line goes down. Therefore, it is a negative slope.

[tex]-\frac{3}{4}[/tex]

[tex]2x + \frac{1}{3} = \frac{4}{3} [/tex]

[tex]2x = \frac{4}{3} - \frac{1}{3} [/tex]

[tex]2x = \frac{3}{3} [/tex]

[tex]2x = 1[/tex]

[tex]\color{hotpink}x = \frac{1}{2} [/tex]

Therefore , the correct option is :-

[tex]\color{yellow}\mapsto\color{teal}x =\color{magenta} \frac{1}{2} [/tex]

Answer:

that would be a

Step-by-step explanation:

just took the test

Answer:

A, B,  D

Step-by-step explanation: